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BIO 275 > Test 3 Chapter 14, 33, 34, and 35 > Flashcards

Test 3 Chapter 14, 33, 34, and 35 Flashcards

1
Q

gene

A

unit of genetic info that codes for a polypeptide, tRNA, or rRNA

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2
Q

codon

A

a sequence of 3 nucleotide

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3
Q

Promoter

A
  1. found on DNA strand
  2. starting region for mRNA coding
  3. also known as Pribnow Box
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4
Q

Leader

A
  1. found on mRNA strand
  2. starting region for rRNA
  3. aslo known as Sign Dalgarno
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5
Q

coding region

A

begins with 3’- TAC
code for AUG codon on RNA

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6
Q

Three types of RNA

A
  1. mRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. rRNA
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7
Q

RNA polmerase

A

has core enzyme with 5 chain

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8
Q

sigma factor

A

help core enzyme recognize promoter

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9
Q

holoenzyme

A

core enzyme + sigma factor

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10
Q

Transcription bubble

A

temporary RNA:DNA hybrid formed

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11
Q

transcription termination

A
  1. DNA A-rich region
  2. DNA p(rho) site
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12
Q

DNA A-rich region

A

cause polymerase to pause creating secondary structure leading to termination

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13
Q

p (rho) site

A
  1. known as rho independent (protein found in bacteria)
  2. DNA has rho site that is transcribe in RNA. When rho factor binds it causes the polymerase to detach causing termination.
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14
Q

eukaryote transcription

A
  1. has 3 RNA polymerase
  2. different promoters
  3. transcription factors
  4. heteronuclear RNA (hnRNA)
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15
Q

heteronuclear RNA

A
  1. has introns
  2. has exons
  3. spliced at 3’ poly A tail and 5’ M7 G cap
  4. introns removed and exons put together
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16
Q

archaea transcription

A
  1. polymerase like eukaryote (pol 2)
    2.has promoters
  2. has introns
  3. like Bacteria, polycistronic mRNA
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17
Q

polycistronic mRNA

A

one codon encodes several proteins

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18
Q

how many sense codon

A

61

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19
Q

how many nonsense codon

A
  1. 3 nonsense codon
  2. UAA, UAG, UGA
  3. translation termination
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20
Q

code degeneracy

A

up to 6 codons code for one amino acid

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21
Q

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

A

what is used to bind amino acid when tRNA anticodon binds to mRNA codon

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22
Q

loose base pairing

A
  1. wobble phenomenon
  2. the third position is less important than the first or second position
  3. eliminates need for unique tRNA for each codon
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23
Q

polyribosome

A
  1. ribosome is site of translation
  2. coupled transcription/translation in Bacteria/Archaea
  3. not compartmentalize so ribosome can hook on and start making protein
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24
Q

30 S ribosomal subunit

A

small subunit binds to shine dalgarno of mRNA and initiate tRNA (w/fMET)
involves IFs and GTP

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25
Q

50 S ribosomal subunit

A
  1. binds to initiator tRNA at P (peptidyl) site
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26
Q

70 initiation complex

A

when 30 S subunit and 50 S subunit come together

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27
Q

A (aminoacyl) site

A
  1. second tRNA bind bringing the amino acid close together
  2. involves EFs + GTP
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28
Q

Peptidyl transferase catalyzes

A

transfer of amino acid of tRNA at P site to tRNA at A site

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29
Q

when does the translation stop

A
  1. when ribosomes reach stop codon and disassociate into 30S, 50S, and mRNA
  2. Involves RFs + GTP
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30
Q

constitutive genes

A

enzymes that are expressed continuously

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31
Q

regulated genes

A

enzymes that are expressed at a certain time

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32
Q

regulation of gene expression occur when

A

during any of the dogma (transcription intitiation/elongation, translation, and postranslational levels

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33
Q

inducible genes

A
  1. turn on when inducer available
  2. when inducer (effector) binds to regulatory protein causes to be release and polymerase transcribe
  3. catabolic pathway
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34
Q

repressible gene

A
  1. inactive when inducer available
  2. expression decrease when corepressor/inhibitor (effector) available. inducer attached to regulatory protein and it detached stopping transcription
  3. anabolic function
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35
Q

negative control

A

regulatory protein binds to DNA and prevent RNA polymerase from binding to promoter (no gene transcription)
REPRESSOR

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36
Q

positive control

A

regulatory protein bind to DNA and cause RNA polymerase to binds to promoter (gene transcription)
ACTIVATOR

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37
Q

where does repressor regulatory protein bind?

