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N517 Tests > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 essential features of CA cells

A

immortality
altered behavior
altered morphology

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2
Q

what is the building blocks of cells that helps regulate cellular activity

A

proteins

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3
Q

What is the role of transcription factor

A

enables genes to be transcribed by RNA polymerase

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4
Q

what is the difference between proto oncogenes and oncogenes

A

proto oncogenes allow for cell growth. When a mutation occurs that causes them to enable unregulated proliferation, they become oncogenes

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5
Q

HER2/neu is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis

A

proto oncogene, works on growth factor receptors, common in breast CA

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6
Q

B-raf is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis

A

protooncogene, works on signal transduction, common in melanoma

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7
Q

Myb is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis

A

proto oncogene, works on transcription factor, common in leukemia

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8
Q

what are tumor supressor genes

A

genes that stop the proliferation of cells

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9
Q

Rb is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis

A

tumor supressor gene, works on cell cycle regulation, commonly dysregulated in neuroblastomas

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10
Q

APC is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis

A

tumor supressor gene, works on cell adhesion, commonly dysregulated in colon CA

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11
Q

what are 4 mechanisms of gene mutation

A

epigenetic modification, genomic modification, ribosomal alterations, viral transformation

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12
Q

what gene mutations are caused by chemicals and radiation
what gene mutations are caused by environmental factors changing the genome

A

genomic mutation
epigenetic modification

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13
Q

What carcinogenic chemical is found in overcooked meat and cigarette smoke and what does it do to dysregulate cell production

A

PAH, can activate estrogen receptors causing increased cell growth

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14
Q

what is angiogenesis

A

new blood vessel creation to continue supplying the tumor cells with enough O2 and nutrients

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15
Q

what do tumor cells secrete that helps them get past encapsulating barriers to metastasis

A

proteases

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16
Q

true or false: all cancer cells are capable of metastasising

A

false, only a small amount of CA cells that mutate enough to get past encapsulating barriers can metastasis

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17
Q

why may chemotherapy that is targeted to the primary tumor not work as well on metastasized cells

A

the metastasized cells have mutated to a point to allow them to move and therefore may not be as receptive to the treatment

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18
Q

what is a high mitotic index and when is it seen

A

a large proportion of cells in mitosis, seen in CA cells as they are constantly proliferating

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19
Q

what are 3 symptoms that are common to almost all CA

A

fatigue, cachexia, inflammation

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20
Q

cachexia is marked by _____

A

loss of body weight, anorexia, anemia

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21
Q

how is weight loss from cachexia different than weight loss from starvation

A

in starvation, it is mostly adipose tissue that is lost. In cachexia, equal amounts of adipose and muscle tissue are lost

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22
Q

what is the main driver of cachexia in CA

A

inflammation

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23
Q

what are the 3 classic classes of CA biomarkers

A

isoenzymes, antigens, ectopic hormones

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24
Q

isoenzymes can be used for progression or diagnosis

A

progression only, not specific enough for diagnosis

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25
Q

PSA is an example of what kind of biomarker

A

antigen

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26
Q

what are some examples of ectopic hormones that are measured as CA biomarkers

A

ACTH, ADH, MSH

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27
Q

What are the novel CA biomarkers

A

DNA methylation markers
microRNAs
SNPs

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28
Q

CA cells are usually (more or less) methylated than normal cells

A

more

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29
Q

what are micro RNAs

A

non coding RNA that regulates gene expression

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30
Q

what happens to micro RNAs in CA

A

certain CA’s with either increase or decrease certain micro RNAs

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31
Q

Micro RNAs can be used as (diagnostic, prognostic, or predictive)

A

Micro RNAs can be used as all 3

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32
Q

what does SNPs stand for

A

single nucleotide polymorphins

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33
Q

what is a SNP

A

sequence of DNA where there is a variation in one nucleotide

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34
Q

True or false: on top of testing susceptibility of getting CA, SNPs can also be used as prognostic and diagnostic

A

true

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35
Q

what are the stages of the cell cycle and what happens at each stage

A

G1 cell growth
S DNA synthesis
G2 cell growth and preparation for division
M mitosis

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36
Q

what happens during transcription

A

genes are read in DNE to produce mRNA

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37
Q

what happens in translation

A

mRNA transcripts are red to produce protein

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38
Q

what is contact inhibition

A

when normal cells come into contact with other cells they stop growing

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39
Q

what is the origin tissue of a carcinoma

A

epithelium (skin, organ lining, GI tract)

