Systems Flashcards
(210 cards)
1
Q
What is the Min crew?
A
2 Pilot
4 FA
2
Q
Length?
Wingspan?
A
129’6”
117’5”
3
Q
How much space for 180 degree turn?
A
79’
4
Q
When do fwd/aft overwing doors become unlocked?
A
On the ground OR DC power removed
5
Q
How many exits?
A
10
6
Q
What emergency equipment is on the flight deck?
A
3-3-CHEEP
3 life vests 3 oxygen masks Halon fire extinguisher Crash axe PBE ELT Escape ropes
7
Q
When does the oxygen mike become active?
A
When the right stowage box door is opened
8
Q
When is passenger oxygen activated?
A
Cabin altitude above 14000’
9
Q
Can I have fixed landing lights and turnoff lights on at the same time while stopped?
A
No, too much heat
10
Q
What are three ways emergency exit lights come on?
A
Turned on on the overhead panel
Turned on at the aft attendant panel
Loss of electrics or AC power off
11
Q
Which light switches are on the Captain side of the overhead panel
A
Landing, turnoff, taxi
12
Q
Where is the dome white switch
A
Aft overhead panel
13
Q
Does the FA emergency light switch override the flight deck?
A
Yes
14
Q
Can the Captain’s flight deck window be opened from the outside? Can the FOs?
A
No
Yes
15
Q
How long does passenger oxygen last?
A
12 Minutes
16
Q
What does the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light mean?
A
GPU is connected and meets power quality standards.
17
Q
What does the APU GEN OFF BUS light mean?
A
APU is running but its generator is not powering a bus.
18
Q
When does IDG disconnect switch work?
A
Electric power available and engine start lever is in IDLE.
19
Q
Can I reconnect an IDG in flight?
A
No
20
Q
What does the DRIVE light mean?
A
IDG low oil pressure or under frequency condition.
21
Q
What does the GEN OFF BUS light mean?
A
The IDG is not powering the related transfer bus.
22
Q
What three busses does each Transfer Bus power?
A
Main bus, Galley bus, Ground Service bus. Transfer Bus 1 (left side) also powers the AC Standby Bus.
23
Q
What does the TRANSFER BUS OFF light mean?
A
The related transfer bus is not powered.
24
Q
What happens when the BUS TRANS switch is off?
A
AC transfer bus 1 is isolated from bus 2. In Auto, the bus ties would close.
25
What does the SOURCE OFF light mean?
No power source has been manually selected OR the manually selected source has been disconnected
26
What do Transformer Rectifiers do?
Convert AC power from the Generators or External Power to DC
27
What does the TR UNIT light mean?
TR1 failed, or TR2 and TR3 failed. On the ground, any TR failure will illuminate the light.
28
What does the main battery do? What does the auxiliary battery do?
Power for APU or engine start. The Aux battery operates in parallel with the main only when using standby power.
29
What is the battery voltage range?
22-30 volts.
30
What does the BAT DISCHARGE light mean?
Excessive battery discharge detected.
31
What are the three battery busses?
Hot Battery
Switched Hot Battery
Battery
32
How long can standby power function on batteries?
60 min
33
What busses are on the standby power system?
```
Switched hot battery bus
Hot battery bus
Battery bus
DC standby bus
AC standby bus
```
34
What does the ELEC light mean?
Only illuminates on the ground, and indicates a fault in the DC power system or standby system
35
What does STANDBY PWR OFF light mean?
Power removed from the AC standby bus, DC standby bus, or Battery bus
36
What happens when the STANDBY POWER switch is in the BAT position?
It forces the batteries to power AC standby bus, DC standby bus, and battery bus.
37
What does the GROUND SERVICE switch do?
Enables aircraft servicing with external power without energizing the AC transfer busses
38
Where is the GROUND SERVICE switch located?
Forward FA panel
39
Can sources of AC power be paralleled?
No
40
What happens when I connect a new source of power to an AC bus?
The old source is disconnected.
41
What three components are powered by the ground service bus?
