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Flashcards in Volume 1 Deck (100):
1

What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilites for material managment?

AFI 36-2101

2

List the seven general duties and responsibilities of a materiel management specialist as they are outlinded in the enlisted classification publication?

Inspect and evaluate inventory managment activites
Performe administratve and managment functions
Provide support to maintencane activities
Issue, ship, and transfer property
Inspec and identify property
Performer technical material functions

3

Which program promotes a better understanding of the whole supply system?

Logistics career broading program, Also know as the wholesale logistics program.

4

What rank is required to qualify for the Logistics Career Broading program?

Technical or Master Sergeant

5

Who handles all enlinsted issues for a MAJCOM for the 2S career field?

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

6

Who chairs the AFMMCAB and is keu to the education and training path of our enlisted force?

The CFM (Careeer Field Manager)

7

What is eLog21?

Air Force transformation campain plan to improve logistics to meet both current and future threat enviroment

8

What is the goal of Integrated Processes?

To deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, everytime.

9

Which source of supply is responsible for the cradle to grave managment of every Air Force weapon sysytem?`

AFMC

10

Where are the three ALCs located?

Odgend
Warner robins
Oklahoma City

11

Which agency has responsibility for providing supply throughout the DOD?

DLA

12

What type of products does GSA provide?

Office supplies, hand tools, paints etc.

13

Define local manufacture?

Made by the base manufacture

14

What is a GPC?

Goverment Purchase Card

15

Define CRF?

Gives maintenance options ranging from complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions in single facility.

16

Who do DMS personnel notify when DIFM asset turn-in times exceed requirements outlined in AFI23-101?

AMU (Aircraft Maintenance Unit) leadership.

17

The RNI process is governed by which two references?

AFI 20-117 repair network intergration
AFMAN 20-118 repair network intergration procedures

18

Define SCOR model?

Describes buisness activities associated with all phases of satisfying a customers demand

19

List the functional flight in LRS?

Fuels
Vehicle
Deployement and Distrobution
Materiel Managment

20

How many organizations make up the AFSC?

Three

21

What is the AFIMSCs mission?

To sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for america.

22

Which PSUs are the foundation of the AFIMSC?

Air Force Civil Engineer Center
Air Force Financial Services Center
Air Force Installation Contracting Agency
Air Force Security Forces Center
Air Force Financial Managment Center of the Expertise
Air Force Services Activity

23

List the four materiel managment major processes?

Item Accounting
File Maintence
Reports
Accounting and Finance

24

Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested to include interchangeables and substitutes?

Due-Out Process

25

What four types fo transactions activate the DOR process?

Input of receipt
A return
A new Item inclueded in an interchangeable family of items
Adjustmen transaction

26

List the 11 major processes maintenance function?

Status
Follow up
Inventory
Special Level
Equipment in use
New item record load
Mission change special level
Miscellaneous file maintence
SNUD
I and SG
MRSP and MSK

27

Whar are the Five different types of reports?

Daily
Montly
As required
Utility
Quarterly

28

What major processes are involved in the A&F process?

Requistioning and Status
Reciepts
Order and return
File maintence

29

What is the purpose of the DODM 4140.01?

To implement requirements and procedure for DOD material managers and others and to work within or with DOD supply systyem.

30

What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations?

Supply, acquistion, maintenance and finance

31

What is the first step to retrieve AFI 23-101 from the web?

Go to air force e-bublilshing website

32

What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122?

Find tool, table of contents

33

What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a document withing AFH23-123?

Find tool

34

What is an NSN?

National Stock Number

35

What two entities make up the NSN?

FSC and NIIN

36

What are the four major types of computer inquiries?

Item
Detail
Part Number
Other

37

What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be "read out" for a specific DN?

Detail Record

38

What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?

M32, Monthly base supply manangment report

39

What type of codes are used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?

Record Retriveal Codes

40

What information is shown on line one (1) of an inquiry output?

Image

41

In what format is the information on an inquiry out put displayed?

Narrative

42

What information is provided from a part number inquiry?

NSN, Cage, To

43

Which record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle date?

5

44

What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given SN?

R

45

How far back canusers query CTH records?

One year or more at a time

46

What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?

