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Flashcards in Volume 3 Deck (130):
1

What is an AS?

A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by Air Force activities
and individuals to carry out the mission.

2

What is a BOI?

The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military
organization.

3

Where can you find ASs?

Through online query screens in AFEMS (C001).

4

What code tells you if an equipment item is an EAID item?

EMC.

5

How are non-EAID items identified?

By EMC 1 (ERRCD NF1).

6

What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or
below?

AF Form 2005

7

What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment ASs?

AF Form 601

8

When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601
requiring higher than base-level approval?

When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the
same.

9

What AFEMS (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request?

TACR

10

List the four situations when you would not input a 601 request into AFEMS (C001).

EOD items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information.

11

What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details?

To control and account for EAID equipment from the time of issue to turn-in.

12

What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete EAID records?

FCI.

13

What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?

1.

14

What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins?

Degraded and pre-degraded operations.

15

Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property?

Degraded operations

16

How are non-EAID items turned in?

On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code P.

17

How are EAID turn-ins processed?

On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code E.

18

What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?

FET

19

What does the gaining base process to receive the shipment and establish an on-hand quantity and
detail to obtain accountability?

FED.

20

What listing provides the capability to ensure equipment authorizations are maintained within
prescribed allowances?

ASC listing (Q09).

21

What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use
and due-out quantities?

Out-of-balance conditions.

22

What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL?

Serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian.

23

What does a CA/CRL jacket folder consist of normally?

Current CA/CRL and custodian appointment letter to that particular account.

24

Who may sign for equipment items?

Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.

25

Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets?

XD/XF

26

What TRIC is used to load a special-purpose asset detail record?

1XA

27

What product is used to inventory SPRAM assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by
the custodian?

SPRAM report listing (R25).

28

What CICs are used to identify weapons?

CICs N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.

29

How are COMSEC items identified on the item record?

SRC of C and MMCs of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY.

30

How often must you reconcile weapons and COMSEC detail records?

Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for COMSEC (15 March and 15 September).

31

What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation?

Weapon/COMSEC reconciliation (R46).

32

What are the key responsibilities of stock control?

Stockage policy and managing requisitions

33

What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?

Average PBR

34

What term defines the average quantity used daily?

DDR

35

What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?

Demand level.

36

What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock
replenishment requisitions?

O&ST.

37

What term represents that number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair
cycle?

RCQ

38

What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor
interruptions of normal replenishment?

SLQ

39

What type of minimum ASL has a reorder point one-third the ASL quantity?

Type level A.

40

Which minimum ASLs are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the
total minimum level?

Type levels A and B.

41

What type of ASL restricts stockage?

Maximum ASL.

42

What type of ASL should you establish for seasonal items?

Maximum, type level D.

43

What type of ASL maintains an item’s stockage position at a constant level?

Adjusted fixed level.

44

Which form is used to request an ASL? How many copies are needed?

AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies

45

What type detail is used to control and manage ASLs?

L type ASL details.

46

How often are ASLs validated?

At least every two years

47

What product is used to review and validate ASLs?

Program R35.

48

What action occurs during the review of an ASL?

The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original
justification

49

What action occurs during the validation of ASLs?

Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for
each level is still valid.

50

How often are RBLs updated?

Quarterly.

51

By what DIC are RBLs received at each base?

DIC XCA

52

What are two instances when an RBL may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?

1) When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level.
(2) When the base’s minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system.

53

On 22 June 12, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these
before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the RDO is input?

An RDO denial (DIC B7*) is produced.

54

What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?

Nondirected redistribution

55

What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?

Nondirected, special

56

What RICs are used on lateral support shipments?

JLS or D**.

57

What is a transfer?

It is the movement of materiel to the DLADS.

58

What are SEX codes used for?

To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping
action has been taken.

59

What are the two main types of requisitions?

Automatic and special

60

What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?

MILSTRIPs.

61

What is the purpose of MILSTRIP?

Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the SOS.

62

What agencies are required to use MILSTRIP procedures?

All branches of the Service.

63

Normally, in what format are requisitions submitted to the SOS?

DIC AO*.

64

When does the materiel management system identify and requisition stock replenishment
requirements?

