T Cells Flashcards

1
Q

What are T cells and what is their role?

A

Lymphocytes generated in the thymus
Recognise antigen that is degraded as peptide fragments and presented on MHC (via TCR)
2 types
- cytotoxic T cells (CD8) kill virally infected somatic cells and tumour cells
- Helper T cells (via cytokines and cell contact signals, CD4)

Also play a role in allograft rejection

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2
Q

Describe the T cell receptor

A

Has two chains (alpha and beta)
Always membrane bound (not secreted like Ig)
Also has variable and constant region
Associated with CD3 signalling chains on the T cell
Recognise peptide presented on MHC

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3
Q

What is the role of CD4/CD8 on the T cell

A
Determines the function 
CD4 can recognise MHC class II on APCs
CD8 can recognise MHC class I on all somatic cells (excepts RBCs)
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4
Q

Describe the 3 stages of T cell maturation in the thymus

A

1) migration to the thymus (from thebone marrow, or FOETAL LIVER)
2) Differentiation via TCR gene rearrangement, expression of both TCR (VDJC genes, on chromosome 7 and 14), CD4 and CD8
3) selection –> learn to respond to MHC (approx 95% die)
- strong binding–>deletion (autoimmunity)
- not binding MHC–> deletion (useless T cells)
- weakly bind MHC I selected as CD8, weakly binding MHC II selected as CD4
T cells migrate through thymus cortex–>medulla–>periphery
Thymic output greatest before puberty (then decreases with age)

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5
Q

Which cells in the thymus are responsible for positive and negative selection of the T cells

A

Positive selection occurs on the thymic epithelial cells in the cortex
Negative selection occurs in both the cortex and medulla by BM derived DCs and macrophages (also some medullary epithelial cells)

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6
Q

Describe the role of AIRE

A

Autoimmune regulatory genes
Expression of tissue specific antigen occurs at low levels in the thymus (medullary epithelial cells) to induce deletion of high affinity T cells and promote Treg cells

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7
Q

What are the cause and features of Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome Type I?

A

previously called APECED= autoimmmune polyendocrinopathy with candidiasis and ectodermal dystrophy
- AR disorder with mutation in AIRE gene –> failure to express tissue specific antigen–>failure to delete T cells specific for multiple tissue antigens–>autoimmunity–>lymphocytic infiltration of multiple tissues with multiple autoantibodies

Three cardinal manifestations
1) chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, candida is controlled by Th17 cells which secrete IL-17 and IL-22 (autoimmunity to these in APS Type I)
2) autoimmune hypoparathyroidism
3) autoimmune addison's disease
\+can be other autoimmune manifestations
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8
Q

What is the necessity of peripheral tolerance, and which cells are responsible for promoting it?

A

Alternative means for maintaining tolerance outside the thymus to deal with T cells that escape the process, self antigen not expressed in the thymus and food antigen/commensal organisms and environmental antigens
Suppression by Treg cells

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9
Q

What are the features of a Treg cell and what is the role of Foxp3?

A
CD4pos cells (also CD25+)
10-15% of peripheral CD4 cells
express transcription factor Foxp3 (influences genes, reinforces regulatory phenotype (CTLA4, IL-10), blocks transcription of IL-2, responsible for development and function of Treg cells
Lack of Foxp3--> autoimmunity, allergy and lymphoproliferation
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10
Q

What are the cause and features of IPEX?

A

IPEX= immune dysfunction, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked
Defect in Foxp3 (no regulation by Treg cells–>autoimmunity and allergy)
- frequently fatal, presents forst few months of life
- endocrinopathy: diabetes, thyroiditis
- enteropathy–>FTT–>diarrhoea
- haemolytic anaemia
- ITP
- autoimmune neutropenia
- atopic features: eczema, food allergy, eosinophilia
- lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly

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11
Q

What are the mecahnisms of suppression of the Treg cell?

A
  • CD25 mops up IL-2 and restricts access by conventional T cells
  • CTLA4, inhibitory signalling molecule expressed late on activated T cells to limit their expansion (down regulates CD80/CD86 (B7) on APC)
  • induction of inhibitory cytokines by DCs (IL-10 and TGFbeta)
  • secrete inhibitory cytokines IL-10, TGFbeta, IL-35, IL-9
  • cytolysis of other cells (Macrophages, T cells) via granzyme B, perforin
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12
Q

Preferred locations of naive, mature and memory T cells?

A

Naive T cells preferentially circulate through the LNs where they can encounter activating signals
Mature T cells leave the thymus and circulate through the LNs looking for MHC+foreign peptide on APCs
Memory T cells preferentially circulate through the tissues where they can be activated and more easily engage effector function

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13
Q

Which cytokine results in T cell clonal expansion (autocrine pathway)

A

IL-2

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14
Q

What is required for T cell activation?

