Week 1 Flashcards
(489 cards)
1
Q
What is a nucleoside?
A
A nucleotide structure without the phosphate group
2
Q
The nitrogenous base is how nucleotides are identified. Compare the structure of purines: Adenine & Guanine
A
Adenine has an -NH2 group at position 6
Guanine has a =O at position 6
3
Q
Nitrogenous bases are how nucleotides are identified. Compare the structure of Thymine, Cytosine, and Uracil
A
Thymine: Has a =O at position #4 & methyl (-CH3) At position #5
Cytosine: Has -NH2 group at position #4
Uracil: Has =O at position #4
4
Q
Which nucleotide n bases have 2 rings?
A
Purines: Adenine and Guanine
5
Q
Which Nucleotide N bases have 1 ring structure?
A
Pyrimidines: Uracil, Cytosine, Thymine
6
Q
What is the basic rule for numbering carbons on the N bases of nucelotides?
A
Start number so the Nitrogens have the lowest number & So the functional groups have the lowest number combination
7
Q
Which nitrogenous base has methylation?
A
Thymine
8
Q
What position do Purine Nitrogenous bases attach to ribose?
A
Position # 9 of the 5 ring structure of 2nd ring
9
Q
What position do Pyrimidine nitrogenous bases attach to ribose?
A
Position #1
10
Q
Pyrimidines are single ________ ring structure with -N at position _____ & _______
A
- 6 ring structure
- N at position 1 & 3
- Sometimes position 4
11
Q
Purines have 2 rings, 1st consisting of ____ ring structure and 2nd consisting of ____ ring structure. Where are the -N groups located?
A
6 ring structure & 5 ring structure
-N groups on position # 1,3,7,9
12
Q
Pyrimidines are single ________ ring structure with exocyclic carbonyl groups at position _____ & _______
A
6 ring structure
Either =O or -NH2 at position 2 & 4
13
Q
What does Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) do?
A
ADA is an enzyme which converts Adenosine to Inosine by removing the -NH2 group from position #6 and replacing with =O group
- If this does not occur there is accumulation of molecules that are toxic to Lymphocytes which impairs immune function
14
Q
Which carbon is deoxygenated in deoxyribose of DNA?
A
2’ Carbon does not have an -OH gorup
15
Q
T/F: DNA and RNA both contain purine bases Adenine and guanine and Pyrimidine groups Cytosine & Thymine with Uracil only in RNA
A
False, RNA & DNA both contain purine groups
DNA & RNA both have Cytosine
DNA: Thymine ONLY
RNA: Uracil only
16
Q
T/F: RNA is present in the cytoplasm, nucleus and mitochondria while DNA is found in Nucleus only
A
False, RNA is cytoplasm and nucleus
DNA is Nucleus or mitochondria
17
Q
Describe the composition of nucleosides
A
Base + Pentose sugar
18
Q
Name the 4 Nucleosides of RNA
A
Base + Oxygenated pentose sugar
Adenosine, Guanosine, Cytidine, Uridine
19
Q
Name the 4 types of Nucleosides of DNA
A
Nitrogenous Base + Deoxygenated pentose sugar
Deoxyadenosine
Deoxyguanosine
Deoxycytidine
Deoxythymidine
20
Q
What composition makes DNA & RNA have a negative charge overall?
A
Phosphate groups
21
Q
How does a nucleoside become a nucleotide?
A
Add a phosphate group, up to 3 phosphates
22
Q
How are nucleotides bound to each other?
A
Via phosphodiester bonds between a 3’ -OH group of 2-Deoxyribose of one nucleotide to the 5’ -OH group of 2 deoxyribose of the next through a phosphate group
23
Q
Anti-HIV drug AZT uses what mechanism in a phosphodiester bond to disrupt DNA?
A
Ensures there is a lack of 3’ -OH group to disrupt phosphodiester bond from forming
24
Q
What is the direction of DNA sequence?
A
5’ → 3’
25
What are the bonds between base pairs in DNA?
Hydrogen bonds
26
In double helix DNA, _______________ deoxyribose-phosphate backbone of each chain is located:
While the __________________ bases are located:
Hydrophilic back bone is located on the outside of the molecule
Hydrophobic bases on inside
27
In DNA, C & G pair together and A & T pair together. Which pair has a stronger bond and why?
C & G have a stronger bond because they form 3 hydrogen bonds compared to the 2 between A & T
28
Eukaryotic DNA should follow Chargaff's rule. If a DNA strand doesn't follow this rule what might you be able to deduce?
That the DNA is single stranded and part of a virus
- Viruses can also have double stranded RNA
29
The H-bonds between complementary bases and their hydrophobic stacking contributes to weak forces which stabilize DNA structure. What opposes these stabilizing interactions?
Electrostatic repulsion of negatively charged sugar-phosphate backbone
30
What does the melting Temperature (Tm) tell us about DNA?
The higher the melting point, the stronger the H-bonds between complimentary base pairs.
Possibly more C & G pairs OR increased size/length of DNA
31
Define Tm AKA melting temperature
The temperature at which the DNA molecule is half denatured. Represents the point at which enough energy is present to break half the H-bonds holding the two strands together
32
There are three types of chemical denaturants. Describe the use of pH to denature DNA
If increase pH, H bonds will be removed between base pairs
33
What might 8 M of urea or 70% Formamide do to DNA?
They are competitive denaturants
- H-bond interactions is favored between denaturants and the N-bases rather than between the complementary bases
34
What do DMSO do to DNA?
DMSO is AKA Dimethyl sulfoxide
Denature DNA
35
The least compacted DNA is in the form of a ________________________ with about 10 nm length
Nucleosome
36
Describe the composition of a nucleosome
DNA wrapped 2 times around a nucleosome core
37
Define: Chromatin
a mixture of DNA and proteins that form the chromosomes
38
Describe the composition of a nucleosome core
Qt 2 each of
H2A
H2B
H3
H4
39
Nucleosome core is another name for ______________________. They are comprised of 5 classes H1, H2A, H2B, H4, H3 that are rich in __________ & _______________ which are positively charged.
Histones
Arginine & Lysine
40
What neutralizes the negatively charged DNA when wrapped around a histone?
DNA is -
Histones are + due to being right in Arg and Lys
41
Describe chromatin fiber AKA polynucleosome which is the 2nd least compacted DNA form
Groups of nucleosomes linked together by H1 Histone, like beads on a string
About 6 per 30 nm
42
When chromatin is in its euchromatin form what can you deduce about the action going on? How?
The cell is undergoing active transcription because this requires access to the DNA and needs to be in relaxed state
43
Which is more tightly packed Heterochromatin or Euchromatin
Heterochromatin
44
What is the most abundant form of RNA found in humans?
Non-coding RNA
45
Where would one find a "poly-A tail"
On mRNA in eukaryotes
46
Where would on find a "5' cap" in Eukaryotes?
On the 5' end of mRNA
47
Name 3 components of mRNA of eukaryotes
1.) Protein coding region
2.) 5' untranslated region
3.) 3' untranslated region
48
A protein has 100 amino acid residues. The corresponding mRNA contains 3 nucleotides of 5'-UTR and 7 nt of 3'-UTR. What is the expected size of the mRNA?
Each Amino acid residue as 3 corresponding nucleotides
(100 x 3) + 3 5' UTR + 7 3'-UTR = 300 + 3 + 7 = 310 Nucleotide
49
How does tRNA recognize mRNA?
By its anticodon
50
What gives tRNA its secondary and tertiary structure?
Interchain base paring +
51
What enzyme unwinds DNA at the replication fork?
Helicase
52
What does Helicase do?
Unwinds DNA at the replication fork
53
What does Primase do?