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40
Q

what is the origin tissue of a adenocarcinoma

A

organ or gland

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41
Q

what is the origin tissue of a sarcoma

A

supportive tissue (bone, tendon, cartilage, fat)

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42
Q

what is the origin tissue of a lymphoma

A

lymphatic system

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43
Q

what is the origin tissue of a glioma

A

connective tissue in the brain

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44
Q

what is the origin tissue of leukemia

A

bone marrow (affect RBC and WBC)

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45
Q

what is the origin tissue of a myeloma

A

plasma cells in bone marrow

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46
Q

what are the 3 stages of tumor growth

A

hyperplasia, dysplasia, anaplasia

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47
Q

what is hyperplasia

A

increase in cell number

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48
Q

what is hyperplasia

A

increase in cell number

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49
Q

what is dysplasia

A

regression of cells into less differentiated types

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50
Q

what is anaplasia

A

more irregularity of cells/lose original function

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51
Q

what are some carcinogenic viruses

A

HPV, Epstein Barr, Kaposi sarcoma herpe, HBV, HCV

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52
Q

what does TNM stand for and what is it

A

tumor, node, metastasis. Used for staging

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53
Q

list the different levels of T stages

A

TX: primary tumor cant be assessed
T0: no primary tumor
T1: invades submucosa
T2: invades musculature
T3: through musculature into perirectal tissue
T4: perforates peritoneum and invades other structures

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54
Q

list the different levels of N stages

A

NX: node cannot be assessed
N0: no nodal involvement
N1: metastatis in 1-3 nodes
N2: metastasis in 4 or more nodes

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55
Q

list the different levels of M stages

A

Mx: metastasis could not be assessed
M0: no metastasis
M1: distant metastasis

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56
Q

what would be the TNM stage of a patient with a primary breast tumor that has invaded the muscles with local 2 local lymph nodes involved but no distant metastasis

A

T2N1M0

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57
Q

what is the MOA of mercaptopurine and what is it used for

A

CA therapy, inhibits DNA synthesis

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58
Q

what is the MOA of methotrexate when used in CA therapy

A

inhibits DNA synthesis

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59
Q

what is the MOA of cytochalasin and what is it used for

A

CA therapy, inhibits DNA replication

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60
Q

what is the MOA of vincristine and what is it used for

A

CA therapy, inhibits DNA replication

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61
Q

what is the MOA of doxorubicin and what is it used for

A

CA therapy, inhibits DNA function

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62
Q

what is the MOA of cisplatin and what is it used for

A

CA therapy, inhibits DNA function

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63
Q

what class if Tamoxifen and raloxifen, what are they used for

A

CA therapies, selective estrogen receptor modulators

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64
Q

Gleeve is what class of medication, how does it work and what is it used for

A

signal transduction modifier, is inhibits cell growth and causes apoptosis, CA therapy

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65
Q

Herceptin is what class of medication, how does it work and what is it used for

A

anti-cancer antibody, inhibits HER2, CA therapy

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66
Q

what is endostatin

A

angiogenesis inhibitor used in CA therapy

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67
Q

what is the MDR1 protein, what does it do and why is it important in CA

A

creates resistance to cytotoxic and targeted chemotherapy by pumping chemotherapies out of the cell before they can reach therapeutic levels

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68
Q

what is telomerase and when is there a increase in it

A

an enzyme which keeps adding telomeres back onto the ends of chromosones, CA cells have high telomerase activity, allowing them to continue replicating

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69
Q

how do aromatase inhibitors decrease estrogen

A

aromatase converts androgens to estrogen

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70
Q

in glaucoma, the distinguishing factor is peripheral or central vision loss

A

peripheral

71
Q

true or false: if a presents with glaucoma symptoms with eye pain it is a medical emergency

