Test 3 Flashcards
(173 cards)
1
Q
what are the 3 essential features of CA cells
A
immortality
altered behavior
altered morphology
2
Q
what is the building blocks of cells that helps regulate cellular activity
A
proteins
3
Q
What is the role of transcription factor
A
enables genes to be transcribed by RNA polymerase
4
Q
what is the difference between proto oncogenes and oncogenes
A
proto oncogenes allow for cell growth. When a mutation occurs that causes them to enable unregulated proliferation, they become oncogenes
5
Q
HER2/neu is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis
A
proto oncogene, works on growth factor receptors, common in breast CA
6
Q
B-raf is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis
A
protooncogene, works on signal transduction, common in melanoma
7
Q
Myb is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis
A
proto oncogene, works on transcription factor, common in leukemia
8
Q
what are tumor supressor genes
A
genes that stop the proliferation of cells
9
Q
Rb is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis
A
tumor supressor gene, works on cell cycle regulation, commonly dysregulated in neuroblastomas
10
Q
APC is an example of what and works at what point in cell synthesis
A
tumor supressor gene, works on cell adhesion, commonly dysregulated in colon CA
11
Q
what are 4 mechanisms of gene mutation
A
epigenetic modification, genomic modification, ribosomal alterations, viral transformation
12
Q
what gene mutations are caused by chemicals and radiation
what gene mutations are caused by environmental factors changing the genome
A
genomic mutation
epigenetic modification
13
Q
What carcinogenic chemical is found in overcooked meat and cigarette smoke and what does it do to dysregulate cell production
A
PAH, can activate estrogen receptors causing increased cell growth
14
Q
what is angiogenesis
A
new blood vessel creation to continue supplying the tumor cells with enough O2 and nutrients
15
Q
what do tumor cells secrete that helps them get past encapsulating barriers to metastasis
A
proteases
16
Q
true or false: all cancer cells are capable of metastasising
A
false, only a small amount of CA cells that mutate enough to get past encapsulating barriers can metastasis
17
Q
why may chemotherapy that is targeted to the primary tumor not work as well on metastasized cells
A
the metastasized cells have mutated to a point to allow them to move and therefore may not be as receptive to the treatment
18
Q
what is a high mitotic index and when is it seen
A
a large proportion of cells in mitosis, seen in CA cells as they are constantly proliferating
19
Q
what are 3 symptoms that are common to almost all CA
A
fatigue, cachexia, inflammation
20
Q
cachexia is marked by _____
A
loss of body weight, anorexia, anemia
21
Q
how is weight loss from cachexia different than weight loss from starvation
A
in starvation, it is mostly adipose tissue that is lost. In cachexia, equal amounts of adipose and muscle tissue are lost
22
Q
what is the main driver of cachexia in CA
A
inflammation
23
Q
what are the 3 classic classes of CA biomarkers
A
isoenzymes, antigens, ectopic hormones
24
Q
isoenzymes can be used for progression or diagnosis
A
progression only, not specific enough for diagnosis
25
PSA is an example of what kind of biomarker
antigen
26
what are some examples of ectopic hormones that are measured as CA biomarkers
ACTH, ADH, MSH
27
What are the novel CA biomarkers
DNA methylation markers
microRNAs
SNPs
28
CA cells are usually (more or less) methylated than normal cells
more
29
what are micro RNAs
non coding RNA that regulates gene expression
30
what happens to micro RNAs in CA
certain CA's with either increase or decrease certain micro RNAs
31
Micro RNAs can be used as (diagnostic, prognostic, or predictive)
Micro RNAs can be used as all 3
32
what does SNPs stand for
single nucleotide polymorphins
33
what is a SNP
sequence of DNA where there is a variation in one nucleotide
34
True or false: on top of testing susceptibility of getting CA, SNPs can also be used as prognostic and diagnostic
true
35
what are the stages of the cell cycle and what happens at each stage
G1 cell growth
S DNA synthesis
G2 cell growth and preparation for division