Adds RNA primers to each side of the strands so polymerase has something to recognize
54
What is this describing:
Adds RNA primers to each side of the strands so polymerase has something to recognize during DNA replication
Primase
55
56
In what cell phase does DNA replication occur?
S phase
57
The 5’ end of DNA consists of:
Phosphate group
58
Which end of DNA has a phosphate group?
5’ end is phosphate group
59
What is at the 3’ end of DNA strands?
-OH group
60
Which end is the -OH group on in DNA?
3’ end
61
DNA replication (building) occurs at the _____ end of DNA and is typically read in what direction by enzymes?
Built in 5’ to 3’ direction
Read in 3’ to 5’ direction
62
T/F: Helicase works in one direction only
False, Helicase opens DNA strands bidirectionally
63
DNA opening for replication tends to begin where?
In areas of DNA rich with A-T bonds because they are weaker compared to C-G bonds
64
After Helicase opens DNA, what enzyme starts next action?
RNA primase
65
Name the actions of 2 proteins that prevent super coiling and reannealing of DNA during replication
1.) Single strand binding protein: Prevents reannealing and protect DNA from proteases
2.) Topoisomerase II: prevents super coiling by cutting small bits of DNA ahead of helicas e
66
DNA gyrase is synonymous with
Topoisomerase II
67
List 3 activities of DNA polymerases
1.) 5’ - 3’ polymerase activity
2.) 5’ - 3’ exonuclease activity
3.) 3’ - 5’ exonuclease activity (proofreading)
68
Describe 5’ - 3’ polymerase activity. What enzyme completes this action?
- DNA Polymerase
- Building new DNA strand by reading in 3’ to 5’ direction and SYNTHESIZING in the 5’ to 3’ direction
69
Why does DNA Polymerase III **have** to start at the 3’ end of DNA when reading?
DNA Polymerase recognizes -OH group on 3’ end of DNA where the RNA primer is located
70
Why does DNA Polymerase III **have** to start at the 3’ end of DNA when reading?
DNA Polymerase recognizes -OH group on 3’ end of DNA where the RNA primer is located
71
In DNA replication, the leading strand is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction TOWARDS the replication fork. Describe how NT are added to the lagging strand
- DNA Polymerase III reads in 3’ to 5’ direction but there are fragments in its synthesis since it is synthesized AWAY from the replication fork
- Primase must come back and and add RNA primers for Polymerase III can add NT
72
Which DNA polymerase has 3’ to 5’ proofreading activity
ALL DNA Polymerases have 3’ to 5’ proofreading activity
73
Which DNA polymerase has 3’ to 5’ proof reading activity AKA 3’ to 5’ Exonuclease activity
All DNA Polymerases have 3’ to 5’ Exonuclease activity
74
There are 2 types of exonuclease activities of DNA polymerase. Which occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction and which occurs in 3’ to 5’ direction?
Proofreading is 3’ to 5’
Repair Exonuclease is 5’ to 3’
75
DNA Polymerase Exonuclease activity:
Proofreading is 3’ to 5’
Repair Exonuclease is 5’ to 3’
Therefore, proofreading synthesis occurs in 5’ to 3’ while Repair synthesis occurs in 5’ to 3’ direction. True or False?
False, all DNA Polymerases catalyze in 5’ to 3’ direction!
76
ALL DNA Polymerases catalyze chain growth in what direction?
5’ to 3’ GROWTH always!
77
After DNA polymerase III synthesizes new strands on the leading and lagging strand, what does DNA Polymerase I do?
Removes RNA primers off new strand in 5’ to 3’ direction
78
What does ligase do at the end of DNA elongation?
Ligates Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand where RNA primers were removed
79
DNA gyrase is also known as ___________. It is the pharmaceutical target for what kind of drugs?
Topoisomerase II
Quinolone Abxs
80
DNA polymerases α, δ, β, ε are all in:
Eukaryotic cells
81
In Eukaryotic DNA replication, what does DNA polymerase α do?
Has primase activity
- synthesizes RNA primers
82
__________ ____, in Eukaryotic cell DNA replication adds RNA primers for initiation of DNA strand synthesis.
Polymerase α
83
What does DNA polymerase Δ (δ) do in Eukaryotic cells?
Synthesizes the new DNA strand after DNA polymerase α adds RNA primers
84
DNA Polymerase ___ builds new strands of DNA in eukaryotic cells after RNA primers are added by DNA polymerase ___
δ , α
85
In Eukaryotic cells, what do DNA polymerase β & ε do?
- Participate in DNA Repair
- β can remove RNA primers
86
In eukaryotic cells, which DNA polymerase can substitute for DNA polymerase δ? What does DNA polymerase δ do?
- DNA polymerase ε can substitute - DNA Polymerase δ builds the new strands of DNA
87
In Eukaryotic cells, what does DNA polymerase γ do?
Replicates mitochondrial DNA
88
In Eukaryotic cells, DNA polymerase____ & ___ are believed to participate in DNA repair. While DNA polymerase _____ can remove primers
β & ε
β
89
When comparing Eukaryotes to Prokaryotes, DNA Polymerase α is synonymous with: _____________. While DNA polymerase δ is synonymous with ______________.
Primase, DNA Polymerase III
90
Proliferating cell nuclear antigen plays a role in DNA replication, how?
It is a clamping protein, so it holds DNA polymerase to the DNA template strands for DNA synthesis
91
In eukaryotic DNA replication, replication is performed at many different sites. How?
Origin recognition complex will identify replication origins
92
What do DNA clamping proteins do? Are they in Prokaryotes or Eukaryotes?
Hold polymerase to DNA template for rapid and processive DNA synthesis in both the leading and lagging strands. In EUKARYOTIC cells
93
In Eukaryotic cells, the LEADING strand faces problem with shortening during replication. Which end is at risk, why?
The beginning of the lagging strand is at risk since it begins with an available 5' only. Since Polymerase requires an 3’ -OH group to recognize. But the beginning of the newly synthesized leading strand starts with a 5’ which cannot be added onto
94
Name the superficial most muscles of the anterior forearm:
Pronator teres
Flexor Carpi Radialis
Palmaris Longus
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
95
What muscle lies beneath the 5 superficial most muscles of the anterior forearm but is still considered a superficial muscle?
Flexor Digitorum superficialis
96
Name the 3 deepest muscles of the anterior forearm?
What intermediate muscle sits above them?
Flexor digitorum Profundus
Flexor pollicis longus
Pronator quadratus
97
Where is the common flexor tendon located?
Medial epicondyle of Humerus
98
What are the two major functions of pronator teres?
Flex elbow
Pronation
99
Most of the superficial anterior muscles of the forearm are innervated by:
What is the exception?
1.) Median N
2.) Flexor Carpi Ulnaris inn. by Ulnar N
100
What nerve innervates flexor digitorum superficialis?
Median N
101
Where would on find "flexor carpi" muscles?
Superficial Anterior forearm
102
Where would one find flexor digitorum muscles?
intermediate and deep layer of muscles in anterior forearm
103
Most of the deep muscles of the forearm are innervated by:
What is the exception?
1.) Anterior interosseus N (distal branch of the median N)
2.) Flexor digitorum profundus is innervated by both the Ant. Interosseus N & Ulnar N
104
Where is the pronator quadratus found?
What direction do the fibers run?
Across the anterior wrist
Fibers run laterally from styloid process to styloid process
105
What is the action of the Flexor Carpi Radialis?
Flexion and wrist ABduction
106
This muscle on the superficial anterior forearm is responsible for flexion and wrist ABduction
Flexor Carpi Radialis
107
What is the action of Palmaris longus?
Flexes the wrist
108
What is the action of flexor carpi ulnaris?
