Type Rating & OPC Questions

Question 1

If a speed adder is required for a non-normal procedure to what speeds is this added to?

Answer 1

VREF, VAC and VGA
FCOM 2 04-01-8

Question 2

What is the procedure for AT fault/failure during Takeoff?

Answer 2

During a De-rate (TO-1, TO-2, TO-3)
- Above 60kts-If N1 matches N1 target (Continue)
if not (Reject)
During a FLEX
- Above 60kts-Set thrust levers to MAX (Continue)
FCOM 2 03-02-43

Question 3

What procedure is required for an overweight landing?

Answer 3

Can be safely accomplished up to MTOW, no unusual handling characteristics.
Use maximum runway and minimum braking to ensure brakes remain within limits.
Max rate of descent at touchdown 360ft/min
FCOM 2 08-02-02-34/36

Question 4

Describe the PF actions in the event of a TCAS RA?

Answer 4

At TA “TCAS, I have control”
At RA “TCAS RA PFD or HUD”
Autopilot - Disconnect
Flight Director (PFs Side) - OFF
Adjust Vertical Flight Path to Green Box
ATC advise
Clear of Conflict
FCP modes as required
AP on
FLC
WX radar re select
OM-A 14.7.1 FCOM 2 08-02-02-25

Question 5

Can the ECL be used for the Smoke/Fire/Fume Procedure

Answer 5

No - It is indicated on the ECL ‘refer to QRH’
ECL

Question 6

During an ILS approach at approximately 1500ft AGL an aural alert ‘Go-Around Windshear ahead’ is heard. What type of alert is this? and what is the correct procedure?

Answer 6

A predictive Windshear alert (PWS is active 2300RA to 50ft), a normal go-around must be commenced.
FCOM 2 08-01-01-61

Question 7

At what temperature must ice shedding be performed? (if in visible moisture below 1500m Vis)

Answer 7

OAT is 3 degrees or below
FCOM 2 02-04-6

Question 8

Describe the “ice shedding procedure”

Answer 8

Set 60% N1, then return to idle. Will flex fan blades to crack ice off.
FCOM 2 02-04-6

Question 9

How would the starter be engaged for a Tail pipe fire?

Answer 9

Set and hold “ENG CRANK”
QRH 02-19-39

Question 10

When must MAX TO thrust be used?

Answer 10

Contaminated Runway, Windshear, Performance Reasons, MEL Requirements

Question 11

Can a localiser approach be flown as a 3D approach in the A220?

Answer 11

Up until the FAF, provided it is coded correctly as a LOC approach
FCOM 2 03-02-78
AIP ENR 1.5-21 2.4.4

Question 12

What are Vga and Vac

Answer 12

Vga - Climb Speed for all engines go-around
Vac - Approach Climb speed, target speed to be attained during a go-around with one engine inop.

Question 13

What is the difference between Green Dot and Vfto

Answer 13

Green Dot is best Lift/Drag ratio
Vfto is Final Take-Off Climb Speed (Flown at completion of 4th Segment OEI) A220 specifies setting Green Dot at completion of sector (this is the single engine green dot, approx 10kt difference to all engine green dot)

Question 14

What are the visibility requirements on an ILS for using HUD to DA?

Answer 14

Visibility requirement does not increase. The lowest visibility can be obtained by using any of Flight Director/Autopilot or HUD to the DA. Shown on bottom of Jepp Chart

Question 15

What are the stall recovery actions?

Answer 15

“Stall, I have control”
Autopilot - OFF
Autothrottle - OFF
Pitch - Reduce AOA
Roll - Wings Level
Thrust - As required
Spoilers - Ensure Retracted
Once stable and suitable speed (Happy Place), Cycle FDs - ALT, HDG Sync, Man Speed. AP-AT-FLC

Question 16

What is the procedure for an overweight landing?

Answer 16

Landing Distance must be verified. Fly normal profile. Thrust reversers maximised after landing to reduce brake heat, and use all runway available.

Question 17

How many Autopilots in the A220?

Answer 17

3
A function integrated into each of the 3 PFCC’s
FCOM 1 03-03-1

Question 18

How many Auto throttles on the A220?

Answer 18

2
One integrated into each of the 2 AFCS’s
FCOM 1 03-05-1

Question 19

Can we achieve CAT3B landings with the NJS A220? (Disregarding regulatory approvals)

Answer 19

No, the NJS A220’s have only 2 RADALTS, 3 are required for Cat3B

Question 20

What are the recent experience requirements for passenger operations TO/LDG? (Outside of the Cyclic Program)

Answer 20

3 x TO/LDings in 90days (Day)
3 x TO/LDings in 90days (Night)
Recency also met if flight test conducted within 90days that includes 1 TO/Lding

Question 21

Does a IFR proficiency check satisfy the requirements of a flight review?

Answer 21

Yes

Question 22

What are rough holding fuel flows are expected at mid levels FL200? OEI and AEO.

Answer 22

Total Fuel flow 19-33kgs for both AEO and OEI

Question 23

What is contingency fuel amount?

Answer 23

5% or 5mins holding fuel at 1500ft above destination whichever is greater.
Note Destination alternate does not require Contingency fuel although Company flight planning includes 5% from destination to destination alternate as a safety margin
OM A 13.2.3

Question 24

What is the best holding speed?

Answer 24

Green Dot - Best lift to drag ratio.
Be cautious with slow auto throttles, if speed drops below green dot considerable thrust will be required to regain speed (back of the drag curve)
FCOM 2 03-02-62

Question 25

What are the recency requirements for IFR? (outside of a cyclic program)

Answer 25

If the holder has passed an instrument proficiency check within the last 90 days. or 3 Instrument Approaches within 90days (1 in the applicable Category of aircraft) General IFR Currency - Conducted 1x2D, 1x3D, 1xAzimuth etc.

Question 26

How long is an instrument proficiency check valid for? (Outside of a Cyclic Program)

Answer 26

12months

Question 27

How many satellites are required for Fault Detection? And Fault detection and exclusion (FDE)?

Answer 27

5 & 6

Question 28

What is the maximum cross-track error allowable in RNP 1 airspace?

Answer 28

0.5nm (1/2 Nav tolerance)

Question 29

What is the accuracy requirement of RNP 1?

Answer 29

Must be within 1nm of Actual position 95% of the time, and 99.9% of the time within 2nm FCOM 1 22-03-4

Question 30

What are the FMS default RNP values are different phases of flight?

Answer 30

Power-up - 1nm FMS Non-Precision - 0.3nm SID or STAR - 1nm Terminal Area - 1nm Enroute or exit from Terminal Area - 2nm FCOM 1 22-03-7

Question 31

When is a traffic alert issued (TA)?

Answer 31

When the intruder is within 20-48 seconds of closest point of contact. FCOM 1 16-04-20

Question 32

When is an RA issued?

Answer 32

When the intruder is within 15-35 seconds of closest point of contact. FCOM 1 16-04-21

Question 33

What are the Upset Recovery actions

Answer 33

For Nose High and Low. "Upset I have control" Recognise Confirm Breathe AP OFF AT OFF Pitch attitude as required to reduce angle of attack Roll attitude as required Thrust Lever as required Spoiler lever as required Once stable and suitable speed (Happy Place), Cycle FDs - ALT, HDG Sync, Man Speed. AP-AT-FLC

Question 34

What is the standard broadcast format at a CTAF

Answer 34

(Location) Traffic Aircraft Type Callsign Position/Level/Intentions (Location) AIP ENR 1.1-57 9.1.13