Unit 301 and Microbiology and pathology Flashcards
(133 cards)
1
Q
Preparing for practice means
A
Expected level of skills and knowledge of each registrant group upon qualification
2
Q
Scope of practice
A
Additional skills after qualification
3
Q
Who is the regulatory body of the dental profession?
A
GDC
4
Q
What act does the duty of care requirement come under?
A
Health and safety at work act
5
Q
What is the duty of care?
A
Responsibility of the employer to ensure all legislations and regulations are followed within the practice.
All staff have a duty of care to their patients
6
Q
Student professionalism and fitness to practice implies..
A
Professional behaviour of all students
7
Q
What are the qualities required to be fit to practice as a GDC registrant?
A
Personal skills, acceptable attitudes and behaviours, qualifications.
8
Q
What is a bacteria?
A
Microscopic single cell organisms that survive as inactive spores when conditions are not favorable for them to grow and reproduce
9
Q
What is a virus?
A
ultramicroscopic organisms that live within cells of other organisms
10
Q
What is fungi?
A
types of microscopic plant organism that grows across cells and tissues as an extensive branching network of fungal tissue.
11
Q
What are prions?
A
type of special infectious protein that is capable of causing disease
12
Q
Does the micro-organism protozoa cause any diseases within the oral cavity?
A
No
13
Q
how do we maintain sterilisation/decontamination with Patients who have CJD (prion)?
A
single use items
manufacturing stage, industrial sterilisation technique - gamma rays
14
Q
What is the cocci bacteria?
A
circular micro-organism
colonies living in clusters are = staphylococci
Living in chains = streptococci
15
Q
What is the bacilli bacteria?
A
rod shaped with pointed ends
round ended ones = lactobacilli
16
Q
What is the spirochaetes bacteria?
A
spiral shaped - helix
17
Q
Bacteria survives as what?
A
spores
18
Q
What are anaerobic bacteria?
A
bacteria that exists in areas of low oxygen levels
e.g. deep within carious lesion or a periodontal pocket.
more difficult to reach and remove physically
19
Q
Why are antibiotics taken?
A
to fight against infection by bacteria
20
Q
What are bactericidal agents?
A
chemicals used to clean externally (disinfectants)
kill bacteria
21
Q
What are bacteriostatic agents?
A
chemicals used to clean externally but do not kill bacteria
prevent them reproducing and multiplying
22
Q
What does a virus exist as within the cells of other organisms?
A
protein capsule
contains all the chemicals a virus needs to reproduce within the cells of its host.
23
Q
What does the bacteria streptococcus mutans cause?
A
dental caries
24
Q
What does the bacteria lactobacillus cause?
A
later colonisation of an established carious lesion
deeper the tooth tissues become INFECTED
25
What does the bacteria actinomyces cause?
periodontal disease
26
What does the bacteria staphylococci cause?
skin boils and gingival boils, impetigo
27
What does the bacteria`s bacillus fusiformis and borrelia vincentii cause?
ANUG
28
Candida albicans is a type of what micro-organism?
Fungi
29
Denture stomatitis is caused by?
candida albicans
30
What does hyphae mean?
Fungi grow as an extensive network of branches lying across the body tissues.
31
What is the correct name for oral thrush?
acute oral candidosis
32
What is the correct name for denture stomatitis?
chronic oral candidosis
33
What is angular cheilitis?
candida infection that involves the angles of the mouth
localised area of inflamed and cracked skin which is often crusted over.
34
What patients tend to suffer with acute oral candidosis?
generally ill, elderly, those with serious diseases e.g. AIDS
course of antibiotics
35
What does acute oral candidosis look like?
white film with underlying red sore patches
36
What causes chronic oral candidosis?
poor hygiene with appliance (denture), raised moisture levels beneath the appliance
37
What virus is linked to oral cancer?
Human papillomavirus HPV
38
What is the virus that causes chicken pox?
Herpes varicella
39
What does the epstein barr virus cause?
glandular fever
40
What virus causes mumps?
paramyxovirus
41
What are fungal infections treated with?
antifungal agents
systemic tablets, oral gels, oral solutions
42
What is glossitis inflammation of?
tongue
red and smooth and sore
43
Who does burning mouth syndrome tend to affect?
elderly women
44
What disease is associated with coxsackievirus?
hand, foot and mouth disease
45
What are minor aphthous ulcers?
small, shallow, painful ulcers
heal within 14 days
46
What are major aphthous ulcers?
large, painful ulcers
take weeks to months to heal
cause scaring
47
What are herpetiform aphthous ulcers?
very small, multiple ulcers
can occur 100 at a time
48
Lichen planus is?
rash that can affect different parts of your body and the inside of your mouth.