Utility outlets
Cabin lighting
Battery chargers
42
What is the function of the GEN switch?
Disconnects or connects the IDG
43
What do Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRS) provide?
Position
Speed
Attitude
Altitude
44
How many Display Electronic Units (DEU) are there?
2. They power all six display units
45
When do CDS fault messages appear?
On the ground prior to the second engine start
46
What is the difference between CDS FAULT and CDS MAINT
CDS FAULT is NOT dispatch-able
| CDS MAINT is dispatch-able
47
The FMA’s are in what order?
Autotrottle
Roll
Pitch
48
What does the Pitch Limit Indicator do?
Indicates max pitch limit for current phase of flight. Above Pitch Limit Indicator, you’ll get stick shaker.
49
What is the max gear extended speed
320 kts
50
What is the bank angle limit below V2+15?
15 degrees
51
What does the ALT DISAGREE alert mean?
Capt and FO altimeters disagree by more than 200’ for more than 5 sec
52
When does the flight recorder begin to operate?
Either engine starts
53
Which Radio Tuning Panel does ACARS use?
RTP 3
54
What bus powers each radio?
VHF1- DC Standby
| VHF2 and 3- DC 2 Bus
55
How many HF radios? How many HF antennas?
2 radios, 1 antenna
56
When operating radios in the degraded mode, which radio does each crewmember use?
CA- VHF1
FO- VHF2
OBS- VHF1
Hand mike will be inop
57
What are the PA priorities
Flight deck announcements
FA announcements
Pre-recorded announcements
58
What does the FAULT light on the fire detection panel mean?
Both fire loops in an engine have failed
59
What does the APU DET INOP light mean?
The APU fire loop has failed
60
What does the DETECTOR FAULT mean on the Cargo Fire panel?
Both loops have failed in one or both cargo compartments
61
How many fire bottles are there for engine/APU/cargo?
Engine- 2 bottles
APU- 1
Cargo- 1
62
What systems have fire detection?
```
Engines
APU
Cargo
Lavatories
Wheel well (no extinguishing system)
```
63
What bus powers fire detection systems? What bus powers fire extinguishing systems?
Detection- battery bus.
| Extinguishing- hot battery. I can always fight a fire!
64
Where is the APU ground control panel?
Right wheel well
65
What is the ENGINE FAIL alert?
It is displayed on the EGT indicator
| It is displayed when engine is less than 50% N2 AND the Engine Start Lever is in the IDLE position
66
When should start lever be placed to idle during a normal engine start?
When N2 is at max motoring (less than 1% rise in 5 seconds) AND there is N1 rotation. N2 minimum is 25%.
67
When should engine start switch move to OFF during a normal engine start?
56% N2
68
When will the Electronic Control Unit (ECU) cause the APU to automatically shut down?
APU fire
APU overspeed
APU low oil pressure or high temperature
APU fault
69
When is the APU ready to run bleed air and electrics?
When the APU GEN BUS OFF light illuminates.
Two minutes.
70
What type of engine?
CFM56-7
71
What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) do?
Uses N1 to set thrust in either normal or alternate modes
72
What does the EEC ALTN light mean?
The EEC is in alternate (soft) mode. The EEC uses the last valid flight conditions to define engine parameters.
73
How do I put the EEC in alternate hard mode?
Retard the thrust lever to Idle OR turn the EEC switch off
74
What are the primary engine indications on the upper Display Unit (DU)?
N1
EGT
Fuel Flow
75
What does a red box in the N1 display after shutdown indicate?
An exceedance during the flight.
76
What malfunctions should cause an aborted engine start?
N1 or N2 does not increase after EGT
No oil pressure by the time the engine is at idle
EGT does not increase by 10 seconds after the engine start lever is moved to idle
EGT quickly nears the start limit
77
What does the EEC monitor during engine start (ground only)?
Hot Starts
EGT exceedance
Wet Start
78
What does the REVERSER light mean?