A

true

72
Q

is vision loss associated with glaucoma reversible? why or why not

A

no, due to death of optic nerve

73
Q

what excitatory substance is toxic and found at elevated levels in glaucoma

A

glutamate

74
Q

what is lantaprost and what is it used for

A

prostaglandin agonist, used for treatment of glaucoma

75
Q

what are the 3 classes of medication used to treat glaucoma

A

prostoglandin agonist, beta adrenergic blocker, cholinergic agonist

76
Q

how do beta adrenergiv agonists treat glaucoma

A

decrease fluid production

77
Q

what is timolo and what is it used for

A

beta adrenergic agonist to treat glaucoma

78
Q

what are some serious side effects of beta adrenergic blockers

A

cardiac failure, heart block, bronchospasm

79
Q

how do cholinergic agonists treat glaucoma

A

improve trabecular outlfow

80
Q

pilocarpine and carbachol are what kind of medication and used to treat what

A

cholindergic agonists to treat glaucoma

81
Q

what are some serious side effects of cholinergic agonists

A

miosis, brow ache, decreased vision

82
Q

what is blepharitis

A

inflammation of eyelid

83
Q

what is a non pharmacological treatment for inflammation of the eyelid

A

diluted shampoo/baby shampoo

84
Q

when would it be appropriate to use acidified ear drops

A

treatment of mild otitis externa

85
Q

what is the most common bacterial cause of AOM

A

S. Pneumoniae

86
Q

increased pressure in the endolymphatic system is characteristic of what disease

A

menieres

87
Q

what is the main differentiating factor between menieres disease and BPPV

A

Menieres disease has hearing loss

88
Q

true or false: children under the age of 6 months should not have empiric treatment for AOM when symptomatic

A

false, should treat all children under the age of 6 months with abx

89
Q

what cranial nerve is implicated in bells palsy

A

7 - facial

90
Q

what is the treatmetn for moderate to severe bells palsy

A

antivirals and steroids

91
Q

what disease can mimic bells palsy and what is the distiguishing factor

A

ramsay hunt - RH has a herpatic rash that follows a dermatone usually on ears or in mouth

92
Q

what are the 3 most common bacterial pathogens in ear infections

A

S. pneumoniea
haemophilus influenza
moraxella catarrhalis

93
Q

Swimmers ear is also called

A

diffuse otitis externa

94
Q

what ear infection is usually associated with a hair follicle

A

acute localized otitis externa

95
Q

what ear infection involved deeper tissues and is more prevalent in immunocompromised patients

A

necrotizing otitis externa

96
Q

what is otomycosis

A

otitis externa caused by fungal agent

97
Q

what is the role of cerumen in the ear

A

anti infective, moisturized, maintains acidic environment to reduce colonization

98
Q

what helps move cerumen further out of the ear canal

A

chewing and swallowing

99
Q

true or false: older men tend to have more cerumen than other population groups

A

true

100
Q

true or false: vaccinations decrease incidence of AOM

A

true, indirectly by reducing URTI

101
Q

when might an ear exam reveal a red and swollen canal with lots of debris and foul smelling discharge

A

otitis media with effusion

102
Q

true or false: debris in ear with OME should not be removed

A

false, should gently remove with suction or dry cotton swab

103
Q

what is auralgon and what is it used for? when is it not used?

A

topical otic analgesic for painful ear disorders but is not effective in otitis externa

104
Q

what is preffered for impacted cerumen: water or oil based products

A

water based

105
Q

what are defensins and where are they found

A

antibacterial peptides that coat the conjunctiva

106
Q

what is the main differentiating factor between bacterial vs viral or allergic etiology of red eye

A

bacterial usually starts in one eye and then may spread to other eye later, viral and allergic affects both eyes

107
Q

what is a possible prodrome of herpes zoster opthalamicus

A

tingling sensation

108
Q

what may cause a vesicular rash that crusts of the eye

A

herpes zoster opthalamicus

109
Q

what are the recommendations for treating herpes zoster opthalamicus

A

treat within 72 hours of onset with an antiviral

110
Q

what are some complications of herpes zoster opthalamicus

A

corneal scarring
glaucoma
cataracts
post herpatic neuralgia

111
Q

how is post herpatic neuralgia treated

A

gabapentin or tricyclic antidepressants

112
Q

what are some risk factors for gluacoma

A

increased IOP, family history, migraines, obesity, HTN

113
Q

Open angle or closed angle gluacoma is a medical emergency

A

closed angle glaucoma

114
Q

what are vision floaters

A

small clusters of cells or proteins lodged in vitreous humor

115
Q

what are common symptoms of bells palsy

A

droopy eyelid, facial paralysis, twitching, weakness

116
Q

what is a possible prodrom of bells palsy

A

postauricular pain

117
Q

bells palsy is usually caused by a: virus or bacteria

A

virus

118
Q

what are risk factors for bells palsy

A

elderly
diabetes
3rd trimester pregnancy
compromised immune system

119
Q

what are steroid eye drops only rx by an opthamologist

A

risk of glaucoma and cataracts

120
Q

when might an opthamlogist prescribe steroid drops

A

allergic conjunctivitis (severe)
keratitis
corneal injuries

121
Q

when are opthalmic vasoconstrictors used? when are they contraindicated

A

for short term treatment of red eye. Contraindicated in narrow angle glaucoma and viral infections