49
Are malignant ulcers painful (squamous cell carcinoma)?
NO
do not heal within 2-3 weeks
50
What is leukoplakia?
a white patch that has no obvious local cause
51
What is erythroplakia?
a red patch on the oral mucosa
52
What is a dentigerous cyst?
develops around an impacted or unerupted tooth
53
What is a periapical cyst?
develops around the tooth apex
54
What is a mucocele?
Trauma to minor salivary glands causing a cyst
lower lip
55
What are the 3 inherited condition or genetic mutation that produce an illness or condition that is present at birth?
- cleft lip or palate
- congenital absence of some teeth (hypodontia)
- defect of tooth formation e.g. amelogeneisis imperfecta
56
What is direct entry?
the bacteria enters through damaged skin or oral epithelium from cuts etc.
57
What are the 5 signs of inflammation?
heat
swelling
redness
pain
loss of function
58
During tissue repair (e.g. after a cut), what is the temporary layer of repair cells called?
granulation tissue
59
What are antigens?
toxic or foreign substance in the body that induces immune response
60
What does our body release during immune response?
antibodies and antitoxins
61
What does natural immunity mean?
present from birth
62
What does passive immunity mean?
present from birth, inherited by MUM
63
What does acquired immunity mean?
Prevent reoccurrence of the same infection
creation of antibodies and antitoxins during a pathogen attack
64
What does inherited immunity mean?
present from birth, inherited mum and dad
65
What does vaccination immunity mean?
given a harmless dose of a pathogen, stimulate the leucocytes to develop the antibodies and antitoxins
66
What does mutation mean?
where a pathogen (virus) changes their chemical make up and produce a new variation of a disease.
67
What is the reason behind contact dermatitis amongst members of staff?
increased use of hand cleaning agents in the workplace
68
What is pericoronitis?
acute bacterial infection of the soft tissues (operculum)
third molars
69
What is cellulitis?
bacterial infection spreading from a tooth into the surrounding deep soft tissue structures.
70
What are the known risk factors for oral cancer?
tobacco habits, alcohol, sunlight, diet, genetics.
71
During checkups, checking for oral cancer or referring is in line with what guidelines?
NICE
72
In line with smoking cessation, what are the 3 A`s?
ask, advise, act
73
In regards to alcohol what is the average unit per week for women and men?
14 units
74
What does halitosis stand for?
bad breath
75
What is condition does herpes zoster cause?
shingles
76
What antibiotic is not recommended for dento-alveolar infections?
clindamycin
77
What is a specialist mouthwash called that can be given to patients suffering from pericrontitis?
peroxyl
78
What are antivirals (medication) used for?
used specifically against infections caused by a virus
79
What are antifungal (medication) used for?
against fungal infections
fluconazole 50mg
nystatin - oral suspension
amphotericin - 10mg
miconazole - oral gel
80
What are analgesics (medication) used for?
used to primarily relieve pain
paracetamol and ibuprofen and aspirin
81
What can paracetamol cause if the recommended dose is exceeded?
liver damage
82
What can ibuprofen cause if the recommended dose is exceeded?
stomach ulcers
83
How many principles does the GDC standards for the dental team have?
9
84
Dental nurses are expected to familiarise themselves with the standards for the dental team by the time they begin their...
formal training
85
What is the reason behind the GDC standards of the dental team?
patient expectations of the dental professionals they come into contact with during their treatment.
86
When the word MUST is used the duty is..
compulsory
87
When the word SHOULD is used the duty...
may not apply in all situations and that an alternative action may be appropriate
88
Principle 1: Put a patient's interest first implies what?
duty of care and safeguarding
treatment options (best interest), tone of voice/body language
ethical advertising - social media
89
Principle 2: communicate effectively with patients implies what?
communication skills and duty of candour
communicate effectively, treatment options, risks, benefits and costs.
90
Principle 3: Obtain valid consent implies what?
valid consent
written consent, treatment estimates signed.