Thrust reverser commanded to stow. Goes out after 10 seconds when the isolation valve closes. After 12 seconds, a master caution occurs if the reverser has not stowed.
79
What does the OVERSPEED light on the APU panel mean?
RPM limit exceeded OR
| Self Test failed (during shutdown)
80
What does the FAULT light on the APU panel mean?
A malfunction has caused the APU to shutdown
81
What does the LOW OIL PRESSURE light on the APU panel mean?
Oil pressure low caused an automatic shutdown. This is normal to see during APU start
82
Can I operate the APU with the blue MAINT light?
Yes, but tell maintenance of the problem ASAP
83
What altitude can the APU generator be used up to?
41,000’
84
What power source is needed to start the APU?
External power
Engine driven generator
Main battery
85
How long does the APU run to cool during shutdown?
60 seconds
86
Where does fuel for the APU come from
Left side fuel manifold, OR
| Suction fed from main tank #1 if AC fuel pumps are not operating
87
What is the max altitude for APU bleed air?
17,000’
| If using APU generator, 10,000’
88
Will the APU shutdown automatically if its fire loop senses a fire? Will it automatically discharge its fire bottle?
Yes
| No
89
When in AUTO, when will the isolation valve close?
If any pack or bleed air switch is turned OFF
90
How many packs can the APU operate on the ground? In flight?
2 on the ground, 1 in flight
91
Which bleed air manifold does the APU connect to?
Left
92
What does the DUAL BLEED light mean?
Both the APU and engine bleed air switches are on at the same time. Engines do not have to be running.
93
What does the WING BODY OVERHEAT light mean?
Bleed air duct leak
94
How many temperature zones are there?
3
95
When can I not operate the pack switches in the high position?
Takeoff, approach, and landing
96
What does the PACK light mean?
Pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls
In master caution recall, it means failure of either primary or standby pack control.
97
What does the ZONE TEMP light mean?
CONT CAB indicates a duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control.
FWD CAB or AFT CAB indicates duct temperature overheat.
-During Master Caution light recall:
- CONT CAB indicates failure of the flight deck primary or
standby temperature control.
- Either FWD CAB or AFT CAB indicates failure of the associated zone temperature control.
98
What does the CONT CAB ZONE TEMP light mean?
Duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control
99
What does the OFF light on the Equipment cooling panel mean?
Insufficient cooling airflow (either the supply or exhaust fan is inop). Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the OFF light within 5 seconds.
100
What does the OFF SCHED DESCENT light mean?
The airplane descended before reaching the planed cruise altitude
If a flight is aborted in climb and returns to the takeoff airport, the controller programs the cabin to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs. If the FLT ALT indicator is changed, the automatic abort capability to the original takeoff field elevation is lost.
101
What does the AUTO FAIL light on the pressurization panel mean?
The auto controller failed. The system automatically switches to the alternate controller, and you’ll get a green ALTN light
102
What happened if the AUTO FAIL light is on without the ALTN light?
Both automatic controllers have failed, and manual mode must be selected.
103
What altitude does the cabin altitude warning horn sound?
10,000’
104
What does the BLEED TRIP OFF light mean?
Excessive engine bleed air temperature or pressure. The valve automatically closes, and can be reset
105
What happens when there is an E/E bay overtemp on the ground?
The crew call horn sounds in the nose wheel well
106
What is electrically heated with the PROBE HEAT switches on?
- Pitot probes
- Total Air Temperature probe. (not heated on the ground unless TAT Test switch is pushed, may be tested on the ground with the probe heat switch off)
- Alpha vanes.
107
If PROBE HEAT has an AUTO switch, when does heat come on?
In AUTO, probe heat is powered automatically when either engine is started.
108
What is the logic of the blue anti ice lights on the overhead panel?
-Bright – Related anti-ice
valve is in transit, or anti-ice valve position disagrees with related ANTI-ICE switch position.
-Dim – Related anti-ice valve is open. (switch ON)
-Extinguished – Related anti-ice valve is closed. (switch OFF)
109
When does the Window Heat OVERHEAT light come on?