Flexes wrist
ADducts wrist
109
This superficial anterior forearm muscle ADducts the wrist
Flexor carpi Ulnaris
110
What joints of the hand form kuckles?
Metacarpophalangeal joints
111
What is the joint between the carpals and metacarpal bones of the hand and wrist?
Carpometacarpal joint
112
Name joints of the hand and wrist from proximal to distal starting with
1.) Radiocarpal joint
1.) Radiocarpal joint
2.) Carpometacarpal joint
3.) Metacarpophalangeal joint (Knuckles)
4.) Proximal Interphalangeal joint
6.) Distal interphalangeal joint
113
1.) This superficial/intermediate muscle of the forearm flexes the PIP joints of 2-5.
2.) Is this muscle post. or ant?
1.) Flexor digitorum superficialis
2.) Anterior
114
1.) This muscle is part of the superficial flexor group of the forearm. Is this muscle posterior or anterior?
2.) This muscle may have small body but a long tendon going towards the palm. What is the name?
1.) Anterior since its a flexor
2.) Plamaris longus
115
1.) This muscle is part of the deep flexor muscles of the forearm. Is it posterior or anterior?
2.) This muscles flexes the distal interphalangeal joints of digits 2-5. It may have 2 muscle bodies but the tendons always go to the distal phalanges.
1.) Anterior
2.) Flexor digitorum profundus
116
1.) This muscle is part of the deep flexor muscles of the anterior forearm. It flexes the interphalangeal joint of the thumb. Name the muscle
Flexor pollicis longus
117
Name the action of flexor pollicis longus
Flexes the interphalangeal joints of the thumb
118
Name the action of flexor digitorum profundus
Flexes digits 2-5 at the distal phalangeal joint (DIP)
119
Name the action of flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexes digits 2-5 at the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP)
120
The median nerve in the arm is closest to which muscle? What artery is located near this nerve?
Median nerve next to brachial artery
121
Name the order from medial to lateral of the following nerves and arteries:
Ulnar artery
Median Nerve
Ulnar nerve
Medial most: Ulnar nerve
Ulnar artery
Median nerve
122
The Superficial Radial nerve is located beneath which forearm muscle?
Brachioradialis
123
The radial nerve splits in the forearm into:
Which branch(s) are posterior and which are anterior?
Superficial radial nerve-Anterior
Deep radial nerve-Posterior
124
The ulnar artery will be located closer to pronator teres or brachioradialis?
Pronator teres
125
The common interosseus artery is a branch of:
Ulnar artery
126
The anterior interosseus artery is a branch of:
Common interosseus artery which branched from ulnar artery which branched from brachial artery
127
What is the origin of supinator muscle?
Lateral epicondyle
128
What is the flexor retinaculum?
Fibrous connective tissue that is superficial to the carpal tunnel
129
What does Pollicis mean?
Thumb
130
What are the two tendons that comprise the anatomical snuffbox?
Extensor pollicis longus (more dorsal)
Extensor pollicis brevis (more lateral)
131
Where is the thenar region?
1st digit on anterior palm
132
What is the action of opponens pollicis?
Where is it found?
- Action: tip of thumb can touch digits 2-5
- Lateral most muscle of anterior thenar region, but underneath the flexor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis brevis
133
What is the action of Flexor Pollicis Brevis?
Where is it found?
- Flexion of thumb at Metacarpophalengeal joint
- Medial most muscle of the anterior thenar region
134
Where is the plamaris brevis muscle?
What is its action?
- Ulnar side of the anterior palm
- Tightens the palmar aponeurosis
135
What region is "hypothenar" referring to?
- 5th digit on anterior palm
136
List the three muscles of the thenar region
- Opponens pollicis
- Abductor pollicis brevis
- Flexor pollicis brevis
137
List the three muscles of the hypothenar region:
1. Abductor digiti minimi
2. Flexor digiti minimi brevis
3. Opponens digiti minimi
138
What is the action of abductor digiti minimi
Abduction of the 5th digit at metacarpophalengeal joint
139
What is the action of Flexor digiti minimi brevis
Flexor of 5th digit at the Metacarpophalengeal joint
140
What is the action of opponens digiti minimi?
Opposition of 5th digit
141
Is the head of the ulna at the distal or proximal end of the forearm?
Distal end
142
Is the head of the radius at the distal or proximal end of the forearm?
Proximal end
143
The interosseus membrane joins the radius and ulna. This form as a radioulnar __________________. Which is a fibrous connection between bones. It allows for pronation and supination of the arm.
Syndesmosis
144
What prevents radial abduciton?
Radial styloid process
145
Why is the ulna NOT part of the radiocarpal joint?
Does not articulate with the carpal bones
146
What muscle inserts on the radial tuberosity?
Which end is the radial tuberosity on?
Proximal end, biceps brachii inserts here
147
Does the ulna or radius have a larger styloid process?
Radial
148
What anatomic features create space for tendons of the forearm extensor muscles?
Styloid process of ulna and dorsal tubercle of radius
149
T/F: due to the ulna and radius tending to function as one unit, when there is injury both fracture
Some truth, more often one fractures and the other dislocates
150
Describe Monteggia's fracture
A fracture at the proximal third of the ulna and anterior dislocation of the head of the radius
151
Name the fracture that matches this description:
A fracture at the proximal third of the ulna and anterior dislocation of the head of the radius
Monteggia's fracture
152
Name the fracture that matches this description:
A fracture of the distal third of the radius associated with subluxation (partial dislocation) of the head of the ulna
Galezzi's fracture
153
What is Galezzi's fracture?
A fracture of the distal third of the radius associated with subluxation (partial dislocation) of the head of the ulna
154
What is Colle's fracture?
What is a common cause?
- A fracture and posterior displacement of the distal end of the radius
- caused by falling backwards
155
At the radiocarpal joint, which bone is larger/wider, the radius or ulna?
Radius
156
Name the fracture that matches this description:
A fracture and posterior displacement of the distal end of the ulna
Colle's fracture
157
Describe Greenstick fractures:
Fractures occurring more often in children due to their bones being softer
- Only one side of the bone is partially fractured and can involve linear splitting
158
The antebrachial fascia thickens over the distal ends of the radius and ulna. Posteriorly it forms a transverse band, the ________________ _______________________. Anteriorly as the ________________ ____________ __________________.
Post: Extensor retinaculum
Anterior: Palmar carpal ligament
159
On the anterior distal forearm there are two ligaments. Which is superficial and which is deeper? Which is more proximal
Superficial and more proximal is anterior palmar carpal ligament
Deep: Flexor retinaculum
160
What tendon is continuous with the palmar aponeurosis?
Palmaris longus (superficial muscle of the forearm)
161
The anterior compartment of the forearm is flexing and ___________________.
The posterior compartment of the forearm is extension and ______________________.
Pronation is Ant.
Supination is Posterior
162
What nerve is susceptible to nerve entrapment since it exits the cubital fossa by passing between the humeral and ulnar heads of the pronator teres?
Median nerve
163
The lateral border of pronator teres forms the medial boundary of:
Cubital fossa
164
One action of the pronator teres is pronation, how does this impact the movement of the radius and ulna?
Pronator teres causes the radius to cross over the ulna
165
Flexor carpi radialis inserts on the base of the 2nd and 3rd metacarpal. What does this tell you about its action?
It can move the wrist
166
If acting alone, this muscle can simultaneously flex and abduct the hand at the wrist
Flexor carpi radialis
167
The tendon of flexor carpi radialis passes through a vertical groove in the trapezium in its own synovial tendinous sheath under the ________________ _________________.
