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Dental nurse exam revision > Unit 301 and Microbiology and pathology > Flashcards

Unit 301 and Microbiology and pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Preparing for practice means

A

Expected level of skills and knowledge of each registrant group upon qualification

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2
Q

Scope of practice

A

Additional skills after qualification

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3
Q

Who is the regulatory body of the dental profession?

A

GDC

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4
Q

What act does the duty of care requirement come under?

A

Health and safety at work act

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5
Q

What is the duty of care?

A

Responsibility of the employer to ensure all legislations and regulations are followed within the practice.
All staff have a duty of care to their patients

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6
Q

Student professionalism and fitness to practice implies..

A

Professional behaviour of all students

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7
Q

What are the qualities required to be fit to practice as a GDC registrant?

A

Personal skills, acceptable attitudes and behaviours, qualifications.

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8
Q

What is a bacteria?

A

Microscopic single cell organisms that survive as inactive spores when conditions are not favorable for them to grow and reproduce

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9
Q

What is a virus?

A

ultramicroscopic organisms that live within cells of other organisms

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10
Q

What is fungi?

A

types of microscopic plant organism that grows across cells and tissues as an extensive branching network of fungal tissue.

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11
Q

What are prions?

A

type of special infectious protein that is capable of causing disease

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12
Q

Does the micro-organism protozoa cause any diseases within the oral cavity?

A

No

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13
Q

how do we maintain sterilisation/decontamination with Patients who have CJD (prion)?

A

single use items
manufacturing stage, industrial sterilisation technique - gamma rays

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14
Q

What is the cocci bacteria?

A

circular micro-organism
colonies living in clusters are = staphylococci
Living in chains = streptococci

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15
Q

What is the bacilli bacteria?

A

rod shaped with pointed ends
round ended ones = lactobacilli

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16
Q

What is the spirochaetes bacteria?

A

spiral shaped - helix

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17
Q

Bacteria survives as what?

A

spores

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18
Q

What are anaerobic bacteria?

A

bacteria that exists in areas of low oxygen levels
e.g. deep within carious lesion or a periodontal pocket.
more difficult to reach and remove physically

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19
Q

Why are antibiotics taken?

A

to fight against infection by bacteria

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20
Q

What are bactericidal agents?

A

chemicals used to clean externally (disinfectants)
kill bacteria

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21
Q

What are bacteriostatic agents?

A

chemicals used to clean externally but do not kill bacteria
prevent them reproducing and multiplying

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22
Q

What does a virus exist as within the cells of other organisms?

A

protein capsule
contains all the chemicals a virus needs to reproduce within the cells of its host.

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23
Q

What does the bacteria streptococcus mutans cause?

A

dental caries

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24
Q

What does the bacteria lactobacillus cause?

A

later colonisation of an established carious lesion
deeper the tooth tissues become INFECTED

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25
Q

What does the bacteria actinomyces cause?

A

periodontal disease

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26
Q

What does the bacteria staphylococci cause?

A

skin boils and gingival boils, impetigo

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27
Q

What does the bacteria`s bacillus fusiformis and borrelia vincentii cause?

A

ANUG

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28
Q

Candida albicans is a type of what micro-organism?

A

Fungi

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29
Q

Denture stomatitis is caused by?

A

candida albicans

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30
Q

What does hyphae mean?

A

Fungi grow as an extensive network of branches lying across the body tissues.

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31
Q

What is the correct name for oral thrush?

A

acute oral candidosis

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32
Q

What is the correct name for denture stomatitis?

A

chronic oral candidosis

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33
Q

What is angular cheilitis?

A

candida infection that involves the angles of the mouth
localised area of inflamed and cracked skin which is often crusted over.

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34
Q

What patients tend to suffer with acute oral candidosis?

A

generally ill, elderly, those with serious diseases e.g. AIDS
course of antibiotics

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35
Q

What does acute oral candidosis look like?

A

white film with underlying red sore patches

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36
Q

What causes chronic oral candidosis?

A

poor hygiene with appliance (denture), raised moisture levels beneath the appliance

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37
Q

What virus is linked to oral cancer?

A

Human papillomavirus HPV

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38
Q

What is the virus that causes chicken pox?

A

Herpes varicella

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39
Q

What does the epstein barr virus cause?

A

glandular fever

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40
Q

What virus causes mumps?

A

paramyxovirus

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41
Q

What are fungal infections treated with?

A

antifungal agents
systemic tablets, oral gels, oral solutions

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42
Q

What is glossitis inflammation of?

A

tongue
red and smooth and sore

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43
Q

Who does burning mouth syndrome tend to affect?

A

elderly women

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44
Q

What disease is associated with coxsackievirus?

A

hand, foot and mouth disease

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45
Q

What are minor aphthous ulcers?

A

small, shallow, painful ulcers
heal within 14 days

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46
Q

What are major aphthous ulcers?