A

at the operator and inhibit transcription

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38
Q

where does the activator regulatory protein bind?

A

at the activator binding site and promote transcription

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39
Q

another name for regulatory protein

A

repressor

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40
Q

E. coli regulatory decision

A
  1. catabolic pathway are needed when there are substrate and there is no preferred carbon and E source
  2. biosynthesis is stopped when there is end product
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41
Q

operon

A

transcription initiator

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42
Q

lac operon

A

1.has 3 gene for lactose
2. lac repressor starts from lacL and binds to operator to stop transcription
3. enzymes from LacZ,Y,A not produces unless inducer binds and repressor detaches from operator and allows transcription

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43
Q

Typtophan operon

A
  1. has 5 gene for tryptophan synthesis
  2. trp repressor (from trpR) not bound to operator and enzymes (trp E, D, C, B, A) occurs
  3. when trp corepressor binds to repressor releasing it will inhibit transcription
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44
Q

regulatory transcription elongation

A
  1. done through early transcription termination
  2. trp attenuation from trpL sequences form secondary structure
  3. 1:2 PAUSE 2:3 ANTITERMINATOR 3:4 TERMINATOR
  4. when low trp antiterminator loop form
    when high trp ribosome moves through sequence 2, terminator loop form
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45
Q

biphasic diauxic growth

A

prefer one carbon source over the other when both are available

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46
Q

catabolic activator protein

A
  1. CAP or CRP
  2. lac operon has cap site that has to be bound by CAP fot transcription
  3. active when cAMP bound and inactive when cAMP not bound
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47
Q

adenyl cyclase

A

catalyze cAMP from ATP
active when glucose absent and inactive when glucose present

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48
Q

cAMP increase by what system

A

PTS (phosphotransferase system)

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49
Q

regulation postranslations

A

allosteric control
covalent modification

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50
Q

convalent modification

A

irreversible - proteolysis
reversible- CH3 and PO4 (adding and removing methyl and phosphate group)

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51
Q

Chemotaxis respond

A

MCPs (methyl-accepting chemotaxis protein found on membrane

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52
Q

CheA with help of CHe W

A

autophosphoralyte when no attractant
attractant decrease rate of phosphorylation while reprellent increase rate of posphorylation

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53
Q

CheY

A

when phosphorylated cause flagellar motor to tumble

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54
Q

CheZ

A

dephosphorylate CheY after tumble to create CCW run

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55
Q

CheR

A

methylated MCPs

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56
Q

CheB

A

when attractant concentration high and methyl level up then no phosphorylation
but when attractant decrease and methyl level still up CheA autophosporylate and give phosphate to CheB to remove methyl group to bring level down and reset it.
methyl level compare to attractant tell CheA to autophophorylate

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57
Q

pathogen

A

any organism that causes infectious disease

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58
Q

pathogenicity

A

ability of organism to cause disease

59
Q

opportunistic pathogen

A

part of normal flora and cause disease when gaining access to other area or host is immunocompromised

60
Q

infection

A
  1. occurs when pathogen is growing/multiplying in or on host
  2. may or may not result in infectious disease
61
Q

infectious disease chain

A

events needed for infectious disease to results
depends on # of org; virulence factor; and host resistance

62
Q

sign

A

objective change in body that are directly observed

63
Q

symptoms

A

subjective changes experienced by patient

64
Q

disease syndrome

A

set of characteristic signs/systems characteristic of the disease

65
Q

incubation period

A

occurs after the pathogen enters and before signs and symptoms appear.