Flexor retinaculum
168
The palmaris longus has a short belly and a long, cord-like tendon that passes _________________ to the flexor retinaculum at the center of the wrist. It attaches to the the ______________________ __________ and the apex of the ________________ _______________ .
superficial
Flexor retinaculum
palmar aponeurosis
169
This muscle simultaneously flexes and adducts the hand at the wrist if acting alone
Flexor carpi ulnaris
170
Which muscle of the forearm gives rise to four tendons?
Flexor digitorum superficialis
171
What is contained in the common flexor sheath?
Is it anterior or posterior?
1. The four tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis and 4 of the flexor digitorum profundus
2. Anterior
172
Aside from flexing the PIPs and DIPs, what is unique about the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus?
Flexor digitorum superficialis can flex each PIP individually while the flexor digitorum profundus can only flex the index finger individually
173
The four flexor digitorum _______________ pass posterior (deep) to the flexor digitorum __________________ tendons and flexor retinaculum within the common flexor sheath.
Profundus
Superficialis
174
What is the innervation of the flexor digitorum profundus?
Medial is ulnar nerve
Lateral part is anterior interosseus (branch of the median nerve)
175
The flexor pollicis longus lies ________________ to the flexor digitorum profundus.
Lateral
176
What is the innervation of the flexor pollicis longus?
Anterior interosseus nerve (median nerve branch)
177
Does the tendinous sheath of the flexor pollicis longus pass laterally or medially to the common flexor sheath?
Laterally
178
There are 3 tendinous sheaths in the carpal tunnel. Describe them
1.) Common flexor sheath with tendonds from flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus
2.) Tendon of flexor pollicis longus
3.) Tendon of flexor carpi radialis
179
Does the anterior interosseous nerve branch off the median nerve laterally or medially?
Branches off median nerve laterally over the radius
180
What is the initiator of pronation of the forearm?
Is this a superficial, intermediate, or deep muscle?
Pronator quadratus
Deep muscle
181
What is a common injury that impacts the ulnar nerve?
Fracture of the medial epicondyle
182
What two muscles of the anterior forearm flex the wrist when acting together?
Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi radialis
183
What muscle of the anterior forearm adducts the wrist when acting with the extensor carpi ulnaris?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
184
Ulnar nerve injury can result in extensive motor and sensory loss to the hand. Why is there lateral hand deviation?
Impair wrist adduction due to flexor carpi radialis action without flexor carpi ulnaris
185
While ulnar nerve injury allows the metacarpophalengeal joints to hyperextend due to no flexion opposition, why does claw hand occur?
There is atrophy of interosseus muscles
186
Does ulnar nerve entrapment occur at the distal or proximal forearm?
Proximal
187
What is cubital tunnel syndrome?
Ulnar nerve entrapment from compression in the cubital tunnel
188
Where does the ulnar nerve enter the forearm?
Behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus to towards the flexor carpi ulnaris
189
Trace the path of the ulnar artery after it branches off the brachial artery
- Larger of the 2 branches
- Crosses over flexor digitorum profundus and beneath the flexor carpi ulnaris
- Distal end re-emerges in superficial location and laterally to the ulnar nerve
190
Which artery branches to become > common interosseus > posterior and anterior interosseous artery?
Ulnar artery
191
Where is the radial artery at the proximal end of the forearm?
Below the brachioradialis
192
The ulnar nerve is medial or lateral to the artery in the distal forearm?
Ulnar nerve is medial to the ulnar artery
193
What are two risks associated with having a superficial ulnar artery
- Mistaking the artery for a vein = profuse bleeding
- If certain drugs are injected into an artery can be fatal
194
1.) The anterior and posterior ulnar recurrent arteries anastomose with:
2.) These anastomoses form:
Inferior and superior ulnar collateral arteries
2.) Form periarticular arterial anastomoses
195
Where do the radial collateral arteries come from?
Profunda brachii Artery (first branch of the brachial artery)
196
The radial artery has recurrent arteries that anastomose with:
Radial collateral arteries which arose from profunda brachii artery
197
1.) What arteries supply & anastomose in the palmar carpal arch?
2.) Is the palmar carpal arch superior or inferior to the tendons of the carpal tunnel?
1.) Palmar carpal branch are supplied by the Radial and ulnar artery
2.) The palmar carpal arch is inferior to the carpal tunnel
198
What is the purpose of veins being proximal to arteries?
- Efficient heat exchange
- Helps maintain blood flow by the artery pulsations assisting venous return
199
The radial pulse can be palpated laterally to which tendon?
Flexor carpi radialis
200
The median nerve innervates deep muscles of the anterior forearm via:
The median nerve branch named anterior interosseus nerve
201
Does the median nerve pass superficially or deep to the pronator quadratus?
Deep to the pronator quadratus
202
When the median nerve is severed, what muscles are effected?
Flexor digitorum superficialis & lateral part of flexor digitorum profundus
1st & 2nd lumbricals and thenar muscles
203
What does anterior interosseus syndrome result in?
- Partial paralysis of flexor digtorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
- Results in absence of flexion at the interphalangeal joint of thumb and DIP joint of index finger
204
From what nerve does the palmar cutaneous branch arise from?
Median nerve
205
Where does the palmar cutaneous branch off the median nerve?
Proximal to the flexor retinaculum
206
The ulnar nerve and artery become superficial just proximal to the wrist. Describe their location relative to the flexor retinaculum
The nerve and artery pass superficial to the flexor retinaculum and enter the hand by passing through Guyon canal
207
1. What does the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve supply?
2. What does the palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve supply?
1.) Skin of the central part of the palm
2.) Palmar skin on the medial axis of the 4th digit
208
what does the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve supply?
Skin of the dorsum medial 4th digit
209
This nerve passes between the ulna and the flexor carpi ulnaris and supplies the skin of the dosrum medial to the 4th digit
Palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve
210
T/F: The radial nerve supplies motor innervation to the dorsal hand?
False, only sensory functions in the hand
211
What branch of the radial nerve wraps around the head of the radius and penetrates supinator to serve the posterior compartment
Deep radial/Posterior interosseous nerve
212
What branch of the radial nerve emerges from the brachioradialis to run down the forearm and branches over the anatomical snuff box to supply the skin of the dorsum of the hand lateral to the 4th digit?
Superficial radial nerve
213
214
What crease of the palm deepens when the MP joints are flexed?
Transverse creases ( Distal and transverse)
215
The _____________ longitudinal crease partially encircles the thenar eminence and deepens when the thumb opposes
Radial
216
What lies superior to the synovial sheaths and superficial & deep tendons of the 2nd - 5th digits
Fibrous digital sheaths
217
What is the Dupuytren contracture of palmar fascia
Degeneration of the longitudinal bands of the palmar aponeurosis on the medial side pulls 4th and 5th digits into partial flexion at the MP & PIP joints
218
What is the Dupuytren contracture of palmar fascia?
Degeneration of the longitudinal bands of the palmar aponeurosis on the medial side pulls 4th and 5th digits into partial flexion at the MP & PIP joints
219
______________ contracture is degeneration of the longitudinal bands of the palmar aponeurosis on the medial side pulls the 4th & 5th digits into partial flexion at the MP & PIP joints
Dupuytren
220
Which digits have separate synovial sheaths that confine infection in fingers if present?
2nd, 3rd, 4th
221
What are the 4 groups in intrinsic hand muscles?
Hypothenar compartment
Thenar compartment
Interossei
Lumbricals
222
Which is more superficial the lumbricals or interossei of the hand?
Lumbricals
223
The interossei lie in the interosseus compartments between the _____________
Metacarpals
224
What tendons do the lumbricals originate from on the anterior hand?