122
Q

what are 2 oral treatment options for dry eye syndrome

A

doxycycline, omega 3 fatty acid supplements

123
Q

what is the treatment for bells palsy

A

corticosteroids with or without antivirals and lubricating eye drops

124
Q

what condition may cause a vesciular rash on the ears or in the mouth

A

ramsay hunt

125
Q

what is the typical viral pathogen that causes bells palsy

A

herpes zoster

126
Q

what are some treatment options for tinnitus once serious etiology has been ruled out

A

misoprostol, benzodiazepines, low dose carbamazapine, intratympanic dexamethasone

127
Q

what is the classic triad of menieres disease

A

episodic vertigo
tinnitus
hearing loss

128
Q

Abx ending in “mycin” are part of what class

A

aminoglycosides

129
Q

abx with ceph in the name are part of what class

A

cephalosporins

130
Q

abx with “cycline” in the name are part of what class

A

tetracyclines

131
Q

abx with “floxacin” in the name are part of what class

A

fluroqionolones

132
Q

abx with “thromycin” in the name are part of what class

A

macrolides

133
Q

what class of abx is erythromycin

A

macrolide

134
Q

what are macrolides typically used to treat

A

wide range including URTI, otitis, ulcers

135
Q

is E. colie gram negative or postive

A

negative

136
Q

H. influenzae and H. pylori are gram negative or positive

A

negative

137
Q

staph, strep, c. diff and chlamdia are gram negative or postivie

A

positive

138
Q

why are gram negative more likely to cause fever

A

lipopolysacharide is a potent inducer of fever

139
Q

pseudomonas is gram negative or positive

A

negative

140
Q

what abx should not be taken with dairy

A

tetracyclines

141
Q

what abx can cause teeth discoloration

A

tetracyclines

142
Q

what is rifampin usually used to treat

A

TB

143
Q

what abx inhibits folate metabolism

A

septra

144
Q

what organism usually causes BV

A

T. vaginalis

145
Q

what are the main treatments for CAP

A

doxy, amox, azithro, amox/clav

146
Q

another name for pertussis is

A

whooping cough

147
Q

what abx is used to treat pertussis

A

erythromycin

148
Q

terbinafine is a ____

A

antifungal

149
Q

what class are medications ending in “azole”

A

antifungals

150
Q

what is 1st line treatment for MRSA

A

doxycycline

151
Q

what abx is associated with tendinopathy

A

ciprofloxacin (fluroqionolones)

152
Q

is malaria caused by a bacteria, virus, or protozoan

A

protozoan

153
Q

how is malaria transmitted

A

mosquito bites

154
Q

what causes the cycle of fever and chills in malaria

A

RBC getting infected and popping

155
Q

true or false: doxycycline is a propylactic tx for malaria

A

true

156
Q

what diseases can be spread by contaminated water

A

cholera, hepatitis

157
Q

what is dukoral

A

oral vaccine that prevents cholera

158
Q

what medication contains inactivated virbrio cholera and when is it used

A

dukoral, oral vaccine for cholera prevention

159
Q

true or false: there is a yellow fever vaccine available in canada

A

true

160
Q

true or false: there is a denge fever vaccine available in canada

A

false

161
Q

true or false: there is a malaria vaccine available in canada

A

false

162
Q

what class of medication can be used for weight loss off label

A

biguanides (metformin)

163
Q

what is tenuate and what is it used for

A

sympathomimetic used for weight loss

164
Q

what is pondimin and what is it used for

A

serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for weight loss

165
Q

what is orlistat and what is it used for

A

lipase inhibitor used for weight loss

166
Q

true or false: amphetamines like adderal can be used for weight loss

A

true

167
Q

most vaccines are active or passive

A

active

168
Q

what is the difference between active and passive vaccines

A

active is when body creates the antibodies, passive is giving the body the antibodies already made

169
Q

what diseases require passive immunization

A

rabies, hep A

170
Q

what 2 vaccines contain live virus

A

MMR and zoster

171
Q

a vaccine containing attenuated virus is an active or passive vaccine

A

active

172
Q

what brands used mRNA COVID vaccine

A

pfizer and moderna

173
Q

protease inhibitors are found in what treatment for COVID

A

Paxlovid

N517 Tests (7 decks)

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