SN
Transaction seriel number
Batch miscellaneous

47

What three elements make up a reject phrase?

A reject code
A descriptive phrase
An action flag

48

When you recieve a reject, what should you do first?

Insure you input the datat correctly

49

What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear reject?

AFI23-123 part 2, Volume 2, Chapter 7

50

What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?

Manamgment notice do not stop computer processing

51

Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed?

One work day

52

What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

D818 ( cumulative reject suspense listing)

53

Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force-delete a reject image?

Option 3

54

Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure forced deleteions of rejects are processed for valid reasons only?

Flight Chief

55

Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing and the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing?

To determine the effectivinesss of transaction processing

56

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICS?

Control- requires authorization
Uncontrolled-requires no authorization

57

Who determines which transactions can be processed within the flights?

Flight Chiefs

58

What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?

301 reject notice

59

Which product does the manamgement and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC porcessing?

Base supply surveillance report (D20, part 8)

60

Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler?

By the 15th workday of the same month

61

Which formis used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?

2011

62

Explain the concept of SMAG-R?

A revolving fund ( or WCF) that is established through an act of congress

63

Under what operating principle is the SMAG-R designed to operate?

On a no-profit/no-loss basis

64

How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?

Army
Navy
Air Force
Marine Corps
DLA

65

What type of items is the CSAG-S primarily responsible for?

Air Force managed depot-level reparable spares and consumable spares unique to the air force

66

What information is provided to LRS leadership through the QA program?

An assesment of the units ability to performe key logistics processes ensuring standardized, repeatable, technically compliant process execution, while promoting a culture of professional excellence and personal, responsibility.

67

How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?

Conducted according to local guidelines
Performed using established check lists for each area

68

What is the purpose of a customer support visit?

To evaluate how well materiel management is doing

69

Who is responsible for submitting controlling, and monitoring DIREPs?

AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling and montoring DIREPs

70

List the four DIREP catergories?

I- Major Impact
II- Severe Problem
III- Chronic Problem
IV- Cosmetic Error

71

What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately?

I-Major Impact

72

What personnel are recommended to submit a throughly researched and documented DIREP?

-The User
-The automated data processing equipment (ADPE)

73

What is the analysis progaram is designed to do?

Determine the effectiveness of the materiel managment account

74

What are the three types of analysis?

Trend
Problem
Special Studies

75

What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement or to solve a specific problem?

Special Studies

76

Define the term "managment indicator"

Performance measures that represent a key result, and are selected for managment control

77

What is mandatory after an assessment and there are deviations or deficiencies due to lack of job proficiency, training, and compliance with technical data or instruction?

reviewing training requirements

78

What program is used to pass analyzed information to the commander?

Materiel management analysis program

79

How do you performe a QC Check?

By comparing the source document with the DCR

80

What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC?

DN
SN
Quantity
Unit of Issue
System designator

81

What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filled? Destroyed?

F=Filable
D=Destroyable

82

What is your first step if a document is still missing after it appears on three daily listing?

Contact the section responsible for the document to obtain status

83

What is the final step in resolving a delinquent document?

Conduct search in your workspace for original document.

84

How long does document control maintain a copy of the DO4 on disk?

For two years to provide historical feeder information fo accounting transactions.

85

What product is used as an historical document showing the status of the materiel management system database after establishing a new materiel management account?

Conversion Audit list (R22)

86

How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?

Two years

87

How is the Shipment Loss Analysis (M16) filed?

By fiscal year.

88

Within what period must the M10 be filed?

Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.

89

What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?

To ensure an item has been shipped.

90

When is a shipment-suspense detail created?

When shipments and transfers process through the LRS.

91

What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?

To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the
computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.

92

Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?

TRIC SSC.

93

How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS
interface?

By electronic interface with the Traffic Management Flight

94

What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?

R40.

95

What elements are responsible for processing record reversal inputs?

Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service.

96

What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a
record reversal?

The activity finding the error.

97

What is the purpose of processing a freeze code Q to the item record?

Prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and
preparing input for the record reversal action.

98

What transactions may be reversed using automated record reversal procedures?

Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records.

99

What information is required to process an automated record reversal?

TTPC, date, and serial number of the transaction being reversed.

100

What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated record reversal screen before input?

Review for accuracy.