When items have an asset position down to or below its ROL.

65

What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?

Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions

66

What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

9000–9899.

67

What is the purpose of UMMIPS?

Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.

68

What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS?

FAD and UND.

69

In what format is requisition status received?

Supply or shipment (AE*/AS* or AU*).

70

What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?

You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations
and billings.

71

What are the different types of MILSTRIP status?

Positive supply status, cancellations, in transit/shipped, and exception/other

72

What status type has the worst effect on an account?

Cancellation

73

What REX code is used to indicate a requisition was cancelled from the SOS?

REX 1.

74

What status types are generated by program control at base level?

Cancellation requests and follow-up.

75

When is follow-up action initiated?

When supply status information is overdue or the EDD has passed.

76

When 100-percent status is required for a priority 03 requisition, when is an in-line follow-up
performed?

Four days after the requisition date

77

Within what period must ARC images be worked before another is output?

Five days.

78

What are supply difficulties?

Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that cannot be corrected locally and can ultimately affect
the operational capability of the base or unit involved.

79

How are supply difficulties reported?

AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail

80

Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?

Seven

81

How often is a due-out review conducted?

On a daily basis for UND A and on a weekly basis for UND A and B due-outs.

82

Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review?

R01.

83

How often are priority due-outs validated?

Monthly.

84

What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?

Automatically and forced.

85

What three TRICs may be used to force release a due-out?

DOR, REC, TIN

86

What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out?

TEX 3.

87

What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation?

DOC.

88

What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input?

That stock control has reviewed the cancellation input

89

What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?

Equipment Management

90

What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?

Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status

91

What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?

ZC, ZD.

92

For BNR transactions, LP items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor
bill is received and processed?

7 days

93

What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base?

Shipped not credited (SNC) details

94

Which data screen displays information for Identification Data, MOE Rule Coded Data, Ref/PN
Data, Management Data, Phrase Data, Freight Data, and Decoded Characteristics Data?

Output Selection Views

95

What system is an official Air Force source for obtaining supply and cataloging management
data?

The D043A system

96

What is the purpose of the D043A system?

To provide Air Force personnel with online cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management
data for Air Force-managed or user items

97

How are IPBs normally identified and published?

Dash four (–4) series of TOs

98

IPBs are normally broken down into what three sections?

Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index

99

How are next higher assemblies determined in the TO system?

The indent dot system

100

What is the source code for part number 53–39303–99?

P2.

101

What is the NHA for figure and index number 2–9–12?

Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.

102

What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53–39307–3?

1–35–40

103

What code provides maintenance activities with repair-level responsibilities, support methods,
and disposition instructions?

SMR code

104

What TO reference lists SMR codes and provides a complete explanation of each?

TO 00–25–195

105

What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?

TRIC FIL.

106

What records are established by processing a FIL input?

Item record and repair cycle record

107

What does the first position of an ERRCD signify?

The expendability of an item of supply

108

How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?

Until they are issued for use.

109

What does the second position of an ERRCD signify?

It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair

110

Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?

TRIC FIL/1AA.

111

Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?

TRIC FIL/1AA.

112

Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?

Because the part number cannot be edited under program control

113

What is an NC number?

NC stock numbers are numbers assigned by an ALC IM pending assignment of an NSN

114

What does position 7 of an NC number indicate?

It identifies the ALC assigning the NC number

115

What input is used to change the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, RID, and budget code?

FIC

116

Stock number changes are made normally as a result of what conditions?

AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.

117

Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.

A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the materiel management system
database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is loaded in the materiel
management system database

118

What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and
the DEMIL code?

FNL.

119

The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?

32

120

What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?

FCU.

121

How are the two types of deletes processed?

Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing

122

What is an I&SG?

A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional
performance.

123

Information on I&SGs are provided by what system?

D043B.

124

Which subgroup within I&SG is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?

AA

125

How was the order of use system designed?

To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used

126

What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base-level I&SG?

24

127

What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular
uses or under certain conditions?

S.

128

What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete an I&SG?

FIS

129

Who must sign the justification letter to request a local I&SG relationship?

Operations or logistics commander (or the designated representative).

130

How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?

Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs