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Flashcards in Volume 2 Deck (91):
1

What methods are used for submitting supply requests?

Hand carried; mailed; or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail.

2

What submission point is used to process expedite order requests?

Customer support function.

3

How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for order requests?

Two copies

4

What methods are available for determining the next available serial number to use on an orderrequest?

Copy two of the AF Form 2005 or pre-serialized numbered AF Forms 2005.

5

What additional information is required on a part number request if the supply system requiredpart number is unknown?

TO data or other appropriate reference.

6

What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated UNDs and UJCs?

Effective reduction of UMMIPS violations and the costs of priority requirements.

7

What management notice reflects the quantity issued, killed, or due out?

I004

8

What management notice reflects due-out requisitioning action taken on an order request?

I005.

9

What management notice is provided for all part number requests that cannot be converted toNSNs under program control?

I007.

10

What management notice reflects the total base asset position of a killed request?

I023

11

What benefit does the IMDS CDB/materiel management system interface provide maintenance personnel?

The capability to order parts, retrieve current status, cancel their own requirements, and review canceledrequirements.

12

What activity code identifies issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System?

J

13

What management notification does the materiel management system output to notify the IMDS CDB system of a change in status to a maintenance due-out?

1SH

14

What happens when the materiel management system detects an error in a transaction sent by IMDS CDB?

The image is returned to the IMDS CDB input terminal along with the applicable reject notice.

15

What ERRCDs identify repair cycle assets?

XD or XF.

16

When does the repair cycle of a malfunctioning asset begin and end?

It normally begins with the item’s removal from the end item and is followed by a replacement request tobase supply. It normally ends when the original item is turned in as repaired, NRTS, or condemned

17

When is a DIFM detail established?

When a repair cycle asset has been issued or backordered as a replacement.

18

DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM details. What are the flags for each of the following DIFM details?
a. Firm.
b. Memo.
c. Credit.

A.. 0
B. 1
C 2

19

How are DFM change inputs used?

To update the status and location fields on the DIFM detail record.

20

In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?

One

21

What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process?

Multiple DIFM flag.

22

What listing is used to perform the DIFM reconciliation?

D23.

23

What is the purpose of the D23?

.To monitor status and maintain visibility of DIFM assets

24

What purpose does the D19 serve?

To provide a listing of AWP due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records. It also provides financial data formaintenance managers to make repair decisions.

25

What action do you take for items appearing in the D20?

Ensure all initial issues are validated with a letter of justification or exception.

26

TCTO items are modified to the extent that their form, fit, or function is changed. How is this TCTO item identified on the item record?

With NPPC 4.

27

How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require re-identification to a new NSN, identified on the item record?

.By assignment of a TCTO flag.

28

Why does the inspector prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listedstock numbers on a TCTO?

To find out the total number of assets to be modified.

29

What information must be annotated on the cover letter to maintenance quality control?

List by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require modification.

30

How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelf TCTO items assigned either NPPC 4or the TCTO flag?

Monthly.

31

What action must the inspector take when an item is received and they cannot determine if TCTOactions have been done?

Issue the item to the maintenance function for the necessary inspection or test.

32

What document must accompany DIFM items when they are returned to the LRS?

An AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, a condition tag, and the issue (ISU) or due-outrelease (DOR) document.

33

What form will be used in preparation for turn-in?

AF Form 2005, Turn-In Request.

34

What happens to ERRCD XF assets when they are turned in condemned?

Transfer the item to DLADS.

35

Time change managers will coordinate with maintenance and maintain supporting documentationin accordance with what standard?

AFI 21–101 and TO 00–20–9.

36

How long will FSC maintain all documentation that pertains to time change items?

.One year.

37

When are FSC personnel required to match each line item on the DIFM listing to items in theDIFM monitor’s possession?

During time change reconciliation.

38

Why is it important to process TRN data?

Because it generates base stock levels and provides information to HQ AFMC from which buy, repair, anddistribution decisions are made.

39

What data are updated by processing a maintenance turnaround record update?

Demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record.

40

What is the source of data for TRN processing?

Part II of the AFTO Form 350 from the maintenance activity.

41

How long are unserviceable assets stored?

Until disposition instructions are received.

42

What is the benefit of separate storage of assets?

