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Child Health 2020 > Textbook Notes > Flashcards

Textbook Notes Flashcards

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1
Q

what is exomphalos?

A

herniation of abdominal contents through umbilicus

covered by membrane

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2
Q

what is gastroschisis?

A

herniation of abdominal wall defect to the right of the umbilicus
not covered with membrane

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3
Q

management of gastroschisis

A

cover with clingfilm due to fluid loss
NGT
IV fluids
surgery

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4
Q

what is oesophageal atresia associated with?

A

trachea-oesphageal fistula

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5
Q

presentation of oesophageal atresia

A

polyhydramnios (foetus unable to swallow amniotic fluid)
excess oral secretions
aspiration
regurgitation

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6
Q

diagnosis of oesophageal atresia

A

CXR shows NG tube curled up and unable to pass into the stomach

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7
Q

management of oesophageal atresia

A

surgical repair

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8
Q

what are congenital infections?

A

those that are obtained antenatally/ perinatally

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9
Q

what are the TORCH infections?

A 
toxoplasmosis
others= HBV, syphilis, varicella zoster, HIV, parvovirus B19
rubella
CMV
HSV
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10
Q

what is malrotation?

A

mobile midgut with short mesentery causing twisting due to failure of midgut rotation during embryogenesis

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11
Q

presentation of malrotation

A

bile-stained vomit
GORD
abdo pain

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12
Q

diagnosis of malrotation

A

contrast study

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13
Q

management of malrotation

A

surgery

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14
Q

risks in malrotation

A

volvulus

bowel obstruction

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15
Q

what is a neuroblastoma?

A

neuroendocrine tumour arising from the sympathetic nervous system

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16
Q

what is fragile X?

A

a trinucleotide repeat expansion disorder (X-linked recessive)

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17
Q

presentation of fragile X

A

learning difficulties
low IQ
prominent ears
enlarged testicles

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18
Q

what should all children <3 months with a fever have?

A

immediate prophylactic IV antibiotics (ceftriaxone) and full septic screen

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19
Q

what is orchidopexy?

A

surgical correction of undescended testes

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20
Q

what is hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

neonatal brain injury secondary to prenatal, perinatal or postnatal asphyxia

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21
Q

presentation of HIE

A

poor APGAR
lethargy
reduced tone
seizures

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22
Q

diagnosis of HIE

A

CFM
EEG
MRI brain

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23
Q

grading of HIE

A

Sarnat staging

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24
Q

management of HIE

A

therapeutic hypothermia (33-34 degrees measured via rectal probe for 72 hours)

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25
how much weight is acceptable to lose in the first 5 days of life?
10% and be back to birth weight by 10 days
26
management of Hep C in children >3
pegylated interferon and ribavirin
27
what is tongue tie/ankyloglossia?
short lingual frenulum so unable to extend tongue out of the mouth leading to poor attachment for breast feeding
28
management of tongue tie/ ankyloglossia
frenotomy
29
what is the genetic configuration of androgen insensitivity syndrome?
46XY
30
presentation of androgen insensitivity syndrome
``` primary amenorrhoea undescended testes (groin swelling) female phenotype ```
31
management of androgen insensitivity syndrome
``` bilateral orchidectomy due to testicular cancer risk oestrogen therapy (raise as a female) ```
32
grading of vesicoureteral reflux
- I= reflux into ureter only, no dilatation - II= reflux into renal pelvis on micturition, no dilatation - III= mild/mod dilatation of ureter, renal pelvis and calyces - IV= dilation of renal pelvis and calyces with moderate ureteral tortuosity - V= gross dilation of ureter, pelvis and calyces with ureteral tortuosity
33
perianal itching at night?
threadworm
34
management of threadworm
mebendazole (+ whole household)
35
what can NSAIDs in chickenpox cause?
necrotising fasciitis
36
management of Perthes based on age?
``` <6 = observation >6 = surgery ```
37
classification used for Perthes
Catterall staging
38
Catterall staging for Perthes
- Stage 1= clinical and histological features only - Stage 2= sclerosis with or without cystic change and preservation of articular surface - Stage 3= loss of structural integrity of femoral head - Stage 4= loss acetabular integrity
39
enuresis management pathway
triggers/ advice on lifestyle, toileting reward system enuresis alarm desmopressin
40
triad in shaken baby syndrome
subdural haemorrhage retinal haemorrhage encephalopathy
41
how can you suppress lactation?
cabergoline
42
what can hand preference before 12 months indicate?
cerebral palsy
43
diagnosis of DDH
clinical | if >4.5 years use XR
44
when to refer undescended testes rather than watchful waiting?
>3 months
45
murmur in Turner's syndrome?
ejection systolic due to bicuspid aortic valve + coarctation
46
what are signs of childhood sexual abuse?
anal fissures | recurrent UTIs
47
what can occur 5-10 years after measles infection?
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
48
murmur in transposition of the great arteries?
loud single S2
49
screening tests for hearing
otoacoustic emission test for new-borns at birth | if abnormal go to auditory brainstem response test
50
measuring bilirubin in neonates
<24 hours old measure serum bilirubin | >24 hours old use transcutaneous bilirubinometer
51
urine sample in UTI for children
clean catch
52
why should rotavirus vaccine not be given late?
theoretical risk of intussusception
53
meningitis causes based on age
<3 months= GBS, e. coli or listeria 1 month - 6 years= neiserria, strep pneumonia, H. influenza >6 years= neisseria or strep pneumonia
54
what is a RF for neonatal hypoglycaemia
mother on beta blockers e.g. labetalol used in hypertension
55
management of neonatal hypoglycaemia
if asymptomatic encourage breast feeding | if symptomatic admit to NICU for IV infusion of 10% dextrose
56
William's syndrome
short, LD, extrovert friendly personality, hypercalcaemia, aortic stenosis
57
cri du chat syndrome (5p chromosome)
characteristic cry LD feeding difficulties
58
patau syndrome
``` microephalic small eyes cleft lip polydactyly scalp lesions ```
59
Edward's syndrome
micrognathia low set ears rockerbottom feet overlapping fingers
60
fragile X
``` LD macroephaly long face large ears macro-orchidism ```
61
noonan syndrome
webbed neck pectus excavatum short stature pulmonary stenosis
62
Pierre-Robin syndrome
micrognathia posterior displacement of the tongue cleft palate

Child Health 2020 (22 decks)

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