Volume 4B Flashcards
Occupational and Environmental Health Risk Assessment: Radiation (100 cards)
1
Q
What is another name for the electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom during the process of radioactive decay?
A
Coulomb (C).
2
Q
Which statement best describes an alpha particle?
A
Heavy and slow.
3
Q
Which particle is considered the most ionizing?
A
Alpha.
4
Q
In beta plus (β+) decay, the parent nucleus changes a
A
proton into a neutron and gives off a positively charged particle.
5
Q
What can be used to classify a neutron?
A
Speed.
6
Q
What is the process by which an alpha particle gains kinetic energy?
A
Bremsstrahlung.
7
Q
The linear energy transfer (LET) of a beta particle is lower than that of an alpha particle because of its
A
smaller mass and higher speed.
8
Q
In pair production, a photon disappears with an electron and positron appearing in its place, and the energy left over from the transformation is
A
shared by the particles.
9
Q
Since every isotope decays at a specific rate, the rate of decay (λ) is proportional to the
A
stability of the nucleus.
10
Q
Which type of ionizing radiation has been found more effective in producing cataracts?
A
Neutrons.
11
Q
When comparing the relative toxicity of various radiations, what is the result of a higher rate of linear energy transfer (LET)?
A
More effective in producing biological damage.
12
Q
Cells that form which type of tissues are most easily damaged by ionizing radiation?
A
Reproductive.
13
Q
What types of cells from forming tissue are most easily damaged by ionizing radiation?
A
Blood.
14
Q
Most biological effects of ionizing radiation that can be directly observed are of which type?
A
Deterministic.
15
Q
Regarding acute radiation syndrome (ARS), what is the correct order of the body areas damaged as the dose increases?
A
Hematopoietic, gastrointestinal (GI), pulmonary, and central nervous system.
16
Q
Which component of an X-ray tube is negatively charged?
A
Cathode.
17
Q
What term is used to identify the area of the target bombarded by electrons at any moment in time in an X-ray machine?
A
Focal spot.
18
Q
What role does the collimator play in X-ray production?
A
Reduces scatter radiation.
19
Q
Within the radioisotope permit program, which of the following is not a type of material that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulates?
A
Radiological.
.
.
type of material that the NRC regulates
* Source.
* Byproduct.
* Special nuclear.
20
Q
Who has the broad responsibility of ensuring the receipt, possession, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials (RAM) within the Air Force?
A
Air Force Radioisotope Committee (RIC).
21
Q
Under which radiation permit would an X-ray fluorescence device be covered?
A
Template.
22
Q
A research and development (R&D) permit is an example of which type of radiation permit?
A
Non-template.
23
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring the parameters described within each radiation permit are followed?
A
Radiation safety officer (RSO).
24
Q
Dosimeters are required to be worn by any workers occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation, especially those who are likely to exceed an external dose of 1 millisievert (mSv), equal to 100 millirem (mrem), or
A
2 percent of the ALI.
25
Who is typically given the responsibility of managing the United States Air Force (USAF) Personnel Dosimetry Program?
Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) journeyman.
26
Who is responsible for enrolling personnel into the dosimetry program and determining the type of external monitoring required?
Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).
27
Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when investigating an abnormal exposure to determine its cause?
Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).
28
The manager of the dosimetry program interacts with which of the following to request priority processing for dosimeters issued to pregnant workers or used in planning special exposures?
USAF Radiation Dosimetry Laboratory (RDL).
29
Which dosimeter should be used to evaluate exposures to the head and lens of the eye?
Collar.
30
Which type of dosimeter should be issued to individuals who perform fluoroscopic examinations or operate portable medical X-ray equipment?
Collar.
31
How often do electronic personal dosimeters (EPD) used for first responder or readiness purposes require calibration?
Annually.
32
Emergency response personnel should place the electronic portable dosimeter (EPD) Mk2 on their
front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment (PPE).
33
What must you do to enroll an individual in the dosimetry program before briefing the dosimeter wearer, completing the Radiation Dosimetry Laboratory (RDL) Listing 1523, and issuing the dosimeter?
Establish the exposure history.
34
Which form or listing is used to add an individual to the base radiation dosimetry program?
Radiation Dosimetry Laboratory (RDL) Listing 1523.
35
To which agency are females responsible to report upon confirmation of pregnancy?
Public health (PH).
36
What is the first step you must do to disenroll an individual from the dosimetry program?
