Volume 5

Question 1

What type of aquifer would cause water to be pushed in a well above the land surface?

Answer 1

Artesian

Question 2

Groundwater is stored in

Answer 2

unsaturated and saturated zones.

Question 3

Which constituent is not commonly found in groundwater?

Answer 3

Nitrate.

Question 4

What dissolved gas needs to be at an adequate level to prevent drinking water from tasting flat?

Answer 4

Oxygen.

Question 5

Which Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) drinking water standard is a guideline that applies to the cosmetic effects of drinking water?

Answer 5

Secondary.

Question 6

What law passed by congress established a federal program to monitor and increase the safety of all publically and commercially supplied drinking water?

Answer 6

Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA).

Question 7

Which installation must comply with the Department of Defense (DOD) Final Governing Standards (FGS) or Environmental Governing Standards (EGS)?

Answer 7

Royal Air Force (RAF) Feltwell, United Kingdom.

Question 8

What program is designed to ensure the protection of groundwater supplied by public water systems by protecting the area around the well head from all types of contamination?

Answer 8

Well Head Protection Program (WHPP).

Question 9

What is the minimum average number of individuals served daily and the number of days per year required for a system to be classified as a public water system?

Answer 9

25 individuals for 60 or more days per year.

Question 10

Which is the common type of water treatment used at Air Force (AF) installations?

Answer 10

Disinfection.

Question 11

Which disinfection method provides a disinfectant residual?

Answer 11

Free chlorine.

Question 12

After a water main is installed and at the end of a 24-hr holding period filled with chlorinated potable water, the free chlorine residual must not be less than

Answer 12

25 mg/L.

Question 13

During a water main break repair, which water pressure will not require the water main to be disinfected and tested for coliform before being place back into service?

Answer 13

25 psi.

Question 14

What is the most practical means of removing contamination introduced during water main repairs?

Answer 14

Flushing.

Question 15

What method of chlorination may be used if the pipes and components are kept clean and dry during the construction?

Answer 15

Tablet.

Question 16

What describes the backward flow of water in the distribution system due to decreased pressure (i.e., line break) in the potable distribution system?

Answer 16

Backsiphonage.

Question 17

How often is the Water System Backflow Prevention/Cross-Connection Survey done on all facilities?

Answer 17

Every five years.

Question 18

What hazard classification for a cross-connection is also defined as contamination?

Answer 18

High.

Question 19

Which is not a critical element examined and evaluated during a sanitary survey?

Answer 19

Security.

Question 20

What results does a sanitary survey provide the installation?

Answer 20

Current and potential threats to water quality and system reliability.

Question 21

What sanitary survey element are you addressing when you identify a discrepancy that tank vents and overflows are not screened or protected?

Answer 21

Finished water storage.

Question 22

Which military field water standard is designed to prevent acute illness?

Answer 22

Short-term potability (STP) standards.

Question 23

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–246, Food and Water Protection Program, states Air Force (AF) water supplies are

Answer 23

credible targets.

Question 24

Water vulnerability assessments (WVA) should be done or updated at deployed locations

Answer 24

during each rotation.

Question 25

Which interview questionnaire is designed to be the initial checklist used when conducting the joint interview of the Air Force (AF) system owner/operator and stakeholders?

Answer 25

Base Potable Water System Overview.

Question 26

How long does the base have to deliver a public notice of a Tier I violation?

Answer 26

24 hours.

Question 27

How long does a water supplier have to provide notice of a Tier 2 violation to its customers?

Answer 27

30 days

Question 28

Which should not be included in the consumer confidence report?

Answer 28

The formulas used to reach the assessment results on local contamination.

Question 29

How many days before opening is the pre-season inspection conducted at a swimming pool?

Answer 29

30

Question 30

Which is one of the organizations that perform surveys of natural bathing areas?

Answer 30

Services (SVS).

Question 31

The swimming pool manager or lifeguard measures potential for hydrogen (pH) at least once every

Answer 31

2 hours

Question 32

The pressure of moving air is always measured in the direction of airflow. What kind of pressure is this?

Answer 32

Always positive.

Question 33

Less resistance and better contaminant capture in a ventilation system happens by using

Answer 33

flange or tapered hood.

Question 34

Where should you expect the static pressure (SP) to become more negative in a ventilation system?

Answer 34

At the inlet to the fan.

Question 35

Which type of velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood?

Answer 35

Capture.