Originate from the sides of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendons inthe central compartment
225
1. Describe the lumbricals of the second and third digit
2. What innervates them?
1.) Originate from the lateral side, Unipennate
2.) Innervated by the median N
226
1.) Describe the lubricals of the 4th & 5th finger
2.) What innervates them?
1.) Bipennate, originate from the medial three tendons of FPD
2.) Inn. by deep branch of Ulnar nerve
227
What is the function of the lumbricals on the anterior surface of the hand?
Flex the fingers at the MP joints and extend the interphalangeal joints
228
How many interossi muscles are on the anterior hand?
How many on the dorsal hand?
Three anterior
4 Dorsal
229
What is the action of the palmar interosseous muscles?
Palmar adduct
230
What is the action of the dorsal interosseous muscles?
Abduction
231
Aside from their differing actions, what is different about the structure of palmar and dorsal interosseous muscles?
Palmar are unipennate
Dorsal are bipennate
232
Where are the lateral bands in the hand?
On the lateral surfaces of fingers where the tendons of the interosseous and lumbrical muscles attach
233
What comprises the extensor expansion?
1.) Tendinous aponeurosis with tendon of the extensor digitorum, interosseous tendons (bilateral), lumbrical tendon
234
What is another name for extensor expansion?
Dorsal hood or Dorsal Expansion
235
Is the Dorsal Hood on the anterior or posterior hand?
Posterior
236
Which direction are the majority shoulder dislocations?
Will the arm be externally or internally rotated?
Anterior & Externally
237
What portion of the dorsal hand does the dorsal expansion cover?
Covers the Metacarpophalengeal joint and proximal phalanx
238
Name three groups of intrinsic hand muscles that are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve?
3rd & 4th lumbricals
Dorsal interossei
Palmar interossei
239
What is the main action of the lumbricals?
Flex metacarpophalangeal joints, extend interphalangeal joints of 2nd-5th digit
240
Is Guyon’s canal superior or inferior to the flexor retinaculum?
Superior
241
What forms the roof and floor of Guyon canal?
Roof is palmar carpal ligament
Floor is flexor retinaculum
242
Is the radial artery lateral or medial to the radial nerve?
Is the ulnar nerve lateral or medial to the ulnar artery?
Radial Artery is lateral to the radial Nerve
Ulnar nerve is MEDIAL to the Ulnar nerve
243
The superficial palmar arch is the main termination of the __________ _________.
Ulnar artery
244
The deep palmar arch is formed mainly by the ______________ ________.
Radial artery
245
Which nerves innervate sensory components of the hand?
Which nerves innervate motor function of the hand?
Median, Ulnar, and Radial nerve are all sensory and motor
246
What is the exception to the ulnar nerve innervating all intrinsic muscles of the hand?
The median nerve innervates three thenar muscles and two lateral most lumbricals
247
The _____________ nerve only innervates the skin on the dorsolateral side of the hand
Radial nerve
248
What happens to the ulnar nerve in Guyon tunnel?
Ulnar nerve divides into superficial (sensory) and deep (motor) branches
249
The deep branch of the radial Nerve pierces the ________________ muscle. What is it named when it remerges on the posterior side?
Supinator
Posterior interosseous nerve
250
How many total extensor muscles are in the posterior forearm?
9
251
Nine extensor muscles are organized into ______ major functional groups and ______ layers in the posterior forearm
Three functional
2 layers
252
Name the three muscles which extend and abduct or adduct the hand at the wrist joint
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Extensor carpi ulnaris
253
Name the three posterior muscles which extend and abduct or adduct the hand at the wrist joint
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Extensor carpi ulnaris
254
What is the location of the common extensor tendon?
Lateral epicondyle
255
Name the muscles which extend the medial four fingers
1. Extensor digitorum
2. Extensor indicis
3. Extensor digiti minimi
256
What is the RNA polymerase in prokaryotes?
RNA Polymerase Holoenzyme
257
Name the two most important constituents of RNA polymerase Holoenzyme
What do these they do?
ββ' and sigma
- Sigma recognizes the promotor region and binds to DNA
- ββ' builds the RNA
258
What is a distinct feature of prokaryotic transcription vs eukaryotic transcription
Prokaryotes only need 1 type RNAP to build different RNAs
259
What is synonymous to the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase Holoenzyme in eukaryotes?
Why?
Transcription factors
- TFs tell the polymerases where to bind on the DNA
260
What does RNA polymerase 1 build?
rRNA
261
What does RNA polymerase II build?
mRNA
- to a lesser extent snRNA
262
What does RNA polymerase III build?
tRNA
- to a lesser extent snRNA
263
Name the three regions involved in transcription of Prokaryotes
- 35 region & - 10 region are promotor regions & Prisnow box
+ 1 is the start site
264
RNA Holoenzyme polymerase has ___________________ properties. This means:
Intrinsic
- Can open DNA, stabilize it so it does not recoil, read and build DNA
265
______________________ impacts prokaryotic transcription at the elongation stage by blocking RNA polymerase holoenzyme. This drug is used to treat TB
Rifampin
266
What is the action of Rifampin?
What is it used to treat?
- Blocks activity of RNA polymerase holoenzyme thus disabling bacteria from building RNAs
- Treats TB
267
Name the two types of termination strategies in prokaryote transcription termination
- Rho dependent
- Rho independent
268
1. Describe Rho dependent termination
2. Which cell type does this occur in?
1. Rho protein travels up the RNA strand that is being build and kicks of the working RNA Polymerase Holoenzyme & thus RNA synthesis is stopped
2. Occurs in Prokaryotes only
269
1. Describe Rho independent termination
2. What cell type does this occur in?
1. the RNA strand being build contains a sequence of base pairs that attract each other and form a stem-loop structure (usually rich in G-C sites). This hairpin loop structure will trigger cleaving enzymes to cleave RNAP thus discontinuing transcription
2. Prokaryotes
270
1. What is the name of the DNA strand that is being read in transcription?
2. What is the name of of the DNA strand that matches base pairs of the newly synthesized strands?
1. Anti-sense strand or Template strand
2. Coding strand or sense strand
271
What location does Rho ATP dependent helicase remove RNAP from?
3' end of RNA
272
What is coupled translation and translation and what does it apply to?
- Applies to bacteria
- Means that RNA is being transcribed and translated at the same time to conserve bacterial energy resources
273
T/F: Prokaryotes do not engage in post-translational modification
True
274
In bacterial coupled translation and transcription, what do the ribosomes attach to for transcription?
- Shine-Dalgarno sequence of the 5' untranslated region of mRNA
275
Which types of cell is monocistronic & which is polycystronic?
What does that mean?
Monocystronic is for eukaryotic cells: means 1 RNA strand makes 1 protein
Polycystronic is for prokaryotic cells: means 1 RNA strand can make multiple proteins
276
What are three constituent components of rRNA in eukaryotic cells?
28S, 18S, 5.8 S
277
These three 28S, 18S, 5.8 S subunits are made _______________ _______________________ _____. They are involved in transcription and translation of ________________ cells.
- RNA Polymerase I
- Eukaryotic cells only
278
hnRNA/mRNA & snRNA are products made by _______ _______________________ _____. They are involved in transcription and translation of _______________________ cells.
RNA polymerase II
Eukaryotic cells
279
tRNA, snRNA and 5S rRNA are products made by ____ ___________________ ________. They are involved in transcription and translation of ______________________ cells.
RNA polymerase III
Eukaryotic cells
280
What does polymerase II require prior to beginning transcription in ____________________ cells.
Requires transcription factors, TFIID
transcription in Eukaryotic cells
281
What are the two subunits of TFIID?
What does TFIID do?