An overheat condition is detected.
| Electrical power to window(s) is interrupted.
110
What does the PROBE HEAT light mean?
The related probe is not heated.
| Note: If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status.
111
What does the COWL ANTI ICE light mean?
Overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve. (Not temp related)
112
What area of the engine is heated with anti ice?
Engine cowl lip
113
What is the indication when engine anti ice is in use?
TAI is displayed above N1 digital display.
(Green)– cowl anti-ice valve is open.
(Amber)– cowl anti-ice valve is not in position indicated by related engine anti–ice switch.
114
Which systems are heated by bleed air
Engine cowl lip
| Leading edge slats
115
Which systems are heated by electric heat?
```
Pitot probes
Alpha vanes
TAT probe
Elevator pitot probes
Flight deck windows
```
116
Which slats are heated by wing anti ice?
The three inboard leading edge slats
117
What does the Main Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE light mean?
Pump pressure low or switch off.
Note: Two LOW PRESSURE lights illuminated in the same tank illuminate MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights. One LOW PRESSURE light causes MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights to illuminate on MASTER CAUTION light recall.
118
Describe the logic of the blue crossfeed VALVE OPEN light.
```
Bright:
- Valve in transit, or
- Valve position and CROSSFEED Selector disagree.
Dim:
-Valve is open.
Extinguished:
- Valve is closed.
```
119
What does the fuel FILTER BYPASS light mean?
Impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated filter.
120
What does a fuel quantity LOW alert mean?
-fuel quantity less than 2000 lbs. in related main tank.
121
What does a fuel CONFIG alert mean?
Displayed (amber) –
- either engine running
- center fuel tank quantity greater than 1600 lbs.; and both center
fuel tank pumps producing low or no Pressure.
122
What does a fuel IMBAL alert mean?
Displayed (amber) –
- main tanks differ by more than 1000 lbs.
- displayed below main tank with lower fuel quantity.
- inhibited when airplane is on ground.
- inhibited by fuel LOW indication when both indications exist.
- displayed until imbalance is reduced to 200 lbs.
123
What are two ways to close the engine and spar valves?
- Place the engine start lever to CUTOFF.
| - Pull the engine fire warning switch.
124
Can I suction feed fuel from the main tanks?
Yes
125
What is the capacity of the main (wing) fuel tank?
8,360 lbs
126
What is the capacity of the center fuel tank?
28,803 lbs
127
Where is fuel temperature measured?
Tank 1 (left).
128
What is the max fuel temp?
49 C
129
What is the min fuel temp?
3 degrees above the fuel freeze or -43C, whichever is higher
130
What are the three hydraulic systems?
A system
B system
Standby system
131
How can I manually turn on the Standby Hydraulic pump?
- Turn the FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD
| - Selecting ALTERNATE FLAPS to ARM
132
What does the Hydraulic Standby Pump power?
Rudder
Standby yaw damper
Either thrust reverser
Leading edge flaps and slats
133
What is the indicator of low hydraulic fluid quantity
- A white RF beside the hydraulic quantity indication (on the ground only)
- Standby Hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light (always armed) on the Forward Overhead panel.
134
What is the normal hydraulic pressure?
3000 PSI
135
What happens when you select an ENGINE HYDRAULIC PUMP off?
It energizes blocking valve to block pump output.
Note: Normally should remain ON at shutdown to prolong solenoid life.
136
What is the min and max hydraulic pressure?
2800 PSI
| 3500 PSI
137
What does the Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
Low system A or B pressure to the ailerons, elevator, and rudder
138
What does the AUTO BRAKES DISARM light mean?
- the autobrakes are disarmed.
| - the turn-on self test is not successful.
139
What does the ANTI SKID INOP light mean?
A system fault is detected by the antiskid monitoring system.
140
Is anti skid available in both normal and alternate brake systems?
Yes
141
How can I disarm Autobrakes?
- Manual brakes
- Advance power (except in the first 3 sec after touchdown)
- Speed brake down
- Selector switch
142
What are the max speeds for the landing gear?