Question 36

What are two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate the airflow volume (Q)?

Answer 36

Area and velocity.

Question 37

The cubic feet per minute (cfm) through a cross-sectional area of a ventilation booth is the same as

Answer 37

velocity.

Question 38

In dilution ventilation, a slight negative pressure is desirable when

Answer 38

an adjoining room is normally occupied.

Question 39

What circumstance would result in a high K factor?

Answer 39

Higher contaminant toxicities.

Question 40

Other than good contaminant control, what is the biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation?

Answer 40

Lower operating costs.

Question 41

The purpose of using splitter vanes, multiple takeoffs, or baffles inside of a local exhaust hood is to provide

Answer 41

uniform air distribution across the hood face.

Question 42

What determines the capture velocity that must be used for a properly designed canopy hood?

Answer 42

Number of open sides.

Question 43

In a routine survey, ventilation system data collected during the routine assessment should be compared to

Answer 43

data collected during the baseline survey.

Question 44

What instrument is used to take face velocity measurements and actually converts velocity pressure (VP) to velocity readings?

Answer 44

Swinging vane anemometer.

Question 45

What important procedure must you follow to obtain accurate readings with a velometer?

Answer 45

Hold the probe parallel to the airflow.

Question 46

What may be indicated by a very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system?

Answer 46

Inadequate makeup air.

Question 47

What is the purpose of the eight tiny holes on the outside of a pitot tube?

Answer 47

Sense static pressure (SP).

Question 48

Velocity pressure (VP) when measured across the duct is

Answer 48

weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center.

Question 49

The range of acceptable values for the airflow volume (Q) on routine tests is within what percentage of the baseline value?

Answer 49

10

Question 50

What is the first step you take when conducting a static pressure (SP) check on your routine ventilation test?

Answer 50

Find the first measurement point.

Question 51

When conducting an indoor air quality (IAQ) investigation, what would be considered an ideal range for carbon dioxide (CO2) within a building?

Answer 51

1000 ppm or less.

Question 52

During your indoor air quality (IAQ) investigation, you document several drip pans with standing water. Which recommendation would be most desirable?

Answer 52

Eliminate source of water.

Question 53

Which agency serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection (RP) program?

Answer 53

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

Question 54

Who will provide resolution when there are inconsistencies for respiratory protection (RP) between technical orders (TO) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards?

Answer 54

Respiratory protection administrator.

Question 55

Who is responsible for ensuring that approved respirators are used correctly and are properly maintained?

Answer 55

Workplace supervisor.

Question 56

What series of filter cannot be used if aerosolized oil particles are present in the work environment?

Answer 56

N

Question 57

What respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer?

Answer 57

Air-line.

Question 58

At least how often are respirators used for emergency use only required to be inspected?

Answer 58

Monthly.

Question 59

Why is it important to rinse a respirator in clean water after it has been immersed in a disinfecting solution?

Answer 59

Because traces of the disinfectant left on the mask can cause skin irritation.

Question 60

Proper respirator selection is not based on which these criteria?

Answer 60

Worker’s respirator brand preference.

Question 61

Which respirator selection factors would be considered during the planning of emergency situations in which workers must escape?

Answer 61

Location of hazardous area with respect to area with respirable air.

Question 62

What is the highest contaminant concentration for which a respirator adequately protects the wearer?

Answer 62

Maximum use concentration (MUC).

Question 63

A fit factor can be calculated for what type of fit-test?

Answer 63

Quantitative.

Question 64

What method of fit-testing must be used when specified by an Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) substance-specific standard?

Answer 64

Quantitative.

Question 65

What method of fit-testing relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air?

Answer 65

Qualitative.

Question 66

Workers are required to be trained and fit-tested initially and every

Answer 66

12 months.

Question 67

Supervisor training should be repeated when there is a

Answer 67

permanent change of station (PCS).

Question 68

Personnel who issue respirators are briefed how often and by whom concerning the issue of respirator parts?

Answer 68

Annually; by supervisor.

Question 69

To whom does bioenvironmental engineering (BE) report the findings of a respiratory program review?

Answer 69

Aeromedical Council and the Combined Occupational Safety and Health Council.

Question 70

Which organization is responsible for the overall management of the Confined Space Program?

Answer 70

Ground safety.

Question 71

Before a worker can perform verification testing of a confined space, they must be

Answer 71

be trained and certified on the specific testing equipment and qualified to interpret the results.