To prevent an unserviceable item from being issued as serviceable when it’s not.

43

What TRICs are processed once disposition instructions are received?

SHP, TRM or MSI.

44

Establishing a supply point is a coordinated effort between maintenance and the LRS. What arethe functions of maintenance in this operation?

To provide sufficient space and facilities for accommodating the supply point.

45

When can EOQ items be stocked in a supply point?

When approved by the materiel management flight commander.

46

What input is used to load, change, or delete a supply point detail?

FSP

47

What organization code identifies a supply point transaction?

005

48

What TRIC is used to load the storage location on a supply point detail?

FSP

49

With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted?

S; 005; N.

50

What term describes how items are issued from a supply point?

Over-the-counter.

51

What TRIC is used to issue an item from a supply point detail?

MSI.

52

What do you do to issue an item from a supply point detail with no replenishment action?

Use TEX code F on the MSI request.

53

What is the purpose of the supply point serial numbered log?

To assign sequential serial numbers to the document number date field of each supply point issue. Thisallows multiple issues of a single DIFM item during one day’s processing.

54

How often are supply point assets reconciled?

At least semiannually.

55

What listing is used to reconcile supply point assets?

Supply Point Listing (Q13)

56

When are issues (TRIC ISU) processed during the supply point reconciliation?

When the total on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity

57

How are balance discrepancies reconciled?

Using special inventory procedures.

58

What is the support period of an MRSP?

60 days.

59

Which type of RSP is used to support an organization in-place for the first 30 days of wartimeoperation?

IRSP

60

What record must be loaded prior to processing RSP authorization input records?

Serial number/control record—TRIC 1EB.

61

What program is used to perform reconciliation between XVF records and base level WRMauthorizations?

S05

62

What is the purpose for care of supplies in storage (COSIS)?

Shelf life controls and other inspection functions established for like peacetime assets applied to RSP items.

63

How are issues to an MRSP processed?

TRIC ISU, activity code U.

64

What TRIC is used to issue assets from an MRSP?

TRIC MSI.

65

What action occurs if you use TRIC TEX code F on an MSI transaction?

Prevents automatic replenishment.

66

What involves the permanent movement of assets from home station to a forward location or basewith the host base AO assuming accountability?

Transfer

67

Who must make the decision to transfer MRSP accountability?

MAJCOM.

68

What is the primary function of PC-ASM?

Logistics.

69

Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingencyplanning, assessment, and deployment operations?

Readiness

70

What is a UTC?

A five-character alphanumeric code that identifies an armed forces unit.

71

What is used to measure readiness?

ART.

72

What is the DRRS?

It is a single automated reporting system within the DOD functioning as the central registry of alloperational units in the US Armed Forces and designated foreign organizations.

73

What identifies a materiel management UTC?

The letters “JFB” in the first three positions

74

Why are extra controls necessary for small arms?

To prevent their losses

75

What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons?

The serial number of the weapon involved.

76

What factors determine the type of bag issued to an individual for deployment?

The reason for the deployment and the deployment location.

77

Which bag contains general-support items?

A.

78

Which bag contains CBRNE?

C.

79

What program is used to manage mobility bags?

ES-S Mobility.

80

What entity in the AFSC is responsible for MICAP management?

AFMC SCM-R Weapon Support Activity.

81

How is a MICAP due-out established?

TRIC ISU with MICAP flag N and the appropriate MICAP UJC.

82

What UND codes reflect a MICAP requirement?

1, J, or /.

83

What code on the MICAP report identifies the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made theMICAP request necessary?

Cause code.

84

How is the MICAP cause code assigned on the MICAP report?

Automatically under program control.

85

What information should you always be aware of regarding MICAP requirements?

Current status.

86

What is the purpose of a MICAP delete code?

To identify the reason for termination of a MICAP condition.

87

What MICAP delete code indicates error reporting?

9.

88

What purpose do MICAP reports (B9*) serve?

To report the initiation, change, or termination of a MICAP condition.

89

How does MICAP reporting take place?

Automatically with the output of B9* images during on-line processing.

90

When is MICAP reporting initiated?

When a due-in is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a MICAP condition or when anexisting requisition is upgraded to a MICAP condition.

91

When is MICAP reporting terminated?

At the time of a due-out release, downgrade to a non-MICAP condition, or cancellation.