Extend- 270
Retract- 235
Extended- 320
143
Max speed for flaps 1,2, or 5?
250
144
Max speed for flaps 10?
210
145
Max speed for flaps 15?
200
146
Max speed for flaps 25?
190
147
Max speed for flaps 30?
175
148
Max speed for flaps 40?
162
149
When do the red gear lights illuminate?
When the gear position disagrees with the handle
When below 800’ with either thrust lever in idle and gear not down
150
When can the gear warning horn not be silenced?
Flaps greater than 10
OR
Less than 200’ radio altitude
151
How do I manually extend the gear if there is a hydraulic failure?
There are three manual extension handles. Pull each one out 24 inches to release the gear unlocks. The gear free fall into position.
152
What hydraulic system powers nose wheel steering?
A with switch in NORM, B with switch in ALT
153
How much steering do I get with the tiller? With the rudder pedals?
78 degrees with tiller, 7 degrees with pedals.
154
What hydraulic systems power the brakes?
- Normal- B (anti skid, autobrakes)
- Alternate- A (anti skid, no autobrakes)
- Accumulator- pressurized by B (anti skid, no autobrakes) (several brake applications or one park brake)
155
Do autobrakes work with anti skid inoperative?
No
156
What speed is RTO armed?
90 knots
157
When do autobrakes begin application after landing?
Both thrust levers at idle
| Main wheels spin up
158
When does the Speed Trim System operate most frequently?
Takeoff, climb, and go around
159
What does the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light mean?
In flight –
-SPEED BRAKE lever is beyond the ARMED position, and
-TE flaps extended more than flaps 10, or
-Radio altitude less than 800 feet.
On the ground –
- SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN detent
- Ground spoilers are not stowed.
160
What does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light mean?
- any LE device in transit.
- any LE device not in programmed position with respect to TE flaps.
- a LE slat skew condition exists.
- illuminated during alternate flap extension until LE devices are fully extended and TE flaps reach flaps 10.
Note: Light is inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.
161
What does the Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light mean?
low hydraulic system (A or B) pressure to ailerons, elevator and rudder.
162
What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light mean?
excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer.
163
What does the SPEED TRIM FAIL light mean?
- Indicates failure of the speed trim system.
- Indicates failure of a single FCC channel when
MASTER CAUTION recall is activated.
164
What does the MACH TRIM FAIL light mean?
- Indicates failure of the mach trim system.
- Indicates failure of a single FCC channel when
MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated.
165
What does the AUTO SLAT FAIL light mean?
- Indicates failure of the auto slat system.
- Indicates failure of the auto slat function in one of the SMYD
computers when MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated.
166
What does the YAW DAMPER light mean?
Yaw damper is not engaged.
167
What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light mean?
When armed, Indicates abnormal condition or test inputs to the automatic speed brake system. Light deactivated when SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position.
168
How does the flap load relief system operate?
- retract to 30 if airspeed for flaps 40 is exceeded. -re-extend when airspeed is reduced below flaps 40 speed.
- retract to 25 if the airspeed for flaps 30 is exceeded. -re-extend when airspeed is reduced below flaps 30 speed.
169
When will spoilers assist the ailerons?
When control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated.
170
When does the auto speed brake system operate during landing?
- SPEED BRAKE lever is in the ARMED position.
- SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is illuminated.
- landing gear strut compresses on touchdown.
- both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
- main landing gear wheels spin up.
171
What are three ways to move the stabilizer?
Trim switches on the control wheel
Autopilot trim
Manually positioning the stabilizer trim wheels
172
When does the Mach Trim system begin to operate?
Mach 0.615
173
When does stabilizer trim go into high speed mode?
Flaps extended
174
What do the stabilizer trim cutout switches do?
Stop electric and autopilot trim if control column movement opposes trim direction
175
Do not use the speedbrake below
1000’
176
What hydraulic system powers the flaps
B
177
Which flap positions are used for landing
15, 30, 40
178
Can I hold in icing with flaps out?
