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URE'S Flashcards

(100 cards)

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1
Q

On which network or portal does the air and space expeditionary reporting tool (ART) reside?

A

Secure internet protocol routing network (SIPRNET)

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2
Q

Time compliance technical order (TCTO) kits are not necessary for

A

condition or inspection TCTOs.

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3
Q

What temperature range, degrees Fahrenheit (F), should aircrew flight equipment work centers maintain?

A

68 to 75.

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4
Q

Where are all AF designed operational capability (DOC) statements centrally located?

A

Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).

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5
Q

Who designs and develops Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measurement criteria to provide valid assessments regarding unit readiness?

A

Functional area managers (FAM).

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6
Q

Who is responsible for organizing the Air Force?

A

Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).

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7
Q

How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

A

7,500.

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8
Q

A detailed manpower listing reflecting authorizations or slots by work center is a unit

A

manpower document

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9
Q

Which malfunction on the parachute is caused by excessive opening forces?

A

Broken lines

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10
Q

What is the responsibility of a pilot unit when preparing for deployments?

A

Developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details.

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11
Q

Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) course is specifically for those members flying in non-ejection seat aircraft?

A

LL03.

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12
Q

What classification of mishaps results in injuries that only require first-aid treatment and results in no lost days from work?

A

Class D.

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13
Q

On which network or portal does the air and space expeditionary reporting tool (ART) training site reside?

A

Nonsecure internet protocol routing network (NIPRNET).

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14
Q

Which course prepares aircrew flight equipment (AFE) personnel for service on a safety investigation board (SIB) or accident investigation board (AIB)?

A

Life Science Equipment Investigation

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15
Q

When the performance work standard (PWS) or statement of work (SOW), new or revised, contain aircrew flight equipment (AFE) services, who must review and approved them prior to their implementation?

A

MAJCOM AFE functional manager (FM).

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16
Q

Who is authorized to submit a requirement to start the acquisition process?

A

Major commands level staff

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17
Q

Which technical order details the deficiency reporting process?

A

00–35D–54

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18
Q

What is the single largest factor in generating a quality aircrew flight equipment (AFE) technician?

A

Proper training

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19
Q

The R–14, customer authorization and custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) serves as a custody receipt when signed by the

A

custodian and commander

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20
Q

As a supervisor, prior to assigning individuals their work duties, you should

A

evaluate the individual’s OJT records

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21
Q

The results of no-notice quality assurance (QA) inspection must be documented

A

in the Aircrew Flight Equipment Quality Assurance Program (AFEQAP).

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22
Q

Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS) measures readiness to provide needed capabilities for missions as expressed by the organization’s

A

mission essential task (MET)

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23
Q

When documenting training, what do you use to indicate the individual can perform the task without assistance and meets local demands for accuracy, timeliness, and correct use of procedures?

A

Go.

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24
Q

In reference to the time change item (TCI) budgeting and procurement process, which publication describes the types of time change items that require annual forecasts?

A

TO 00–20–9.

