Version A ‘22 Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

________________ is the real-time accurate knowledge of one’s own location and orientation, as well as the locations of friendly forces, enemy forces, and noncombatants. _________________includes awareness of the METT-T conditions that affect the operation.

A

Situational awareness ; Situational awareness

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2
Q

What are the negative effects of fratricide? (List at least 3)

A

-Loss of confidence in the unit’s leadership
-Increase of leader self-doubt
-Hesitation to use supporting combat systems
-Over supervision of units
-Loss of initiative
-Loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver. -Disrupted operations
-Needless loss of combat power
-General degradation of cohesion and morale
- loss of initiative
- needless loss of combat power
- over supervision of units

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3
Q

What are the Interior Ballistics?

A

-Barrel wear
-propellant charges
-projectile weight
-launcher tube and rocket pod alignment
-thrust misalignment

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4
Q

If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings, the individual points of impact will be scattered about the aim point. The degree of scatter of these rounds is called _____________.

A

Dispersion

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5
Q

Define maximum effective range.

A

Distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target

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6
Q

What are the five modes of fire per the TC 3-04.3?

A

Hover, Moving, Running, Diving, Running/Diving IP

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7
Q

What are the three inherent advantages of diving fire?

A

-Decreased vulnerability to small-arms fire
-Increased accuracy
-Smaller beaten zone

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8
Q

Neutralization knocks a target out of action ____________.

A

Temporarily

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9
Q

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

A

Black with yellow band

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10
Q

During running rocket fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the _______ while maintaining ______________.

A

Cyclic ; trim

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11
Q

The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is __________ and can produce a lethality radius in excess of __________.

A

10 m ; 50 m

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12
Q

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the target should be located _____ to _____ meters in front of the aircraft.

A

500 m ; 1500 m

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13
Q

What is the gun duty cycle?

A

-6x50 rd bursts 5 sec in between each followed by 10 min cool down

-Burst settings other than 50, no more than 300 rds in 60 sec followed by 10 min cool down

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14
Q

The software range limit for the 30mm is?

A

4200 m

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15
Q

The warning regarding 30mm stoppage states: If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding _____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____________. Crewmembers should ____________________________________.

A

-300
-10 minutes
-30 minutes
-remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control

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16
Q

Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?

A

Yes

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17
Q

In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain ______________________________, gun firing _____________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______________.

A

-LAST COMMAND position
-INHIBITED
-RETURN TO STOW

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18
Q

What is the elevation of the gun in the FIXED mode?

A

+0.87 degrees

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19
Q

What is the rate of fire for the 30 mm cannon?

A

625 +/- 25 RPM

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20
Q

With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

A

A = 12 , B = 4 , E = 3

21
Q

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the ARS page when in the cooperative mode?

22
Q

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember when the active sight is _________ and __________; (CPG Only) _______.

A

hmd
-fcr
-mtads

23
Q

The pylons articulate independently through a range of _________________.

A

+4 degree to -15 degrees

24
Q

What are the different “modes” the pylons can operate in?

A

-Ground Stow:
-Flight Stow: +4
-Articulation: +4 -15
-Fixed: +3.48

25
On preflight, the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure __________________.
Proper jettison
26
T/F The rocket page is crew station independent for independent engagements.
True
27
The M151 Warhead HE is _________________________and referred to as the “________________”.
-anti-personnel, anti-material -10 pounder
28
A HF-II which does receive an R09 targeting message from the firing aircraft is considered an?
Enhanced HF-II
29
Define the 60 degree (preferably within 45 degrees) Designator Offset Angle.
The angle between the GTL and LTL
30
What is the minimum engagement range for an ENHANCED, LOBL, 0 and 20 degree offset?
500 m ; 1200 m
31
What are the four sections of the Hellfire Missile?
-Guidance -Warhead -Control -Propulsion
32
Match the correct trajectory to the corresponding constraints box driver. (AGM-114R Enhanced)
-c -a -b -b
33
What is the definition of Ripple fire?
Ripple fire mode requires at least two designators which will allow the aircrew to employ multiple missiles on different codes. RIPL allows for firing of missiles coded to both the priority channel and the alternate channel
34
How long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed ON time?
30 min
35
What is “transfer alignment”?
MSL receiving updated INU data form Aircraft to update IMU (HF SH D-92) Transfer alignment (transfer of aircraft inertial data to missile inertial platform) occurs automatically, at missile power up with no pilot action required
36
Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger's second detent?
No
37
How long must you lase the target before the message “TARGET DATA?” blanks in the HAD?
3 to 5 sec
38
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes only stationary ground targets
Priority scheme A emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets. **Priority scheme B** emphasizes station-ary ground targets. Priority scheme C emphasizes airborne and moving ground targets.
39
A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give _____ scans.
3
40
The ___________ switch is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as detected by the RFI.
cued search
41
How is the number one RFI emitter displayed?
Home plate symbol around emitter icon
42
Label the following FCR targets:
See graphic:
43
T/F The RFI can detect and process pulse, pulse Doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar signals.
True
44
When receiving an RFHO, the aircraft must accept the RFHO within_________. If the Crew has not accepted the RFHO message within the allotted time, the crew will observe the________________message in the Weapon status inhibit section.
6 min ; Data Invalid
45
What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered into the LRFD?
1788
46
When initiating internal boresight the sight is automatically set to _____ and the sensor will be set to ____ and the FOV to _______.
MTADS ; DTV ; Narrow
47
If the FLIR is not cooled when DTV is boresighted the FLIR boresight will ______. However, the DTV boresight is ___________.
fail ; valid
48
What three things will cause the LOS reticle to flash?
-LOS is invalid/selected -NVS is at its limit -when the gun is the selected weapon and the gun system has failed and is not following the crewmembers head
49
Are you familiar with HAD?
Sure, bitch. Go look again.