No
179
What is the max altitude for flap extension?
20,000’
180
How many Leading Edge flaps and slats are there?
Two flaps inboard and four slats outboard of each engine
181
Above what trailing edge flap position do slats move from the EXTEND position to the FULL EXTEND position?
Flaps 5
182
At what flap positions do autoslats move to the full full extend position if the airplane approaches a stall?
1,2, and 5
183
What causes the takeoff configuration warning?
- Flaps/slats not set
- Parking brake is set
- SPEED BRAKE lever is not DOWN
- Stabilizer trim not set in the takeoff range.
184
What is the symbology for TA and RA
TA- An amber circle.
| RA- A red square.
185
What are the types of GPWS alerts?
- excessive descent rate.
- excessive terrain closure rate.
- altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
- unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
- excessive deviation below an ILS glide slope.
- excessive deviation below glidepath.
186
When are predictive wind shear alerts automatically available?
- Thrust levers set for takeoff
| - In flight below 1,200 feet RA
187
What are the different terrain alerting colors?
- Dotted green: terrain is below the airplane’s current altitude.
- Dotted red or amber: represents terrain conflict.
- Dotted magenta: no terrain data available.
- Solid amber: look-ahead terrain caution active.
- Solid red: look-ahead terrain warning active.
188
What are the indications of a wind shear warning?
- Two-tone siren.
- Aural “WINDSHEAR”.
- Red WINDSHEAR on both attitude indicators.
189
Explain the meaning of the PSEU light. (Proximity Switch Electronic Unit)
- a fault is detected in the PSEU, or
| - an overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded.
190
Which roll modes are affected by the bank angle selector
HDG select
| VOR
191
How can a second autopilot be engaged?
- Both VHF NAV receivers tuned to the ILS frequency.
- Approach Mode (APP) selected.
- Second A/P engaged in CMD prior to 800 feet RA.
192
What will happen when TO/GA is selected below 2000 feet RA with autopilots engaged versus autopilots not engaged.
- No A/P or single A/P engaged: Disconnects autopilot and requires manual F/D go around.
- Both A/Ps engaged: A/P go-around mode is activated. A/Ps remain engaged.
193
What happens when TO/GA is pushed once versus twice?
- First push: A/T provides reduced go-around N1 to produce 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb.
- Second push: A/T advances to the full go around N1 limit.
194
What does the GPS light on the IRS mode select panel mean?
- Indicates failure of both GPS units.
- Indicates failure of a single GPS unit
when Master Caution recall is initiated.
195
What does a flashing ALIGN light mean?
- No present position entry.
| - Unreasonable present position.
196
Within how many miles will LNAV automatically capture course
3
197
When does LNAV engage on takeoff?
50’
198
When does LNAV engage on a Go Around?
50’
| With FLARE armed or captured, 400’
199
When do autopilot and Autothrottle disengage on an automatic landing?
Autopilot- manually disengage at touchdown
| Autothrottle- disengages 2 seconds after touchdown
200
Can I autoland single engine?
No, 2 engine flaps 30 or 40 only.
201
What powers the two IRUs?
- 115 volt AC (L: AC stby bus and R: AC tansfer bus 2)
| - 28 volt DC power as a backup (switched hot battery bus)
202
What does the ON DC light mean?
IRU is on DC power. Also sounds ground crew call horn.
203
What does the DC FAIL light mean?
IRU DC backup power is not normal
204
How long does IRU alignment take?
5-17 minutes
205
What speed will VNAV maintain for an engine failure on takeoff?
Between V2 and V2+20
206
When does the CDU “Drag Required” display?
Airspeed 10 knots or more above target speed
207
When can I not use IAN approach mode?
Circling
RNAV RNP
Approaches not in the FMS
Approaches requiring cold temp altitude corrections
208
Max N1 reduction for takeoff?
25%
209
What is the min oxygen pressure?
1000 PSI
210
What is the min oil quantity?
12 quarts