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25
A report of survey (ROS) is mandatory if
hand tools or other items over $100 unit cost are lost.
26
Who controls and manages the wing’s aircrew flight equipment (AFE) formal supplemental course allocations?
Group flight equipment officer (FEO) or AFE superintendent (AFES).
27
How many years of experience fitting aircrew helmets, oxygen masks, and working with aviator flight equipment must civilian personnel performing equipment inspection and maintenance duties possess?
3
28
Who should periodically inspect aircrew flight equipment work centers to ensure that contamination of breathing equipment is at an absolute minimum?
Flight surgeons office representatives.
29
The preliminary report for a class A or B off-duty ground mishap must be initiated how soon after the accident?
By the 2nd duty day.
30
Changes to the unit designed operational capability (DOC) statements must be completed within how many days?
60
31
What instruction covers the management of a composite tool kit (CTK) program?
AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
32
Aircrew flight equipment instructors (AFECTI) must meet minimum formal training requirements and be assigned using guidelines established by their respective
major commands
33
In which circumstance is a report of survey (ROS) not mandatory?
Property loss in combat operations
34
How frequent all Air Force and Air Force gained units must submit and update unit type code assessments every
30 days
35
Which mishap classification is used for physiological events?
Class E.
36
The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until
the contents change.
37
When budgeting resources, authorizations are the
minimum essential quantity required to accomplish your assigned AF mission or to accomplish your duties.
38
As a minimum expectation, what percentage, if any, of post-flight equipment requires quality control inspection (QCI)?
0
39
Which guidance explains the exception for only using an Internal Slingable Unit (ISU) container?
AFI 25–101
40
Which part and section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) identifies career field progression information, duties and responsibilities, training strategies, and career field path?
Part I, section B.
41
f the item does not require a report of survey (ROS), when may you voluntarily pay for property that was lost, damaged, or destroyed?
If they item value is $500 or less
42
Who is responsible for physically building, weighing, and measuring each increment of cargo when developing and maintaining standard unit type code (UTC) logistics details
Pilot units.
43
When assigning unit numerical designations for USAF organizations, which priority focuses on preserving units that trace their heritage to the original (pre–1939) Air Force formations?
First
44
Who is responsible for associating, tracking, and managing personnel and equipment in unit type codes (UTC) and assigning them to the proper aircrew equipment flight (AEF)?
Unit commander
45
When, if ever, may consumables, such as halocarbons, be placed in composite tool kits (CTK)?
If they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables.
46
Within aircrew flight equipment (AFE), who is authorized to negotiate or agree to buy an item from a company?
Major commands
47
What is the most common type of Air Force mishap?
Ground
48
How frequently must the major command, field operating agency or direct reporting unit command reporting organizations, and the measured commander review designed operational capability (DOC) statements?
Annually
49
Which publication establishes specific requirements and applies to all aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructors (AFECTI), aircrew, and personnel who fly?
AFI 11–301
50
What is the underlying purpose of a composite tool kit (CTK) program?
Eliminate foreign object damage
51
What enables force providers to identify units that have, or can quickly develop, the capabilities requested by theater commanders?
Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).
52
If a Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft is destroyed, this is considered which mishap classification?
Class A.
53
Immediately following a physiological incident, what minimum action should you take, as the qualified aircrew flight equipment (AFE) craftsman, with regard to the worn AFE?
Mark the bayonet receivers with a permanent marker
54
What method is used to determine if an item is eligible for Air Force Cost Analysis Improvement Group /cost per flying hour (AFCAIG/CPFH) funding?
Decision-tree.
55
Which Air Force instruction is used to develop an installation deployment plan (IDP)?
AFI 10–403
56
What type of manpower standard is typically developed for a function that deviates significantly from the norm?
Single location standards
57
A primary focal point for all safety related matters is the
unit safety representative
58
Who is responsible for ensuring at least one 1P071 (or civilian equivalent) is appointed to fill the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) quality assurance (QA) inspector position?
Group commander
59
How frequently must the group flight equipment officer (FEO) or aircrew flight equipment (AFE) superintendent review the AFE master lesson plans and instructor lesson plans?
Annually.
60
What document is used to expand a section in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)?
Job Qualification Standard (JQS).
61
What document provides a list of all tasks performed in a work center?
Master task list (MTL).
62
A timely mishap investigation relies upon
prompt notification
63
Who or which deployment work center provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises?
Deployment control center (DCC).
64
Which items may be purchased using cost per flying hour (CPFH) funds?
. Flight gloves.
65
When forecasting for conventional munitions, what category is used for aircrew flight equipment (AFE) munitions used as build-up to support new aircraft or aircrew?
T
66
Once the development process flow has produced a time compliance technical order (TCTO), who receives and date stamps the TCTO?
Quality assurance (QA).
67
How are in-process inspections (IPI) documented?
On locally developed forms.
68
How frequently are life-sustaining items forecasted?
Annually.
69
What tool enables users to view unit type codes (UTC), logistic details (LOGDET), manpower detail, and mission capability (MISCAP) statements?
Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).
70
Air and space expeditionary reporting tool (ART) complements readiness data reported in
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
71
In the proficiency code chart, the subject knowledge scale values consist of
upper case letters
72
How frequently is the manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK) updated?
Monthly.
73
Which Part of the Career Field and Training Plan (CFETP) is mandatory in individual training records?
Part II
74
How often should a comprehensive inspection of all composite tool kit (CTK) be completed?
Annually.
75
What security classification, if any, is applied to unit type code (UTC) logistics details (LOGDET)?
None.
76
Which deployment work center is not part of the installation deployment officer’s (IDO) activation process?
Personnel readiness unit (PRU).
77
Who is responsible for matching postured unit type code (UTC) requirements to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations?
Functional area managers (FAM).
78
Who determines the need for additional forecast data to assure assets are available to meet replacement requirements?
Item managers
79
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is designed t
provide a broad assessment of unit status based on unit’s ability to execute its mission(s).
80
Which manpower document is produced and administered at the base level and provides a means to monitor unit manning and controlling incoming and intra-unit assignments?
Unit manpower personnel roster
81
What system does Air Force policy mandate to be used for the development, validation, and use of equipment allowances, authorizations, accountable records, reports, and related management products?
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
82
Which allowance standard is used for aircrew flight equipment base use items?
B
83
Which allowance source code (ASC) applies to unit type code (UTC) or mobility commitment?
A
84
Who or which deployment work center is the installation commander’s representative during all deployments?
Installation deployment officer (IDO).
85
In which stage of the deployment process is the plan executed at the deployed location?
Employment.
86
The primary method of time change items budgeting forecast submission is the
AFTO Form 223.
87
Who reports on the inventory and status of aircraft in Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
Maintenance units.
88
What time frames do time change items forecasts use as a break out?
Quarterly.
89
At most bases, who performs the function of screening point?
Technical order distribution office or quality assurance.
90
Which class of mishap does not involve USAF operations, but results in injuries to USAF military personnel or property damage?
Off-duty
91
Upon completion of a new item acquisition process, who usually purchases an initial stock for the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), base supply and the shops that will use the item?
Air Force Life Cycle Management Center/Aircrew Performance Branch (AFLCMC/WNUV)
92
Within aircrew flight equipment (AFE), who is tasked to manage the time compliance technical order (TCTO) program to ensure satisfactory integration of AFE with aircrew recovery systems?
AFE quality assurance (QA).
93
Acquisition requirements that explain the deficiency, impact, and proposed solutions are usually documented on which form?
AF Form 1067.
94
Which mishap classification is assigned for suffers of a nonfatal injury that requires them to lose work time beyond the day or shift on which the mishap occurred?
Class C.
95
The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) consists of how many main parts?
2.
96
How many individuals must be used to move a 463L pallet a short distance by hand safely?
6
97
Any aircrew flight equipment failure or malfunction contributing to a physiological mishap must be documented in the formal report and in the
Air Force Safety Automated System (AFSAS).
98
Who approves the Air Force master lesson plans (AFMLP) used to conduct aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT)?
Lead mission designator series (MDS) major command (MAJCOM).
99
At least how frequently should heel and chair marks or other discoloration of the floor be removed in an aircrew flight equipment facility?
Monthly.
100
Where is the proficiency code key located?
STS.

1P071 (6 decks)

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