Question 72

Which atmospheric characteristics classify a confined space as permit-required?

Answer 72

Contains a material that has the potential for a hazardous atmosphere to develop.

Question 73

Which gas should be used to ventilate a confined space?

Answer 73

Normal air.

Question 74

If workers or other people could inadvertently enter a permit-required confined space, what action must be taken?

Answer 74

Post a danger sign at the entrance of the space.

Question 75

Entry permits must be approved by the installation

Answer 75

ground safety office, BE, and fire department personnel.

Question 76

Which situation is most likely to require immediate communication?

Answer 76

You have identified conditions that are immediately hazardous to life or health.

Question 77

All of these are goals of risk communication except for

Answer 77

frightening workers into personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing compliance. . . **Goals of risk communication** - informing and improving decision making. - raising awareness of potential hazards. - motivating action.

Question 78

In developing your message and determining how to deliver it, what question should you ask about the audience?

Answer 78

All of the above. . . * What is their experience with risk and scientific understanding? * What questions can you anticipate from them? * What is their reading level?

Question 79

AFI 90–821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, describes the requirements of which federal regulation?

Answer 79

Title 29 CFR 1910.1200.

Question 80

To which of the following items do AFI 90–821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, requirements not apply?

Answer 80

All of the above. . . - Hazardous wastes regulated under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). - Tobacco or tobacco products. - Biological hazards.

Question 81

Select the best option for items to which hazard communication (HAZCOM) labeling requirements do apply.

Answer 81

Any Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) expanded standard.

Question 82

Which individual/office has the primary responsibility of documenting worker hazard communication (HAZCOM) training completion?

Answer 82

Work area/shop supervisor.

Question 83

Upon your arrival, the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program manager for the shop provides you with the chemical inventory. Which chemicals should be listed on this inventory?

Answer 83

Every chemical used in the shop.

Question 84

Written notification of exposures exceeding the action level or occupational exposure limit (OEL) must be provided to the worker by bioenvironmental engineering (BE) within how many days of receiving analytical data?

Answer 84

15

Question 85

How do supervisors obtain authorization for first time use of hazardous material (HAZMAT) in their area?

Answer 85

Submit Air Force (AF) Form 3952.

Question 86

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–2501, Emergency Management Program, describes four types of incidents that affect Air Force (AF) operations. An enemy missile with a chemical warfare agent warhead would be an example of what type of incident?

Answer 86

CBRN attack.

Question 87

The role of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) in incident response is to

Answer 87

establish a standardized incident management structure used by responders.

Question 88

What working group focuses primarily on analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander?

Answer 88

Installation threat working group (TWG).

Question 89

During response operations, if you are donning protective equipment to enter a site to perform sampling, to what section of the response structure are you assigned?

Answer 89

Operations.

Question 90

What did Congress enact in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storing and handling of toxic chemicals?

Answer 90

Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA).

Question 91

Which is a key provision of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)?

Answer 91

All of the above are key provisions of EPCRA. ------------------------------------------ - Emergency planning. - Toxic release inventory. - Emergency release notification.

Question 92

Which agency acts as the single federal point of contact for all pollution incident reporting?

Answer 92

National Response Center (NRC).

Question 93

All these characteristics make toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) attractive improvised weapons except

Answer 93

inability to safeguard against.

Question 94

The main purpose of a toxic industrial chemical/toxic industrial materials (TIC/TIM) vulnerability assessment (VA) is it

Answer 94

provides an indication of the types of incidents that could occur at your installation.

Question 95

If a toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) vulnerability assessment (VA) final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific United States (US) military site, it must receive what classification?

Answer 95

CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET.

Question 96

When identifying toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) in the vicinity of an installation, you should collect data on and evaluate facilities within how many miles of the installation?

Answer 96

20

Question 97

What are the two primary types of shelters portrayed in the Air Force Emergency Management Program?

Answer 97

Deliberately planned and shelter-in-place.

Question 98

Under shelter operations, who spearheads identifying and evaluating installation facilities that can be used as shelters?

Answer 98

Base civil engineer (CE).

Question 99

Which of the source materials provides short-term military exposure guidelines (MEG) for HRA in military unique situations?

Answer 99

USAPHC Technical Guide 230, Chemical Exposure Guidelines for Deployed Military Personnel.

Question 100

Which of the source materials are useful for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) incidents?

Answer 100

Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool (CHEMRAT).