66
Q

prodromal stage

A

onset of signs and symptoms (not clear)

67
Q

illness

A

disease is severe and has specific signs and symptoms

68
Q

convalescence

A

signs and symptoms begin to disappear

69
Q

source

A

location from which pathogen is transmitted to host

70
Q

reservoir

A

a natural environmental location where the pathogen resides (sometimes function as a source)

71
Q

carriers

A

humans can act as carriers: infected host who are sources of infection for others

72
Q

active carrier

A

has overt disease (show themselves)

73
Q

covalescent carrier

A

recovered but harbor pathogen

74
Q

healthy carrier

A

harbor pathogen but is not ill

75
Q

incubatory carrier

A

incubating pathogen but is not yet ill

76
Q

zoonoses

A

infectious disease transmitted from animal to humans (rabies)

77
Q

indirect zoonoses

A

indirectly transmitted
Inhaling aerosolized excretion

78
Q

vectorborne zoonoses

A

vector like anthropoid carries pathogen from one host to another.

79
Q

virulence factor

A

degree to which pathogen cause damage, invasion, infectivity
adherence, colonization, invasion factor

80
Q

portal of entry

A

how disease enter
skin, respiratory system, urogenital, gastrointestinal system, sexual contact, vectorborne (mosquito, lice, tick)

81
Q

adherence and colonization factor

A
  1. bind receptor on host cell receptor
  2. establish site of reproduction on/within host
82
Q

Invasion factor

A

penetrate host mucous membrane or epithelium (active) wounds (passive)

83
Q

invasiveness

A

ability to spread pathogen to adjacent/other tissues

84
Q

bacteremia

A

bacteria in blood

85
Q

septicemia

A

resulting disease caused by bacteremia or release toxin

86
Q

viremia

A

viruses in the blood

87
Q

toxin

A

substance that damage host

88
Q

toxigenicity

A

ability to produce toxin

89
Q

intoxication

A

disease cause by entry of preformed toxin into host

90
Q

toxemia

A

presence of toxin in blood

91
Q

exotoxin

A

soluble, heat-labile protein released by gram negative bacteria
travel from infection site to other areas where they can exert lethal effects
cause immune response

92
Q

AB endotoxin

A

A subunit toxic while B subunit binds
stop protein synthesis and block neurotransmitters

93
Q

membrane disrupting endotoxin

A

has multiple mechanism of actions including phospholipases (remove phospholipid head group and lyse cells)

94
Q

superantigens

A

exotoxins stimulate T cells to overexpress cytokines
cause failure of host organs

95
Q

endotoxins

A

LPS in gram negative cell wall is toxic to host
release when bacteria multiply/lyse
binds to LPS binding protein causing cytokine relase and septic shock

96
Q

endogenous pyrogen

A

interactive with microphage causes fever

97
Q

resisting host defense

A
  1. most microbe elimated before causing disease due to immune system
  2. evade immune system( infect immune cells and deminish function)
  3. caspsule prevent phagocytosis
  4. move from cell to cell via actin
  5. biofilm cause chronic infection
98
Q

tropism

A

the movement towards specific tissue
determined by specific cell surface receptor

99
Q

airborne transmission

A

suspended in air and travel >1 meter from source

100
Q

droplet

A

are small and propel via sneezing, coughing (saliva)

101
Q

droplet nuclei

A

evaporated droplet particles
small and remain airborne for a long time and travel long distance

102
Q

contact transmission

A

coming together or touching source or resevior of the pathogen and host

103
Q

direct contact

A

physical interaction with infectious source (touching, sex)

104
Q

indirect contact

A

living or nonliving intermediate transfer infectious agents between hosts (vector or bedding)