1. TBP & TAF
2. This is a transcription factor specifically for RNA polymerase II
282
What transcription factor initiates transcription in Eukaryotic cells?
TFIIH
283
Where might you find an enhancer in eukaryotic cells?
During transcription, normally found upstream of the DNA sequence that is being transcripted to upregulate RNA production
284
T/F: The only mechanism to disrupt enhanced transcription is to initiate termination
False, there are silencer and repressor proteins that can counteract enhancers on DNA
285
What does RNA polymerase II require for initiation to begin in eukaryote transcription?
- Phosphorylation of Ser5 & Ser7 on the C terminal domain of the protein
286
Phosphorylation of Ser __ & Ser ___ on C terminal domain of RNA polymerase II is required for initiation to commence in eukaryotic transcription. Phosphorylation of Ser __ & Thr__ is required for elongation to occur in transcription of eukaryotes. Phosphorylation of Tyr____ upregulates transcription and subsequently the dephosphorylation of this same amino acid causes termination of transcription
Ser 5 & Ser7
Ser2 & Thr4
Tyr1
287
What group of antibiotic drugs bind to RNA polymerase holoenzyme with high affinity and physically block the elongation of prokaryotic RNA transcription?
Rifamycin
288
The toxin, _______________________, acts on ______________________ only to preferentially bind RNAP II and thus block ___RNA synthesis.
α-amanitin
Eukaryotes
m
289
What is α-amanitin?
Toxin found in mushrooms that preferentially blocks mRNA synthesis by binding to RNA polymerase II
290
Wilms tumors and Ewing sarcoma drugs are a type of Actinomycin D. What is their mechanism of action? What types might they work in?
These drugs bind to DNA & block the movement of RNAP or RNAP II
291
What is the polyadenylation signal?
The sequence on DNA which signals for termination in mRNA transcription
292
What type of RNA was built by Polymerase I at the end of transcription?
hnRNA which is immature rRNA
293
List 3 things that must occur for hnRNA to become mRNA in transcription
1.) Methylated cap on 5' end of RNA strand
2.) Poly-A tail added to 3' end
3.) Splicing
294
1. Describe 5' methyl capping
1. Add Methyl group to 2' Oxygen of ribose
2. Add methyl group to subsequent 2' oxygen of ribose at the end of the RNA strand
3. Add 3 Phosphates to 5' end of RNA strand
4. Add methyl group to nucleoside Guanine at the 7' Nitrogen
295
What is the purpose of 5' methyl capping?
- Component of post transcriptional modification in Eukaryotes
- Cap initiates translation and increases mRNA stability to protect against nuclease degradation
296
Describe poly A tail post-transcription modification
1. Poly A polymerase will recognize AAUAAA region
2. Enzyme adds repeat sequence of A nucleotides forming the poly A tail at the 3' end of the mRNA sequence
297
What is the purpose of having a poly A tail in post-translational modification?
Protects mRNA from degradation, allows for exiting nucleus, improve and signal translation
298
Where does splicing occur?
In eukaryote cells
299
What is always removed in RNA splicing?
Why?
Introns
Their sequences does not code for polypeptides
300
β-thalassemia can be caused by incorrect ___________ ______________________ of the HBB gene
RNA splicing
301
When does hnRNA become mRNA?
After splicing has occurred
302
1. Which polymerases synthesized snRNA?
2. What is the significance of snRNA?
1. Polymerase II & III
2. involved in RNA splicing
303
What portion of the mRNA do snRNAs recognize on hnRNA?
5'GU--------------A-OH-----------------AG]5' sequence of an intron within the mRNA strand
304
Describe the steps of RNA splicing
1.) snRNA/spliceosome complex recognizes 5'[GU--A-OH--AG]3' region of the intron hnRNA
2.) complex cuts intron at the 3' end
3.) -OH group attacks the 5' end of the intron to completely remove the intron
4.) 3' -OH group of exon 1 will form a phosphodiester bond with 5' end of exon 2
305
SLE, also known as ______________ ________________ ____________________, produces antibodies against nucleic antigens (known as ANA's). These ANA's attack:
1. Anti-ds DNA antibodies
2. Anti- histone antibodies
3.
Symptoms of SLE Include painful and swollen joints, chest pain, hair loss, mouth ulcers and red rash
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
3. Anti-Smith Antibodies: components of snRPS
306
1. Systemic lupus erythematosus may result in this type of rash of the face.
2. Relating to disruption of transcription, this disorder:
1. Butterfly rash
2. produces ANAs, including Anti-Smith Antibodies which are components against snRNP
307
What is the difference between snRNPs and snRNA?
snRNA and snRNP are separate components of spliceosomes that are involved in RNA splicing
308
Describe alternative splicing
Removing different variations of exons from pre-mRNA in eukaryotes to produce different varieties of coding strands for translation to produce many different proteins
309
Compare alternative splicing to polycistronic transcription
Alt. Splicing is involved in removing different varieties of exons to create different mRNA strands for a variety of proteins in Eukaryotes only
Polycistronic transcription is related to Prokaryotes only. It is referring to the ability of these cells to use 1 RNA transcript strand to build multiple polypeptides but they are all the same type of polypeptide
310
What polymerase synthesizes tRNA?
RNA polypeptide III
311
Describe pre-tRNA
1.) 16 specific nucleotide sequence at the 5' end
2.) 14 nucleotide intron
3.) Two extra UU nucleotides at the 3' end
312
List 3 pos-translational modifications of tRNA
1.) 5'-leader sequence, intron, & UU Nucleotide sequence at 3' end are removed
2.) CAA is replaced at the 3' end
3.) Base modification
313
Describe base modification in tRNA post-translational modification
1.) G, A , C, U are modified and switched for different NT
2.) These nucleotides unique to tRNA will pair with mRNA
314
In base modification in tRNA post-translational modification, A is switched to:
Adenosine is deaminated at position 6 and becomes Inosine (I)
315
in base modification in tRNA post-translational modification, U is switched to:
Pseudoridine Ψ
Ribothymidine T
Dihydrouridine D
316
in base modification in tRNA post-translational modification, U is switched to:
Ψ, D, or T
317
Eukaryotic 80S ribosomes are composed of a large 60S subunit and 40S subunit. What RNA is in the large subunit?
What RNA is in the small subunit
60S: 5S RNA, 5.8S, 28S RNA
40S: 18S RNA
318
1. What is unique about 5S RNA found in ribosomes?
2. Is it found in Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes?
1.) Eukaryotic 5S rRNA is made by RNAP III in the nucleus
2.) All large ribosomes have 5S rRNA but eukaryotes is synthesized in the nucleus and other is synthesized in the cytoplasm
319
How do Eukaryotic large & small unit ribosomes have 5.8S rRNA, 18S rRNA, 28S rRNA?
Which pieces of rRNA go to the large & which to the small?
rRNA is synthesized in the nucleolus by RNAP I and transcribed as a single piece of 45S rRNA. Then it is cleaved to yield 28S rRNA, 18S rRNA and 5.8S rRNA.
2.) Large: 5.8S rRNA & 28S rRNA
Small: 18S rRNA
320
Eukaryotic ribosomal RNA is made from _________-______________________ RNA's. They are assembled into ___________ and _______ subunits in the nucleolus and:
pre-ribosomal subunits
40S & 60S subunits and exported into the cytoplasm
321
Describe the mechanism of Telomerase:
On the lagging strand there is only a 5' Phosphate available after RNA primers are removed by DNA polymerase I.
Telomerase enzyme will use RNA to build more repeating sequences on the DNA PARENT strand.