91
Principle 4: maintain and protect patients information what?
confidentiality, data security and protection
GDPR - patients can have access to their own notes, and ONLY a third party (legal) with the patients agreement.
92
Principle 5: have a clear and effective complaints procedure implies what?
complaints and improving performance
respond in writing, correct time scale
93
Principle 6: work with colleagues in a way that is in the patient's best interest implies what?
team working
appropriately trained and competent
good leadership, shared aims, understanding of roles and responsibilities.
94
Principle 7: maintain, develop and work within your professional knowledge and skills implies what?
continuing professional development, lifelong learning using PDP, scope of practice
Knowledge and skills are kept to date at all times.
CPD activities
95
Principle 8: raise concerns if patients are at risk implies what?
safeguarding, raising concerns, whistleblowing
welfare of someone is at risk by the acts of a dental professional.
96
Principle 9: Make sure your own personal behaviour maintains patients confidence in you and the dental profession implies what?
professionalism
inside and outside of work
97
What does a holistic approach mean?
you must take into account a patient's overall health
98
What third party can you give a patients notes/information to without their knowledge?
court order
statutory duty
99
Who should a practice request guidance from in regards to patients access to their own records?
information commissioner's office
100
What procedure is followed in regards to complaints?
written complaints procedure
101
If a patient or member of staff is at risk from another staff member, who is the local health commissioner should be informed?
CQC
102
Why is good communication necessary?
Put the patient at ease, allow the team to provide the best care, assist the team.
103
Additional resources that may be required for some patients (communication):
Interpreter
carer, family member - elderly with dementia
hearing induction loop
104
What does communicating mean?
to give or exchange information - verbally, non-verbally.
105
Examples of good communication:
talking, written explanations, information leaflets/posters, body language, eye contact, facial expression, body position, touching.
106
What are the 3 principles of gaining consent:
informed, voluntary, ability
107
What is informed consent?
patient is given full information about the treatment - to be able to make an informed decision.
108
What is specific consent?
consent gained for each stage of treatment
109
What is valid consent?
informed, specific, given by the parent/guardian
110
The patient must be deemed COMPETENT, and to have the MENTAL CAPACITY to show they have a full understanding of the situation (consent).
111
Gillick competence is..
Children under the age of 16 are able to give informed consent for their own treatment - if they are competent.
112
Examples of conditions that may cause incapacity for adults:
stroke, brain damage, dementia, learning difficulties, drugs/alcohol
113
What does the lasting power of attorney relate to (LPA)?
scotland: WPA
Appointed attorneys that have a duty of care to always act in the best interests of the patient.
make decisions for an incompetent patient
114
What does contemporaneous mean?
dental records are kept up to date.
115
patients can access their dental records by submitting what?
written request
116
What is the data protection act 1998?
governs how public bodies may handle and process personal data such as health records.
117
Who does the access to health records act 1990 imply with?
health records of a deceased patient.
118
Recall arrangements are in line with which guidelines?
NICE
119
adequate records should be retained for 11 years after completion of treatment (adults)
or to the age of 25 years old (children)
Date protection act
120
Medical history should be FULLY updated at what appointments?
every recall appointment
examination
121
details of any current medications/ non prescription can be checked in the..
BNF
122
Form FP25 is for:
standard chart
recording patients visit, treatments etc
123
Form FP17 is for:
given to the patient, treatment estimate, NHS charges, dental estimates
124
Form FP10D is for:
prescriptions
125
What is the confidentiality of patient records act in Scotland?
freedom of information Act 2000
126
NHS regulations require dental records to be retained for how long?
2 years
127
A patient request for their own records must be made in writing, how long should the dentist respond to this request?
within 1 month of the request (40 days)
128
The information commissioners office produce the invaluable guidance document GDPR , how many steps does this include?
12
129
What is the current legislation in regards to complaints in England?
local authority social services and national health service complaints regulations 2009
130
Complaints should be resolved in house without the need for other authorities such as:
primary care organisation (PCO)
OR GDC
131
List the complaints procedure:
responsibility - responsible person
acknowledgement - few working days (48 hours)
Investigation
Timescale
report - written
Appeal
Records
132
During the appeal stage of the complaints procedure, who can the patient appeal to?
NHS commissioning body, PCO
NHS - health service ombudsman
private - dental complaints service
133