Determine if the individual wore the dosimeter during the monitoring period.
37
Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and disassembled, the two things that must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters include the thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) number and the
Radiation Dosimetry Laboratory (RDL) Listing 1523.
38
On which of the following forms/listings is the annual report of individual occupational exposure to ionizing radiation listed?
United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine (USAFSAM) Form 1527–1, Annual Report of Individual Occupational Exposure to Ionizing Radiation.
39
Who sets the value for the investigation action level as part of the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) program?
Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).
40
What should the installation radiation safety officer (IRSO) develop for each dose equivalent category of the Radiation Dosimetry Laboratory (RDL) Listing 1499?
Investigation action levels.
41
A common problem you will likely encounter when employing a scintillation instrument that uses a thin window is the
susceptibility to light leaks caused by small holes in the window.
42
When using the ADM-300 XP–100, hold the probe
vertical to the surface and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.
43
Which radiation measuring device is an example of a gamma-spectrometer?
SAM 940.
44
What type of testing do you conduct on unsealed radiation sources?
Swipe.
45
The most effective means of taking a swipe sample is to
Add a few drops of deionized water (DI) to dampen it, increasing its efficiency up to 90%
46
When swipe testing a radiological source, what is the first step after you have prepared and checked the field blank (field paper)?
In a slow back and forth “S” motion applying moderate pressure, swipe an area of 100 square centimeters (cm2).
47
What is the total surface area covered, in square centimeters (cm2), during a swipe sample of a sealed radiological source?
100 cm2.
48
What type of survey instrument do you use to monitor external radiation levels for packages that contain radioactive material (RAM)?
Portable ion chamber.
49
When monitoring a radioactive material (RAM) shipment for external levels of radiation, at what distance from the surface of the package are readings taken?
10 cm.
50
There is greater concern for public exposure to radiation from medical X-ray operations as compared to industrial X-ray operations because
of the proximity of patients and visitors in the medical X-ray environment.
51
The bioenvironmental engineering flight’s (BE) role in the ionizing radiation quality assurance program is to
perform scatter surveys on medical X-ray units to ensure all personnel are not exposed to unnecessary radiation.
52
The easiest and most accurate method you can use to measure ionizing radiation produced by medical X-ray machines is using
thermoluminscent dosimeters (TLD).
53
When conducting medical X-ray machine scatter radiation surveys, you recreate the scatter effect of the radiation by
placing a one gallon-plastic container filled with water in line with the beam.
54
Once your radiation storage and use area measurements have been collected in any hour, what criteria in millirem (mrem) are they compared to?
2 mrem.
55
What should be your initial action if you suspect that a dosimeter received an abnormal exposure?
Send the suspect dosimeter for processing.
56
When investigating an abnormal exposure to ionizing radiation, which action takes place during the interview the worker step?
Exploring potential causes for the exposure.
57
Within how many days after being notified of a potential overexposure to ionizing radiation must a written report be submitted to the Radioanalytical Laboratory?
7 calendar days.
58
The scenario that would be a proper time to use the stay time calculation is determining the
amount of time an Airman can work in a BROKEN ARROW site.
59
What approach does the Air Force (AF) use to manage and control ionizing radiation exposures to the workforce and to the general public by employing methods to keep exposure to a minimum?
As low as reasonably achievable.
60
The inverse square law regarding a person’s exposure to radiation has such an effect that moving away
double the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 4.
61
Coveralls and gloves will prevent what type of radiation from potentially harming a person’s skin?
Alpha and beta.
62
The primary source for depleted uranium intake by the general public is
food and drinking water.
63
As it decays, depleted uranium particles emit which type(s) of radiation?
Alpha, beta, and gamma.
64
As it decays, radon gas emits which type(s) of radiation?
Alpha, beta and gamma.
65
The only documented health effect from exposure to the airborne radon and its decay products are an increased risk of
lung cancer.
66
What section recycles and disposes of radioactive waste and mixed waste generated by Air Force (AF) operations?
Air Force Radioactive Recycle and Disposal (AFRRAD) office.
67
Who on your base coordinates recycling and disposal requests for radioactive waste?
Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).
68
Which process does nuclear fission involve?
Splitting the nucleus of an atom into smaller fragments.
69
In a hydrogen bomb, two isotopes of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are fused to form a
nucleus of helium and a neutron.
70
What is radioactive fallout?
