UNIT 3.2: CELL CYCLE + CONTROLS OF CELL CYCLE Flashcards
(163 cards)
1
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Transcriptionally active
A
Euchromatin
2
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
DNA is loosely packed
A
Euchromatin
3
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Actively present in prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene
A
Euchromatin
4
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Genetically active
A
Euchromatin
5
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Present at inner side of the nucleus
A
Euchromatin
6
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Stained lighter
A
Euchromatin
7
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Early replicative
A
Euchromatin
8
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Aren’t sticky
A
Euchromatin
9
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Allow gene to form a protein
A
Euchromatin
10
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Low genetic density
A
Euchromatin
11
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Consist 2-3% part of the genome
A
Euchromatin
12
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Transcriptionally inactive
A
Heterochromatin
13
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
DNA is highly packed
A
Heterochromatin
14
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Only present in eukaryotic genome
A
Heterochromatin
15
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Genetically inactive
A
Heterochromatin
16
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Present at nucleus perpiphery
A
Heterochromatin
17
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Stained dark
A
Heterochromatin
18
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Later replicative
A
Heterochromatin
19
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Usually sticky
A
Heterochromatin
20
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Regulates genetic integrity, and control gene expression
A
Heterochromatin
21
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
High genetic density
A
Heterochromatin
22
Q
Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
Consist 97% to 98% part of the genome
A
Heterochromatin
23
Q
Identify the phase of interphase:
Each of the 46 chromosomes is duplicated by the cell
A
S Phase
24
Q
Identify the phase of interphase:
Cellular contents, excluding the chromosomes are duplicated
A
G1 phase
25
Identify the phase of interphase:
The cell "double checks" the duplicated chromosomes for error, making any needed repairs
G2 phase
26
Checkpoints of the cell division is discovered by ___ in ___
Leland Hartwell and Ted Weinert
1988
27
Internal quality control mechanisms represented by biochemical pathways that control transition between cell-cycle stages
Checkpoints
28
Monitor and modulate the progression of cells in response to intracellular or environmental signals
Checkpoints
29
Defined as the failure to arrest the cell cycle before or at mitosis, resulting in aberrant chromosome segregation
Mitotic catastrophe
30
Caused by malfunction of cell cycle checkpoints and may lead to cell death and tumor cell development
Mitotic catastrophe
31
G1 phase lasts for ___
9 to 12 hours
32
Identify the phase of interphase:
Usually the longest and most variable phase of the cell cycle, and it begins at the end of M phase
G1 phase
33
Identify the phase of interphase:
The cell gathers nutrients and synthesizes RNA and proteins necessary for DNA synthesis and chromosome replication
G1 phase
34
Identify the phase of interphase:
Doubles/increases the volume of the cell
G1 phase
35
Monitors the integrity of newly replicated DNA
G1 DNA checkpoint
36
Sensitive to the size of the cell, the state of the cell's physiologic processes, and its interactions with extracellular matrix
Restriction checkpoint
37
The restriction checkpoint is mediated by interactions between ___ and a family of ___ with ___
pRb
E2F
target promoters
38
Identify the phase of interphase:
DNA is replicated
S phase
39
S phase lasts for ___
7.5 to 10 hours
40
Identify the phase of interphase:
Chromosome replication is initiated at many different sites along the chromosomal DNA replicon
S phase
41
Checkpoint during the S phase
S DNA-damage checkpoint
42
G2 phase lasts for ___
3.5 to 4.5 hours
43
Identify the phase of interphase:
The cell prepares for cell division and examines its replicated DNA in preparation for cell division
G2 phase
44
Identify the phase of interphase:
Period of cell growth and reorganization of cytoplasmic organelles before entering the mitotic cycle
G2 phase
45
Checkpoints during the G2 phase
G2 DNA-damage checkpoint
Unreplicated-DNA checkpoint
46
M phase lasts for ___
about 1 hour
47
Division of the nucleus
Karyokinesis
48
Division of the cell
Cytokinesis
49
Checkpoints during the mitosis
Spindle-assembly checkpoint
Chromosome-segregation checkpoint
50
Resting phase
G0 phase
51
The activation of G0 phase may occur in what instances?