A

large, painful ulcers
take weeks to months to heal
cause scaring

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47
Q

What are herpetiform aphthous ulcers?

A

very small, multiple ulcers
can occur 100 at a time

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48
Q

Lichen planus is?

A

rash that can affect different parts of your body and the inside of your mouth.

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49
Q

Are malignant ulcers painful (squamous cell carcinoma)?

A

NO
do not heal within 2-3 weeks

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50
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

a white patch that has no obvious local cause

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51
Q

What is erythroplakia?

A

a red patch on the oral mucosa

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52
Q

What is a dentigerous cyst?

A

develops around an impacted or unerupted tooth

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53
Q

What is a periapical cyst?

A

develops around the tooth apex

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54
Q

What is a mucocele?

A

Trauma to minor salivary glands causing a cyst
lower lip

55
Q

What are the 3 inherited condition or genetic mutation that produce an illness or condition that is present at birth?

A
  • cleft lip or palate
  • congenital absence of some teeth (hypodontia)
  • defect of tooth formation e.g. amelogeneisis imperfecta
56
Q

What is direct entry?

A

the bacteria enters through damaged skin or oral epithelium from cuts etc.

57
Q

What are the 5 signs of inflammation?

A

heat
swelling
redness
pain
loss of function

58
Q

During tissue repair (e.g. after a cut), what is the temporary layer of repair cells called?

A

granulation tissue

59
Q

What are antigens?

A

toxic or foreign substance in the body that induces immune response

60
Q

What does our body release during immune response?

A

antibodies and antitoxins

61
Q

What does natural immunity mean?

A

present from birth

62
Q

What does passive immunity mean?

A

present from birth, inherited by MUM

63
Q

What does acquired immunity mean?

A

Prevent reoccurrence of the same infection
creation of antibodies and antitoxins during a pathogen attack

64
Q

What does inherited immunity mean?

A

present from birth, inherited mum and dad

65
Q

What does vaccination immunity mean?

A

given a harmless dose of a pathogen, stimulate the leucocytes to develop the antibodies and antitoxins

66
Q

What does mutation mean?

A

where a pathogen (virus) changes their chemical make up and produce a new variation of a disease.

67
Q

What is the reason behind contact dermatitis amongst members of staff?

A

increased use of hand cleaning agents in the workplace

68
Q

What is pericoronitis?

A

acute bacterial infection of the soft tissues (operculum)
third molars

69
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

bacterial infection spreading from a tooth into the surrounding deep soft tissue structures.

70
Q

What are the known risk factors for oral cancer?

A

tobacco habits, alcohol, sunlight, diet, genetics.

71
Q

During checkups, checking for oral cancer or referring is in line with what guidelines?

A

NICE

72
Q

In line with smoking cessation, what are the 3 A`s?

A

ask, advise, act

73
Q

In regards to alcohol what is the average unit per week for women and men?

A

14 units

74
Q

What does halitosis stand for?

A

bad breath

75
Q

What is condition does herpes zoster cause?

A

shingles

76
Q

What antibiotic is not recommended for dento-alveolar infections?

A

clindamycin

77
Q

What is a specialist mouthwash called that can be given to patients suffering from pericrontitis?

A

peroxyl

78
Q

What are antivirals (medication) used for?

A

used specifically against infections caused by a virus

79
Q

What are antifungal (medication) used for?

A

against fungal infections
fluconazole 50mg
nystatin - oral suspension
amphotericin - 10mg
miconazole - oral gel

80
Q

What are analgesics (medication) used for?

A

used to primarily relieve pain
paracetamol and ibuprofen and aspirin

81
Q

What can paracetamol cause if the recommended dose is exceeded?

A

liver damage

82
Q

What can ibuprofen cause if the recommended dose is exceeded?

A

stomach ulcers

83
Q

How many principles does the GDC standards for the dental team have?

A

9

84
Q

Dental nurses are expected to familiarise themselves with the standards for the dental team by the time they begin their…

A

formal training

85
Q

What is the reason behind the GDC standards of the dental team?

A

patient expectations of the dental professionals they come into contact with during their treatment.

86
Q

When the word MUST is used the duty is..

A

compulsory

87
Q

When the word SHOULD is used the duty…

A

may not apply in all situations and that an alternative action may be appropriate

88
Q

Principle 1: Put a patient’s interest first implies what?

A

duty of care and safeguarding
treatment options (best interest), tone of voice/body language
ethical advertising - social media

89
Q

Principle 2: communicate effectively with patients implies what?

A

communication skills and duty of candour
communicate effectively, treatment options, risks, benefits and costs.

90
Q

Principle 3: Obtain valid consent implies what?

A

valid consent
written consent, treatment estimates signed.

91
Q

Principle 4: maintain and protect patients information what?