105
Q

single vehicle

A

inanimate material
indirectly transmit pathogen to hosts

106
Q

fomite

A

include toys or surgical instrument can be involved in pathogen transmission

107
Q

epidemic

A

originate from common vehicle source (food, water)
COMMON SOURCE EPIDEMIC
large rise but decreases quickly

108
Q

vector-borned transmission

A

pathogen from vector to host

109
Q

external transmission

A

pathogen carried on body surface of vector

110
Q

internal transmission

A

pathogen carried within vector

111
Q

harborage

A

pathogen does not undergo change inside vector

112
Q

biologic transmission

A

pathogen undergo change within vector

113
Q

verticle transmission

A

transmission of mother to unborn child

114
Q

rate/severity

A

dependent on inocolum # (# of organism) and virulence

115
Q

extracellular pathogen

A

grow outside cell

116
Q

intracellular pathogen

A

grow within cells

117
Q

facultative intracelluar pathogen

A

grow within or outside cell

118
Q

obligate intracellular pathogen

A

only grow inside cell

119
Q

host susceptibility

A

dependent upon host defenses and pathogenicity of pathogen
nutrition, genetics, and stress

120
Q

active escape

A

pathogen movement thru portal of exit

121
Q

passive escape

A

through excretion in feces, urine, blood, saliva.

122
Q

immunity

A

ability to resist a particular disease or infection

123
Q

nonspecific immune response

A

innate immunity
first line of defense (Lack memory)

124
Q

specific immune response

A

acquired immunity
resistance to antigen and produces memory

125
Q

antigen

A

foreign agent

126
Q

T/B cell activation

A

foreign molecule that stimulate immune response

127
Q

antibodies

A

from B cells
binds antigens and inactivate/elimate them

128
Q

leukocytes (WBC)

A

early cells known as stem cells
involved in nonspecific and specific immunity

129
Q

basophil

A

cells that release vasoactive mediators (histamines) important in allergy development

130
Q

eosinophils

A

phagocytes that release ROS and defend against protozoa

131
Q

neutrophils

A

phagocytes that migrate rapidly to site of infection

132
Q

mast cells

A

cells that release histamine-important in allergy development

133
Q

monocytes

A

mononuclear phagocytic leukocytes mature into macrophage

134
Q

macrophages

A

phagocytic leukocytes that contain pattern recognition receptors (PRR) and can present antigens to T helper cells

135
Q

dendritic cells

A

phagocytic leukocytes with neuron-like appendages that contain PRR and can present antigen to T helper cells

136
Q

natural killer cells

A

nonphagocytic lymphocytes that recognize and kill malignant cells or pathogen-infected cells by releasing granzymes

137
Q

granzymes

A

damaging enzymes on cells bound to

138
Q

opsonin depedent mechanism

A
  1. coated by anitbodies
  2. coated by compliment protein
  3. both facilitate phagocytosis (coated by protein to facilitate phagocytosis)
139
Q

opsonin independent mechanism

A

recognition of conserved pathogenic associated molecular pattern (RAMP) by variety of pattern recognition receptors (PRR)
PRR look for PAMP (protein found on nonspecific bacteria)

140
Q

Toll like receptors (TLR)

A
  1. class of PRR that function as signaling receptor.
  2. recognize and bind unique PAMP of viruses, bacteria, or fungi
  3. binding triggers signal and is communicated to the host cell nucleus which initiates the host response
141
Q

intracellular digestion

A

after binding to phagocytes, microbes internalize and deliver to lysosome that contains hydrolases and ROS.

142
Q

exocytosis

A
  1. used by neutrophils to expel microbial fragments after they have been digested.
  2. Phagolysosomes unite with the cell membrane and result in the release of microbial fragments.
143
Q

antigen presentation

A
  1. done by macrophage and dendritic cells
  2. fragments from phagolysosomes are sent to ER where they combine with glycoproteins and become part of the cell membrane (present antigen)
144
Q

lymphocytes

A
  1. B and T cells
  2. activated when bound to antigen on surface receptors
  3. after activation, produce clone and memory cells

BIO 275 (9 decks)

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