1. normal wound healing
2. repopulation of seminiferous epithelium after intense acute exposure of the testis to X-irradiation
3. regeneration of an organ, such as the liver, after removal of a major portion
52
Reversibly growth-arrested cells that can regrow
Quiescent cells
53
Cells that cannot be induced to proliferate by means of growth factor stimulation of transduction of cellular oncogenes
Terminally differentiated cells
54
Identify the differentiation potential:
Zygote
Totipotent
55
Identify the differentiation potential:
Embryonic stem cells
Induced stem cells
Pluripotent
56
Identify the differentiation potential:
Amniotic fluid stem cells
Mesenchymal stem cells
Hematopoietic stem cells
Amniotic epithelial cells
Broadly multipotent/multipotent
57
Identify the differentiation potential:
Mesenchymal stem cells
Hematopoietic stem cells
Epithelial stem cells
Neural stem cells
Multipotent
58
Identify the differentiation potential:
Myeloid, lymphoid, osteogenic, cardiomyocyte, endothelial, hepatocyte, renal, neural, glial progenitor cells
Oligopotent/unipotent
59
Identify the differentiation potential:
Lymphocytes, erythrocytes, osteocytes, muscle cells, endothelial cells, hepatocytes, podocytes, neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
Terminally differentiated
60
A part of the ear derived from the mother
Otic capsule
61
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Replicated chromosomes condense and become visible
Prophase
62
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Sister chromatids are held together by the ring of proteins
Prophase
63
Ring of proteins that hold the sister chromatids during the prophase
Cohesins and centromere
64
Identify the phase of mitosis:
The nuclear envelope begins to disintegrate into small transport vesicles and resembles the sER
Prometaphase (late prophase)
65
Identify the phase of mitosis:
The nucleolus, which may still be present in some cells, also completely disappears
Prometaphase (late prophase)
66
A highly specialized protein complex called a ___ appears on each chromatid opposite to the centromere during the ___
Kinetochore
Prometaphase (late prophase)
67
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Begins as the mitotic spindle becomes organized around the MTOCs located at the opposite poles of the cell
Metaphase
68
MTOC means ___
Microtubule-organizing centers
69
Three types of tubules that organize during the metaphase
Astral microtubules
Polar microtubules
Kinetochore microtubules
70
___ and their associated motor proteins direct the movement of the chromosomes to a plane in the middle of the cell
Kinetochore microtubules
71
Motor proteins associated to the kinetochore microtubule
Dynein and kinesin
72
Motor protein associated to the kinetochore microtubule that move to the (-) end
Dynein
73
The center of the cell is the ___ (+/-) end
(-)
74
Motor protein associated to the kinetochore microtubule that moves to the (+) end
Kinesin
75
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Begins at the initial separation of sister chromatids
Anaphase
76
Responsible for anaphase
Cohesins
Microtubule-associated molecular motors (dyneins and kinesins)
77
The polymers that compose the mitotic spindle that has a vital role in mitosis
Microtubule
78
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Marked by the reconstitution of a nuclear envelope around the chromosomes at each pole
Telophase
79
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Chromosomes uncoil and become indistinct except at regions that will remain condensed in the interphase nucleus
Telophase
80
Identify the phase of mitosis:
Nucleoli reappear, and the cytoplasm divides to form two daughter cells
Telophase
81
An important protein during the telophase that consists of a very thin array of actin filaments
Contractile Ring
82
Responsible for the splitting of the cells during the telophase
Actomyosin ring (myosin II)
83
Where actomyosin ring is found
Cleavage furrow
84
The cell division that happens in germ cells
Meiosis
85
T/F: Cytoplasmic events during meiosis are the same in both sexes
F
86
T/F: Nuclear events during meiosis is different from male and female
F
87
During the ___ that precedes meiosis, DNA is replicated forming sister chromatids joined together by the centromere
S phase
88
During meiosis, the DNA content becomes ___, but chromosome number remains ___
4d
2n
89
T/F: after meiosis I, another interphase will happen to prepare the cell for meiosis II
F
90
Chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid
Reductional division (meiosis I)
91
The amount of DNA is reduced from 4d to 2d
Reductional division (meiosis I)
92
No DNA replication
Meiosis II
93
The number of chromosomes remains at 1n, although the amount of DNA represented by the number of chromatids is reduced to 1d
Meiosis II
94
Five stages of Prophase I
Leptotene
Zygotene
Pachytene
Diplotene
Diakinesis
95
Identify the phase in meiosis:
An extended phase in which pairing of homologous chromosomes, synapsis, and recombination of genetic material on homologous chromosomes is observed
Prophase I
96
Close association of homologous chromosomes
Synapsis
97
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Characterized by the condensation of chromatin and by the appearance of chromosomes
Leptotene
98
Means "thin ribbon"
Leptotene
99
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Sister chromatids also condense and become connected with each other by meiosis-specific cohesion complexes
Leptotene
100
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Pairing of homologous chromosomes of maternal and paternal origin is initiated
Leptotene
101
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Synapsis begins and continues throughout pachytene
Zygotene
102
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Formation of a synaptonemal complex
Zygotene
103