This allows for RNA primase to add a primer and polymerase α to add NT on the lagging strand. Since there are excess non-coding sequences on both strands now, when the 5' end is again cut short no coding regions are at risk of being lost
322
1. What do the drugs, Daunorubicin, Doxorubicin, Etoposide and Teniposide all act on?
2. Which drugs act on anti-leukemia and which is anti-lung cancer?
1. All act on topoisomerase II with anti-cancer properties
2. Etoposide is anti-lung cancer, Daunorubicin, Teniposide and Doxorubicin are all anti leukemia
323
Didanosine and Zalcitabine are also anti-HIV drugs. How do they act?
Didanosine is an analog of guanosine
Zalcitabine is an analog of deoxycytosine
They impair DNA replication by ensuring a 3' is not available to form a phosphodiester bond
324
What mechanism of action do the Anti-HIV drugs: Azidothymidine, Didanosine, Zalcitabine use?
HIV Reverse transcriptase
325
What are the two types of of DNA damage that can occur?
Endogenous from normal metabolic mechanisms in the body
Exogenous, i.e. exposure to UV
326
Ionizing radiation can cause ___________________ ____________ ________________. This may result in deamination causing
Exogenous DNA damage
- Deamination: C to U, A to I base pair changes
327
Industrial chemicals such as vinyl chloride and hydrogen peroxide can induce:
Exogenous DNA damage
328
What type of DNA damage is incurred by exposure to UV?
Catalyzed by UV light: exogenous Dimer formation between thymine bases within a strand of DNA
329
Cancer often upregulates ____________________ activity
Telomerase
330
DNA mutations that are not repaired by proofreading are repaired by _____________________ repair followed by _____________________ repair.
Mismatch repair
Excision repair
331
Contrast Base excision repair vs Nucleotide excision repair
BER: removes only a single base that was damaged, i.e. deaminated from C to change to U. (Remember this is DNA and U should not be present)
NER: Remove a chunk of DNA and phosphodiester bond
332
What are two proteins involved in mismatch repair?
If they are not present, what does this cause?
1. MLH1 & MSH2 proteins are the enzymes to facilitate mismatch recognition
2. Genetic defects which disallow the protein production of MLH1 & MLH2 cause Lynch syndrome AKA hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
333
What are two possible causes of deamination in bases?
UV exposure and nitrates
334
What happens when C (cytosine) is deaminated?
C changes to U (uracil)
335
What happens when A (Adenine) is demainated?
A changes to I
336
Which DNA repair mechanism uses Uracil DNA glycosylate to remove _____ base?
What happens after the base is removed?
Base excision repair uses glycosylation to remove Uracil
After base is removed, endonucleases cut DNA for DNA polymerase and ligase to take action
337
Xeroderma pigmentosa is an autosomal _____________________ disease. The symptoms include severe sunburn when exposed to small amounts of sunlight. What is the cause?
Recessive
Mutations in genes that make proteins involved in nucleotide excision repair so when there is damage to DNA cannot repair using this mechaism
338
Describe the structure of Cytosine and what changes to its structure are required for it to become uracil?
Cytosine is a 6 ring structure with an -NH group at position 1 and -NH2 group at position 4. And an -OH group at position 2
For cytosine to become Uracil, deaminate position #4 and place a =O group
339
Describe the structure of Uracil and what changes would make it Thymine
Uracil is a 6 ringed structure with a -NH group at position 1. And 2 =O group at position 6 & 2
For Uracil to become Thymine, add a methyl group to position 5
340
What induces SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency)?
- Lack of Adenosine Deaminase
- Inability to produce T & B lymphocytes
341
What might anti-cancer drugs do to DNA base pairs to disrupt DNA structure?
- Alkylate bases at position #3, #6, #7
342
343
What ligaments make up the coracoclavicular ligament?
Trapezoid ligament and conoid ligament
344
Functional articulations of the shoulder include:
1.)
2.)
Rather these are spaces created by __________ ____________.
1. Subacromial space
2. Scapulothoracic joint
Created by muscle layers
345
What are the three true joints of the shoulder?
1.
2.
3.
What makes them “true joints?”
1. Sternoclavicular
2. Acromioclavicular
3. Glenohumeral
These joints are bone to bone
346
What are the three true joints of the shoulder?
1.
2.
3.
What makes them “true joints?”
1. Sternoclavicular
2. Acromioclavicular
3. Glenohumeral
These joints are bone to bone
347
What capsular ligament is stretched in adduction and internal rotation of the shoulder?
Superior glenohumeral ligament
348
What ligament is stretched during shoulder extension and external rotation?
Middle glenohumeral joint
349
What capsular ligament is stretched during shoulder abduction, extension and internal rotation?
Inferior glenohumeral joint
350
Why is the glenohumeral joint not a true ball and socket joint?
- The humeral head is larger than the glenoid cavity
- The glenoid is deepened by the cartilaginous labrum
351
The tendon of the long head of the biceps travels through a tunnel in the synovial membrane. This membrane thickens across the tubercles to become the _______________ ______________ _______________.
Transverse humeral ligament
352
Name the structure within the subdeltoid joint that can get swollen and cause impingement of the tendon of the __________________
Subdeltoid bursa
Impinge tendon of supraspinatous
353
T.F: Very little movement comes from the glenohumeral joint
True
354
What joint is responsible for continuation of motion when glenohumeral joint reaches the end of range of motion?
Scapulothoracic joint
355
This joint is vulnerable to somatic dysfunction because it is the only place the shoulder articulates with axial skeleton
Sternoclavicular joint
356
What coaptors keep the humerus in contact with the glenoid fossa?
SITS muscles
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres Minor
Subscapularis
357
What muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for external rotation?
Infraspinatus & Teres Minor
358
What muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for internal rotation?
Subscapularis
359
These muscles attach the humerus to different aspects of the scapula
Deltoids
Biceps
Triceps
Coracobrachialis
Teres Major
360
What terminal of tRNA attaches the Amino acid?
What is specific portion of tRNA that holds the AA?
- 3' OH terminal is where the A.A. binds to
- CCA binds the amino acid via amino acid synthetase enzyme
361
What does CDS stand for in protein translation?
Coding sequence
The portion of mRNA where coding takes place
362
Which portion of mRNA helps ribosomes identify where to start translation in Eukaryotic cells?
5' Cap
363
Within Eukaryotic mRNA sequences there are UTR at both 5' and 3'. What may be found within 5' UTR region?
What is overall significant about the purpose of this region?
1. Internal ribosome entry sites (IRES)
2. Upstream open reading frames
3. Binding sites for regulatory sequences
Allow for upregulation and downregulation of protein productuion
364
Within Eukaryotic mRNA sequences there are UTR at both 5' and 3'. In the 5' UTR region exists the internal ribosome entry sites (_______). What purpose do they serve?
IRES
They can upregulate translation
365
Picornaviruses ___________________________ protein translation within the 5' end of the UTR region of mRNA via what mechanism?
DOWNREGULATE protein translation via disrupting internal ribosome entry sites
366
What viruses disrupt mRNA protein translation IRES mechanism?
Picornaviruses
367
Within Eukaryotic mRNA sequences there are UTRs at both 5' and 3'. In the 5' UTR region exists the upstream open reading frame (____________). What purpose do they serve?
uORF
Downregulate protein translation
368
CPT1C gene upregulates protein translation via what mechanism?
In the 5' UTR region, there is the upstream reading frame the normally downregulates translation. CPT1C gene disables this
369
What gene disables the normal downregulation of protein translation in the upstream open reading frame (uORF)?