A

presentation of peptide in MHC
AND
co-stimulation, mediated by B7.1 and B7.2 interacting with CD28 amd CTLA-4
–> foreign

absence of costimulation–> tolerance

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15
Q

What are the essential co-stimulatory molecules on APCs that interact with T cells, and what do they interact with on the T cell?

A

CD80 (B7-1) and CD 86 (B7-2)
Bind and stimulate CD28–>activation of the T cell
OR
CTLA-4 on the T cell–> generates a negative signal, delayed deactivation of the activated T cell, regulatory T cells to suppress
CTLA4 Ig used to block T cell activation in RA
Anti CTLA trialled in cancer Rx (SE autoimmunity)
OR
CD40ligand on T cell interacts with CD40 to activate the APC, express more B7 to activate other T cells

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16
Q

What is the main role of IL-2

A

T cell growth factor
Drives cell division- induction of immune response, maintenance of Treg cells
acts on IL-2R
targeted in immunosuppresives (eg steroids, calcineurin inhibitors, which inhibit IL-2 induction)

17
Q

What are super antigens?

A

Antigens that stimulate a wide range of T cells without requiring processing (bind outside the MHC peptide groove)
Results in massive cytokine release from T cells, proliferation and then deletion
important in TSST-1 and staph enterotoxins

18
Q

Th1 cells:

  • which cytokines potentiate differentiation?
  • what is secreted when activated
  • what is their function?
A
  • differentiate from IL-12, IFN-gamma
  • secrete IFN gamma, TNF, lymphotoxin
  • antiviral and antibacterial immunity (activate macrophages, induce Ig isotypes, activate NK cells)
19
Q

IL-12, IFN-gamma potentiate differentiation to which T helper cells?

A

Th1

20
Q

Th2 cells:

  • which cytokines potentiate differentiation?
  • what is secreted when activated
  • what is their function?
A
  • differentiate from IL-4
  • secrete IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13
  • immunity to extracellular parasites/helminths, role in atopic response (IgE production by B cells from IL-4 and IL-13, eosinophilia fro Il-5)
21
Q

Il-4 potentiate differentiation to which T helper cells?

A

Th2

22
Q

Th17 cells:

  • which cytokines potentiate differentiation?
  • what is secreted when activated
  • what is their function?
A
  • differentiate from IL-1, IL-6, IL-23 +/- TGF beta
  • secrete IL-17 (stimulate many cell types to release cytokines/chemokines and attract neutrophils, release defensins and other AMPs)
  • secrete IL-22 (stimulate release of defensins and other AMPs)
  • role in autoimmnue disease (inflammation)
  • defence against candida (fungal immunity), extracellular bacteria
23
Q

IL-1, IL-6 and IL-23 potentiate differentiation to which T helper cells?

A

Th17

24
Q

What is the role of follicular T helper cells?

A

Probably Th1, Th2 and Th17 types
migrate to the lymphoid tissue
Help B cells class switch and affinity maturation
secrete IL-21 and IL-4 or IFN gamma

25
Q

What is the role of cytotoxic T cells

A

Elimination of virally infected cells (infected cell displays peptide from intracellular viral protein, CD8 T cell recognises and kills target by:

1) Perforin-granzyme (insertion of perforin into membrane, pore formation, osmotic swelling and lysis, granzymes pass into cell and induce caspase enzymes
2) Fas pathway- FasL on T cell binds to Fas on target cell, activate caspases
3) TNF pathway

26
Q

What are “innate-like lymphocytes”?

A

gamma-delta T cells
generated in thymus, do not express CD4 or CD8
gamma-delat TCR structurally similar to alpha-beta TCR
bind to specific ligands (heat shock proteins, non peptide ligands eg mycobacterial antigen)
populate specific epithalial sites (skin, reproductive tract, intestine, lymphoid tissue)
rapid mobilisation prior to specific T cells/co-ordinate innate and adaptive responses at epithelial sites? (role unclear)

27
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD3

A

integral part of TCR complex

28
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD2

A

adhesion molecule, interacts with LFA-3

29
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD4

A

interacts with MHC class II

30
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD8

A

interacts with MHC class I

31
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD5

A

ligand for CD72 adhesion molecule

32
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD7

A

role in signal transduction

33
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD40L (CD154)

A

Co-stimulatory molecule, interacts with B cell CD40 to mediate class switching (mutated or deficient in Hyper IgM syndrome)

34
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CD28

A

co-stimulatory molecule, interacts with B7

35
Q

What is the role of this T cell surface molecule?

CTLA-4

A

inhibitory molecule, interacts with B7