A

confidentiality, data security and protection
GDPR - patients can have access to their own notes, and ONLY a third party (legal) with the patients agreement.

92
Q

Principle 5: have a clear and effective complaints procedure implies what?

A

complaints and improving performance
respond in writing, correct time scale

93
Q

Principle 6: work with colleagues in a way that is in the patient’s best interest implies what?

A

team working
appropriately trained and competent
good leadership, shared aims, understanding of roles and responsibilities.

94
Q

Principle 7: maintain, develop and work within your professional knowledge and skills implies what?

A

continuing professional development, lifelong learning using PDP, scope of practice
Knowledge and skills are kept to date at all times.
CPD activities

95
Q

Principle 8: raise concerns if patients are at risk implies what?

A

safeguarding, raising concerns, whistleblowing
welfare of someone is at risk by the acts of a dental professional.

96
Q

Principle 9: Make sure your own personal behaviour maintains patients confidence in you and the dental profession implies what?

A

professionalism
inside and outside of work

97
Q

What does a holistic approach mean?

A

you must take into account a patient’s overall health

98
Q

What third party can you give a patients notes/information to without their knowledge?

A

court order
statutory duty

99
Q

Who should a practice request guidance from in regards to patients access to their own records?

A

information commissioner’s office

100
Q

What procedure is followed in regards to complaints?

A

written complaints procedure

101
Q

If a patient or member of staff is at risk from another staff member, who is the local health commissioner should be informed?

A

CQC

102
Q

Why is good communication necessary?

A

Put the patient at ease, allow the team to provide the best care, assist the team.

103
Q

Additional resources that may be required for some patients (communication):

A

Interpreter
carer, family member - elderly with dementia
hearing induction loop

104
Q

What does communicating mean?

A

to give or exchange information - verbally, non-verbally.

105
Q

Examples of good communication:

A

talking, written explanations, information leaflets/posters, body language, eye contact, facial expression, body position, touching.

106
Q

What are the 3 principles of gaining consent:

A

informed, voluntary, ability

107
Q

What is informed consent?

A

patient is given full information about the treatment - to be able to make an informed decision.

108
Q

What is specific consent?

A

consent gained for each stage of treatment

109
Q

What is valid consent?

A

informed, specific, given by the parent/guardian

110
Q

The patient must be deemed COMPETENT, and to have the MENTAL CAPACITY to show they have a full understanding of the situation (consent).

A
111
Q

Gillick competence is..

A

Children under the age of 16 are able to give informed consent for their own treatment - if they are competent.

112
Q

Examples of conditions that may cause incapacity for adults:

A

stroke, brain damage, dementia, learning difficulties, drugs/alcohol

113
Q

What does the lasting power of attorney relate to (LPA)?
scotland: WPA

A

Appointed attorneys that have a duty of care to always act in the best interests of the patient.
make decisions for an incompetent patient

114
Q

What does contemporaneous mean?

A

dental records are kept up to date.

115
Q

patients can access their dental records by submitting what?

A

written request

116
Q

What is the data protection act 1998?

A

governs how public bodies may handle and process personal data such as health records.

117
Q

Who does the access to health records act 1990 imply with?

A

health records of a deceased patient.

118
Q

Recall arrangements are in line with which guidelines?

A

NICE

119
Q

adequate records should be retained for 11 years after completion of treatment (adults)
or to the age of 25 years old (children)
Date protection act

A
120
Q

Medical history should be FULLY updated at what appointments?

A

every recall appointment
examination

121
Q

details of any current medications/ non prescription can be checked in the..

A

BNF

122
Q

Form FP25 is for:

A

standard chart
recording patients visit, treatments etc

123
Q

Form FP17 is for:

A

given to the patient, treatment estimate, NHS charges, dental estimates

124
Q

Form FP10D is for:

A

prescriptions

125
Q

What is the confidentiality of patient records act in Scotland?

A

freedom of information Act 2000

126
Q

NHS regulations require dental records to be retained for how long?

A

2 years

127
Q

A patient request for their own records must be made in writing, how long should the dentist respond to this request?

A

within 1 month of the request (40 days)

128
Q

The information commissioners office produce the invaluable guidance document GDPR , how many steps does this include?

A

12

129
Q

What is the current legislation in regards to complaints in England?

A

local authority social services and national health service complaints regulations 2009

130
Q

Complaints should be resolved in house without the need for other authorities such as:

A

primary care organisation (PCO)
OR GDC

131
Q

List the complaints procedure:

A

responsibility - responsible person
acknowledgement - few working days (48 hours)
Investigation
Timescale
report - written
Appeal
Records

132
Q

During the appeal stage of the complaints procedure, who can the patient appeal to?

A

NHS commissioning body, PCO
NHS - health service ombudsman
private - dental complaints service

133
Q
A

Dental nurse exam revision (13 decks)

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