The ophthalmic examination Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

what is hyphaema

A

blood in anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define blepharospasm

A

involuntary tight closure of the eyelids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List 3 signs of ocular pain

A

blepharospasm
discharge
photphobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the best way to identify exophthalmos

A

looking at the animal from different angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List some indications of the schirmer tear test

A

Any eye with discharge, conjunctivitis or lacklustre cornea
At start of exam – before drops applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when should we not do the schirmir tear test

A

deep ulcer/ risk of perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the normal reading for the schirmir tear test in dogs

A

15-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what schirmir tear test reading suggests dry eye

A

<10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the 5 ocular reflexes

A

Palpebral reflex
Menace response
Dazzle reflex
Pupillary light reflexes
Vestibulo-ocular reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the most reliable test of vision

A

menace response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lit 3 causes of false negative responses to the pupillary light reflex

A

weak light source in daylight
scared/ stressed animal
iris atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does the palpebral test

A

afferent pathway= trigeminal nerve 5
efferent pathway= facial nerve 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the menace test

A

afferent - optic nerve
efferent - facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which animal’s is it normal to not see a menace response

A

Learned response (12-14 weeks in puppies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the dazzle reflex test

A

afferent= optic nerve
efferent- facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the pupillary light reflex test

A

afferent= optic nerve
efferent= oculomotor nerve

17
Q

what does the distant direct examination of eye allow you to do

A

compare pupil size
opacities in visual axis
differentiate between nuclear sclerosis versus cataract

18
Q

define anisocoria

A

different sized puil

19
Q

what is Dyscoria

A

abnormally shaped pupil

20
Q

what does close direct ophthalmometry allow us to assess

21
Q

what dioptre setting do we need to assess the retina

22
Q

Describe the difference we see between indirect and direct ophthalmoscopy

A

indirect- upside-down, back-to-front wider field of view
direct- narrow key-hole view

23
Q

Describe fluorescein staining

A

Stains corneal stroma green. No uptake by intact corneal epithelium or by Descemet’s membrane

24
Q

what can fluorescein staining assess

A

corneal ulcer
jones test- assess nasolacrimal duct patency

25
List the indications of corneal cytology/bacteriology
Suspected infected/melting ulcers Suspected neoplasia
26
List the indications of conjunctival microbiology
Cats with ocular surface disease - Chlamydophila felis - Feline herpesvirus-1
27
what does tonometry assess
measurement of introcular pressure
28
List the normal values of tonometry
10-25 mmHg in the dog and cat
29
what should you suspect if you have raised IOP
glaucoma
30
what should you suspect with lowered IOP
suspect uveitis
31
This dog has presented with a painful left eye. The IOPs are 20mmHg in the right eye and 45mmHg in the left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Glaucoma
32
what does slit lamp biomicroscopy do
Excellent illumination and magnification Slit beam of light helps to e.g. judge depth and localise lesions
33
what does gonioscopy assess
Assessment of iridocorneal drainage angle (gives view of drainage angle) – used to diagnose goniodysgenesis (primary glaucoma)
34
what does electroretinography assess
retinal function
35
what is an indication of CT and MRI of eyes
retrobulbar swellings