Clouds of fine radioactive dust particles and debris.
71
Within figure 4–7 of the text, what percentage accounts for blast effects in the overall effects of a surface nuclear detonation?
50
72
What percentage of the energy from a nuclear explosion is made up of an intense burst of thermal radiation?
35
73
The major incendiary effect of nuclear explosions is caused by the
blast wave.
74
Approximately what percentage of total radioactivity does fallout contain?
60
75
An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) from a high altitude burst
is a single pulse of energy that disappears in a fraction of a second.
76
Which type of nuclear weapon is fission-based and has a plutonium (Pu) core?
Implosion-type nuclear bomb.
77
What is the difference between a neutron bomb and a standard nuclear weapon?
The primary lethal effects come from the radiation damage caused by the neutrons a neutron bomb emits.
78
What is a radiological exposure device (RED)?
A device intended to expose people to significant doses of ionizing radiation (rad) without their knowledge.
79
Which is not generally considered a secondary hazard of nuclear weapons?
Laser radiation.
secondary hazard of nuclear weapons
* Beryllium.
* Hydrazine.
* Composite materials.
80
During a non-radiological (secondary) hazard to nuclear weapons,
the shock, heat and friction created can cause other high explosive material to detonate.
81
Which of the following would be categorized as a Bent Spear?
A non-nuclear detonation or burning of a nuclear weapon or radiological nuclear weapon component.
82
The accidental or unauthorized launching by United States (US) forces of a nuclear-capable weapon system is referred to with the flagword
Broken Arrow.
83
During a military response to a radiological accident, who is the primary radiological health and safety advisor to the military on-scene commander (OSC)?
Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).
84
Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) personnel have been given the task of monitoring the contamination levels on the ground in and around a Broken Arrow. Preliminary results from ambient air monitoring indicate the airborne concentration of Alpha activity is 525 disintegrations per minute per centimeters cubed (dpm/m3) above background. As an entry team leader, what respiratory protection level should be recommended?
Full-face high-efficiency particulate air, absorbing, or arrestance (HEPA) respirator.
85
What types of clothing provide some protection from contamination and can be worn in lieu of special anticontamination clothing during an emergency?
Civilian work clothes or military fatigues.
86
The primary treatment for internal contamination is to increase the rate of elimination of the radioactive isotope. How can this be done?
Mechanical means.
87
Medical countermeasures that are approved to treat known or suspected internal contamination with plutonium (Pu), americium or curium are known as:
Chelating agents.
88
When performing external decontamination of patients at the site, what should be done to ensure contamination is not spread?
Remove all contaminated clothing.
89
After determining that skin contamination has occurred in a radiological incident, where should medical personnel concentrate their attention to thoroughly remove contamination?
Wounds.
90
To reduce the amount of radiological contamination to instruments, bioenvironmental engineering (BE) personnel can place plastic bags over radioactivity detection identification and computation (RADIAC) meters, except for what types of survey instrument probes?
Alpha.
91
When recommending contamination control procedures for deceased personnel, make sure that decontamination procedures and remains are handled
with dignity.
92
When surveying a fatality using radiological decontamination techniques, if it is observed that the contamination cannot be removed from the body, what should be the next course of action?
Isolate or shield the body.
93
What agency has established guidance on acceptable levels of radioactive contamination in food?
Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
94
What should you do if you need to conduct water sampling when responding to a short duration emergency operation?
Consult the Air Force Radiation Assessment Team (AFRAT).
95
What step in the sampling strategy process is used to comply with regulatory requirements or to identify an associated risk to a satisfactory level?
Type of analysis.
96
What plotting program is widely used for initial emergency assessment or safety- analysis planning?
Hotspot.
97
A long-term increase in the likelihood of radiation-related diseases is caused by the inhalation of what type of emitters?
Alpha.
98
Radiation exposure status (RES) is a system for categorizing a unit’s radiation exposure level and provides guidance for protection and surveillance actions. If a person is placed in RES category R1C, what actions or tasks can they accomplish?
Priority tasks only.
99
When documenting hazards encountered, protective measures taken, doses received and decontamination performed for an occupational and environmental health site assessment (OEHSA), what Air Force (AF) guidance should be referenced?
AFI 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.
100
What Air Force guidance document requires data to be maintained in the approved bioenvironmental engineering (BE) management information system Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System-Incident Reporting (DOEHRS– IR) for radiation?
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.