M mitosis
36
what happens during transcription
genes are read in DNE to produce mRNA
37
what happens in translation
mRNA transcripts are red to produce protein
38
what is contact inhibition
when normal cells come into contact with other cells they stop growing
39
what is the origin tissue of a carcinoma
epithelium (skin, organ lining, GI tract)
40
what is the origin tissue of a adenocarcinoma
organ or gland
41
what is the origin tissue of a sarcoma
supportive tissue (bone, tendon, cartilage, fat)
42
what is the origin tissue of a lymphoma
lymphatic system
43
what is the origin tissue of a glioma
connective tissue in the brain
44
what is the origin tissue of leukemia
bone marrow (affect RBC and WBC)
45
what is the origin tissue of a myeloma
plasma cells in bone marrow
46
what are the 3 stages of tumor growth
hyperplasia, dysplasia, anaplasia
47
what is hyperplasia
increase in cell number
48
what is hyperplasia
increase in cell number
49
what is dysplasia
regression of cells into less differentiated types
50
what is anaplasia
more irregularity of cells/lose original function
51
what are some carcinogenic viruses
HPV, Epstein Barr, Kaposi sarcoma herpe, HBV, HCV
52
what does TNM stand for and what is it
tumor, node, metastasis. Used for staging
53
list the different levels of T stages
TX: primary tumor cant be assessed
T0: no primary tumor
T1: invades submucosa
T2: invades musculature
T3: through musculature into perirectal tissue
T4: perforates peritoneum and invades other structures
54
list the different levels of N stages
NX: node cannot be assessed
N0: no nodal involvement
N1: metastatis in 1-3 nodes
N2: metastasis in 4 or more nodes
55
list the different levels of M stages
Mx: metastasis could not be assessed
M0: no metastasis
M1: distant metastasis
56
what would be the TNM stage of a patient with a primary breast tumor that has invaded the muscles with local 2 local lymph nodes involved but no distant metastasis
T2N1M0
57
what is the MOA of mercaptopurine and what is it used for
CA therapy, inhibits DNA synthesis
58
what is the MOA of methotrexate when used in CA therapy
inhibits DNA synthesis
59
what is the MOA of cytochalasin and what is it used for
CA therapy, inhibits DNA replication
60
what is the MOA of vincristine and what is it used for
CA therapy, inhibits DNA replication
61
what is the MOA of doxorubicin and what is it used for
CA therapy, inhibits DNA function
62
what is the MOA of cisplatin and what is it used for
CA therapy, inhibits DNA function
63
what class if Tamoxifen and raloxifen, what are they used for
CA therapies, selective estrogen receptor modulators
64
Gleeve is what class of medication, how does it work and what is it used for
signal transduction modifier, is inhibits cell growth and causes apoptosis, CA therapy
65
Herceptin is what class of medication, how does it work and what is it used for
anti-cancer antibody, inhibits HER2, CA therapy
66
what is endostatin
angiogenesis inhibitor used in CA therapy
67
what is the MDR1 protein, what does it do and why is it important in CA
creates resistance to cytotoxic and targeted chemotherapy by pumping chemotherapies out of the cell before they can reach therapeutic levels
68
what is telomerase and when is there a increase in it
an enzyme which keeps adding telomeres back onto the ends of chromosones, CA cells have high telomerase activity, allowing them to continue replicating
69
how do aromatase inhibitors decrease estrogen
aromatase converts androgens to estrogen
70
in glaucoma, the distinguishing factor is peripheral or central vision loss
peripheral
71
true or false: if a presents with glaucoma symptoms with eye pain it is a medical emergency
true
72
is vision loss associated with glaucoma reversible? why or why not
no, due to death of optic nerve
73
what excitatory substance is toxic and found at elevated levels in glaucoma
glutamate
74
what is lantaprost and what is it used for
prostaglandin agonist, used for treatment of glaucoma
75
what are the 3 classes of medication used to treat glaucoma
prostoglandin agonist, beta adrenergic blocker, cholinergic agonist
76
how do beta adrenergiv agonists treat glaucoma
decrease fluid production
77
what is timolo and what is it used for
beta adrenergic agonist to treat glaucoma
78
what are some serious side effects of beta adrenergic blockers
cardiac failure, heart block, bronchospasm
79
how do cholinergic agonists treat glaucoma
improve trabecular outlfow
80
pilocarpine and carbachol are what kind of medication and used to treat what
cholindergic agonists to treat glaucoma
81
what are some serious side effects of cholinergic agonists
miosis, brow ache, decreased vision
82
what is blepharitis
inflammation of eyelid
83
what is a non pharmacological treatment for inflammation of the eyelid
diluted shampoo/baby shampoo
84
when would it be appropriate to use acidified ear drops
treatment of mild otitis externa
85
what is the most common bacterial cause of AOM
S. Pneumoniae
86
increased pressure in the endolymphatic system is characteristic of what disease
menieres
87
what is the main differentiating factor between menieres disease and BPPV
Menieres disease has hearing loss
88
true or false: children under the age of 6 months should not have empiric treatment for AOM when symptomatic
false, should treat all children under the age of 6 months with abx
89
what cranial nerve is implicated in bells palsy
7 - facial
90
what is the treatmetn for moderate to severe bells palsy
antivirals and steroids
91
what disease can mimic bells palsy and what is the distiguishing factor
ramsay hunt - RH has a herpatic rash that follows a dermatone usually on ears or in mouth
92
what are the 3 most common bacterial pathogens in ear infections
S. pneumoniea
haemophilus influenza
moraxella catarrhalis
93
Swimmers ear is also called
diffuse otitis externa
94
what ear infection is usually associated with a hair follicle
acute localized otitis externa
95
what ear infection involved deeper tissues and is more prevalent in immunocompromised patients
necrotizing otitis externa
96
what is otomycosis
otitis externa caused by fungal agent
97
what is the role of cerumen in the ear
anti infective, moisturized, maintains acidic environment to reduce colonization
98
what helps move cerumen further out of the ear canal
chewing and swallowing
99
true or false: older men tend to have more cerumen than other population groups
true
100
true or false: vaccinations decrease incidence of AOM
true, indirectly by reducing URTI
101
when might an ear exam reveal a red and swollen canal with lots of debris and foul smelling discharge
otitis media with effusion
102
true or false: debris in ear with OME should not be removed
false, should gently remove with suction or dry cotton swab
103
what is auralgon and what is it used for? when is it not used?
topical otic analgesic for painful ear disorders but is not effective in otitis externa
104
what is preffered for impacted cerumen: water or oil based products
water based
105
what are defensins and where are they found
antibacterial peptides that coat the conjunctiva
106
what is the main differentiating factor between bacterial vs viral or allergic etiology of red eye
bacterial usually starts in one eye and then may spread to other eye later, viral and allergic affects both eyes
107
what is a possible prodrome of herpes zoster opthalamicus
tingling sensation
108
what may cause a vesicular rash that crusts of the eye
herpes zoster opthalamicus
109
what are the recommendations for treating herpes zoster opthalamicus
treat within 72 hours of onset with an antiviral
110
what are some complications of herpes zoster opthalamicus
corneal scarring
glaucoma
cataracts
post herpatic neuralgia
111
how is post herpatic neuralgia treated
gabapentin or tricyclic antidepressants
112
what are some risk factors for gluacoma
increased IOP, family history, migraines, obesity, HTN
113
Open angle or closed angle gluacoma is a medical emergency
closed angle glaucoma
114
what are vision floaters
small clusters of cells or proteins lodged in vitreous humor
115
what are common symptoms of bells palsy
droopy eyelid, facial paralysis, twitching, weakness
116
what is a possible prodrom of bells palsy
postauricular pain
117
bells palsy is usually caused by a: virus or bacteria
virus
118
what are risk factors for bells palsy
elderly
diabetes
3rd trimester pregnancy
compromised immune system
119
what are steroid eye drops only rx by an opthamologist
risk of glaucoma and cataracts
120
when might an opthamlogist prescribe steroid drops
allergic conjunctivitis (severe)
keratitis
corneal injuries
121
when are opthalmic vasoconstrictors used? when are they contraindicated
for short term treatment of red eye. Contraindicated in narrow angle glaucoma and viral infections
122
what are 2 oral treatment options for dry eye syndrome
doxycycline, omega 3 fatty acid supplements
123
what is the treatment for bells palsy
corticosteroids with or without antivirals and lubricating eye drops
124
what condition may cause a vesciular rash on the ears or in the mouth
ramsay hunt
125
what is the typical viral pathogen that causes bells palsy
herpes zoster
126
what are some treatment options for tinnitus once serious etiology has been ruled out
misoprostol, benzodiazepines, low dose carbamazapine, intratympanic dexamethasone
127
what is the classic triad of menieres disease
episodic vertigo
tinnitus
hearing loss
128
Abx ending in "mycin" are part of what class
aminoglycosides
129
abx with ceph in the name are part of what class
cephalosporins
130
abx with "cycline" in the name are part of what class
tetracyclines
131
abx with "floxacin" in the name are part of what class
fluroqionolones
132
abx with "thromycin" in the name are part of what class
macrolides
133
what class of abx is erythromycin
macrolide
134
what are macrolides typically used to treat
wide range including URTI, otitis, ulcers
135
is E. colie gram negative or postive
negative
136
H. influenzae and H. pylori are gram negative or positive
negative
137
staph, strep, c. diff and chlamdia are gram negative or postivie
positive
138
why are gram negative more likely to cause fever
lipopolysacharide is a potent inducer of fever
139
pseudomonas is gram negative or positive
negative
140
what abx should not be taken with dairy
tetracyclines
141
what abx can cause teeth discoloration
tetracyclines
142
what is rifampin usually used to treat
TB
143
what abx inhibits folate metabolism
septra
144
what organism usually causes BV
T. vaginalis
145
what are the main treatments for CAP
doxy, amox, azithro, amox/clav
146
another name for pertussis is
whooping cough
147
what abx is used to treat pertussis
erythromycin
148
terbinafine is a ____
antifungal
149
what class are medications ending in "azole"
antifungals
150
what is 1st line treatment for MRSA
doxycycline
151
what abx is associated with tendinopathy
ciprofloxacin (fluroqionolones)
152
is malaria caused by a bacteria, virus, or protozoan
protozoan
153
how is malaria transmitted
mosquito bites
154
what causes the cycle of fever and chills in malaria
RBC getting infected and popping
155
true or false: doxycycline is a propylactic tx for malaria
true
156
what diseases can be spread by contaminated water
cholera, hepatitis
157
what is dukoral
oral vaccine that prevents cholera
158
what medication contains inactivated virbrio cholera and when is it used
dukoral, oral vaccine for cholera prevention
159
true or false: there is a yellow fever vaccine available in canada
true
160
true or false: there is a denge fever vaccine available in canada
false
161
true or false: there is a malaria vaccine available in canada
false
162
what class of medication can be used for weight loss off label
biguanides (metformin)
163
what is tenuate and what is it used for
sympathomimetic used for weight loss
164
what is pondimin and what is it used for
serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for weight loss
165
what is orlistat and what is it used for
lipase inhibitor used for weight loss
166
true or false: amphetamines like adderal can be used for weight loss
true
167
most vaccines are active or passive
active
168
what is the difference between active and passive vaccines
active is when body creates the antibodies, passive is giving the body the antibodies already made
169
what diseases require passive immunization
rabies, hep A
170
what 2 vaccines contain live virus
MMR and zoster
171
a vaccine containing attenuated virus is an active or passive vaccine
active
172
what brands used mRNA COVID vaccine
pfizer and moderna
173
protease inhibitors are found in what treatment for COVID
Paxlovid