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Synapsis is complete
Pachytene
104
Identify the phase of prophase I:
"thick" stage
Pachytene
105
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Crossing over occurs early in this phase and involves transposition of DNA strands between two different chromosomes
Pachytene
106
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Early in this stage, the synaptonemal complex dissolved, and the chromosomes condense further
Diplotene
107
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Homologous chromosomes begin to separate from each other and appear to be connected by newly formed junctions between chromosomes
Diplotene
108
The junction between chromosomes during diplotene
Chiasmata
109
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Sister chromatids still remain closely associated with each other
Diplotene
110
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Homologous chromosomes condense and shorten to reach their maximum thickness
Diakinesis
111
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Nucleolus disappears
Diakinesis
112
The nucleolus disappears during diakinesis in preparation for ___
Further division
113
Identify the phase of prophase I:
Nuclear envelope disintegrates
Diakinesis
114
Identify the phase in meiosis:
Paired chromosomes are aligned at the equatorial plate with one member on either side
Metaphase I
115
Homologous chromosomes are still held together by chiasmata
Metaphase I
116
Identify the phase in meiosis:
Once the nuclear envelope has broken down, the spindle microtubules begin to interact with the chromosomes through the multilayered protein structure which is usually positioned near the centromere
Metaphase I
117
Identify the phase in meiosis:
The centromeres do not splite
Anaphase I and Telophase I
118
Identify the phase in meiosis:
The sister chromatids, held together by cohesin complexes and by the centromere, remain together
Anaphase I and Telophase I
119
Identify the phase in meiosis:
A maternal or paternal member of each homologous pair, now containing exchanged segments, moves to each pole
Anaphase I and Telophase I
120
Identify the phase in meiosis:
Genetic diversity
Anaphase I and Telophase I
121
Inactivated X chromosomes seen in female somatic cells present adjacent to the nuclear membrane
Barr body
122
Small, well-defined body which stains intensely with nuclear dyes
Barr body
123
Present in a large proportion of nuclei of female origin and absent in male nuclei
Barr body
124
The average size of a Barr body is estimated as ___
0.7 x 1.2 um
125
In Klinefelter's syndrome, the number of Barr bodies in male is ___, and in female is ___
1
2
126
In a normal male, the number of Barr bodies is ___, while in female ___
0
1
127
pRb means ___
Retinoblastoma protein
128
Promotes the formation of Cdk inhibitor
p53
129
Scans DNA for any damage
p53
130
A powerful tumor suppressor gene
p53
131
Another suppressor gene aside from p53
pRb
132
Responsible for S DNA-damage checkpoint
Polymerase
133
___ oncogenes and ___ tumor suppressor gene lead to cancer
high
low
134
Tumor suppressor genes are also called ___
"gatekeepers"
"caretakers"
135
Code for proteins involved in regulating cell growth and differentiation
Proto-oncogenes
136
Code for proteins that help slow down cellular growth/promote apoptosis
Tumor suppressor genes
137
A small protein that induces the cell to begin cell division
Mitogen
138
A naturally occurring substance that is capable of stimulating the cell proliferation, wound healing, and cellular differentiation
Growth factor
139
Trigger the rate of cell division by removing intracellular molecular breaks that restrain the cell cycle progression in G1 in the cell cycle
Mitogen
140
Promote and increase in cell mass by triggering the synthesis and inhibiting the degradation of macromolecules
Growth factor
141
Mitogen mainly act upon the ___ phase
G1
142
Growth factor mainly act upon phase's transition such as ___
G0 to G1
G1 to S
143
Identify the growth factor:
Mitogenic for vascular smooth muscle, fibroblasts
Platelet-derived growth factor
144
Identify the growth factor:
Mitogenic for most epithelial tissues, fibroblasts, endothelial cells
Epidermal growth factor
145
Identify the growth factor:
Mesenchymal and neural tissue mitogen
Fibroblast growth factor
146
Identify the growth factor:
Inhibits replication of most cells in vitro, including keratinocytes, endothelial cells, lymphocytes, and macrophages; may inhibit or stimulate fibroblasts
Transforming growth factor-beta
147
Identify the growth factor:
Mitogenic for endothelial cells, but not keratinocytes, smoot muscles, or fibroblast
Vascular endothelial growth factor
148
Caused by mutations in the ATM gene
A-T
149
Gene which encodes a protein of ATM protein
Ataxia Telangiectasia Mutated gene
150
Protein responsible for the coordination of cellular signaling pathways in response to DNA double strand breaks, oxidative stress and other genotoxic stress
Ataxia Telangiectasia Mutated protein
151
Identify the CDK for Cyclin D
CDK 4/6
152
Identify the CDK for Cyclin E
CDK 2
153
Identify the CDK for Cyclin A (S phase)
CDK 2
154
Identify the CDK for Cyclin A (G2 phase)
CDK 1
155
Identify the CDK for Cyclin B (M phase)
CDK 1
156
Occurs toward the end of growth phase I
Cell growth checkpoint
157
Checks whether the cell is big enough and has made the proper proteins for the synthesis phase
Cell growth checkpoint
158
If the cell is not ready yet, it goes through a ___ until it is ready to divide
Resting period (G0)
159
Occurs during the synthesis phase (S)
DNA synthesis checkpoint
160
Checks whether DNA has been replicated correctly
DNA synthesis checkpoint
161
Occurs during the mitosis phase
Mitosis checkpoint
162
Checks whether mitosis is complete
Mitosis checkpoint
163
An enzyme which prevents the sister chromatids to divide
Securin