CPT1C
370
On mRNA 5' UTR region there are binding sites for regulatory proteins. An example is:
Ferritin mRNA
371
List the 2 important elements of 3' UTR in eukaryotic mRNA
1. Binding sites for regulatory RNA
2. Binding sites for regulatory proteins
372
Disturbance of this gene can be impacted in binding sites for regulatory RNAs in the 3' UTR region of mRNA
MLH1 by miR-155
373
Binding sites for regulatory proteins in the 3' UTR region will:
Increase mRNA stability
374
Why are binding sties for regulatory proteins important within the 3' UTR of mRNA in Eukaryotes?
They are the location for transcription factor receptor
375
What enzyme is involved in charging tRNA?
What does "charging" mean?
1. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases
2. Putting an Amino acid onto a tRNA
376
What is the name of the initiator tRNA in Eukaryotes?
What about Prokaryotes?
tRNA for Eukaryotes is Methionine
tRNA for Prokaryotes is formyl methionine
377
What does Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase do?
This enzyme uses:
Brings amino acids to tRNA to prepare for protein translation
Uses ATP and breaks it down to AMP + Pi
378
What does polymyositis do to RNA?
This is an autoimmune disorder that produces anti-aminoacyl tRNA synthetase and thus tRNAs cannot be charged with an amino acid for proper translatio n
379
______________________ is a chronic autoimmune and chronic inflammatory myopathy. It is characterized by muscle weakness with elevated serum creatine kinase. There is production of anti-aminoacyl tRNA synthetase and anti-signal recognition particles that disrupt:
Polymyositis
Disrupt protein trafficking
380
Charged tRNAs are named according to:
charged tRNAs are named according to the amino acid they bear
381
The wobble hypothesis is used to solve the problem that the number of tRNAs per cell is less than the available codons. Describe the unusual base pairing that corresponds this hypothesis
Anti codons 3rd base has a U which may pair with multiple bases such as A & G
382
What is diamond-blackfan anemia?
Mutation in ribosomal protein that causes rapid-onset anemia in 1 year
383
This condition is caused by mutations in ribosomes where rapid-onset anemia in 1 year. There is a decrease in Hct and reticulocyte production because bone marrow does not produce enough RBC
Diamond-Blackfan Anemia
384
Which site of the large ribosome binds the initiator tRNA?
P site
385
T/F: The A site of large ribosome subunit binds new coming tRNA molecule carrying an activated amino acid and the initiator tRNA
First part is true, the initiator tRNA binds to P site of large ribosome subunit
386
Which cell type uses the Shine-Dalgarno sequence to bind the initial tRNA for translation initiation?
Prokaryotes
387
The _____________-______________ __________________ is a purine rich region upstream of the start codon on mRNA of prokaryotes. With the help of initiation factors, 50 S ribosomal subunit and tRNA charged with _______________________ can form the initiation complex for protein translation to begin.
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
N-formal methionine
388
The Shine Delgarno sequence is equivalent to what in eukaryotic protein translation initation?
Prokaryotes: Shine-Delgarno site
Eukaryotes: AUG start codon
389
What are eIF?
Eukaryotic initiation factors in protein translation initiation
390
The pre-initiation complex of protein translation in eukaryotes consists of:
1.
2.
3.
This complex binds to the 5' cap and moves along the mRNA scanning for the right codon
1. 40S small subunit
2. tRNA + Met
3. eIF2 & GTP
391
What happens after the eukaryotic pre-initiation complex of translation finds the start codon?
1. eIF2 breaks GTP into GDP + Pi
2. eIF2 disassociates and the large 60S subunit joints
392
T/F: In eukaryotic cells, the pre-initiation complex can bind to the 5' cap and search for the right AUG codon at any point on the mRNA strand
False. It normally must start protein translation at the FIRST AUG codon, BUT exceptions exist
393
In Eukaryotic protein translation initation, what rule allows for codon translation to being somewhere OTHER than the first AUG codon on mRNA?
Kozak scanning model of initation
394
What is Kozak's Scanning model of initation?
It allows the pre-initation complex to start codon translation somewhere OTHER THAN the FIRST AUG codon.
It states if there is a purine -3 positions upstream of an AUG codon & a G +4 downstream of this codon, translation can begin at that point
395
___________________________ ________________________ _____________________ of initiation It states if there is a purine -3 positions upstream of an AUG codon AND a G +4 downstream of this codon, translation can begin at that point. Allows for eukaryotic protein translation to occur somewhere OTHER than the first AUG codon on an mRNA sequence
Kozak Scanning model of initation
396
What enzyme binds charged tRNAs to the A site in protein translation elongation?
Aminoacyl tRNA
397
Aminoacyl tRNA enzyme binds charged tRNA to the A site for protein translation elongation. What other component does the charged tRNA carry?
Elongation factor: eEF1 + 1 GTP
398
______________ _____________ _____________ binds charged tRNA & eEF1 + 1 GTP to the A site for protein translation elongation. What occurs after tRNA is in the A site?
Aminoacyl tRNA
GPT is converted to GDP + 1 Pi and they leave and eEF 1 leaves
eEF1 is elongation factor of eukaryotes
399
eEF1 & eEF2 are used in protein translation elongation of eukaryotes. What elongation factors do prokaryotes use?
EF1 & EF2
400
T/F: In eukaryotic protein translation elongation, Elongation factors eEF1 and eEF2 are used in sequential order
False, eEF2 is used with the charged initiator tRNA and eEF1 is used to build the polypeptide
401
What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation between amino acids of tRNA in ribosomal sites P & A during eukaryotic protein translation elongation stage?
Peptidyl transferase
402
Peptidyl transferase is the enzyme which catalyzes peptide bond formation between amino acids of tRNA in ribosomal sites P & A during eukaryotic protein translation elongation stage. Where is peptidyl transferase found in eukaryotes?
Where is peptidyl transferase found in prokaryotes?
Prokaryotes: contained within a sequence of 23S rRNA in the LARGE ribosomal subunit (50S)
Eukaryotes: 28S rRNA
403
Where does the energy come from to use peptidyl transferase to catalyze peptide bond formation between amino acids of tRNA in ribosomal sites P & A during eukaryotic protein translation elongation stage
ATP is used that came from tRNA charging
404
What happens after peptide bond formation between Amino acids of the P site and A site on the large ribosome in eukaryotic mRNA protein translation elongation?
The P site has a uncharged tRNA, the A site has a tRNA with 2 amino acids. They are translocated towards the E site.
This places the uncharged tRNA in the E site and the tRNA with the polypeptide now in the P site
405
406
After peptide bond formation during eukaryotic protein translation elongation, the P site has a uncharged tRNA, the A site has a tRNA with 2 amino acids. They are translocated towards the E site.
This places the uncharged tRNA in the E site and the tRNA with the polypeptide now in the P site. What allows for this translocation?
eEF2 catalyzes using GTP
407
eEF-2 inactivation via ADP-ribosyltion by Diptheria toxin or Exotoxin-A would disrupt what?
Disrupt translocation of mRNA from A site to P site during elongation/polypeptide building in protein translation
408
__________ can be inactivated by ADP-ribosylation by Diptheria toxin. What symptoms are associated with this illness?
eEF-2 is inactivated
Sore throat, painful swallowing, cough, cyanosis and a grey appearing pseudomembrane in the pharynx
409
A grey appearing pseudomembrane in the pharynx would be indicative of _______________ caused by _________________ toxin which:
Diphtheria caused by Diphtheria toxin
The toxin inactivates eEF-2 which disrupts translocation of tRNA+Amino acids from the A site to P site for protein translation
410
1. Endotoxin A causes inactivation of eEF-2 which:
2. Endotoxin A is associated with:
1. disrupts disrupts translocation of tRNA+Amino acids from the A site to P site for protein translation
2. Ventilator-associated pneumonia
411
Shiga toxin disrupts peptidyl transferase, the enzyme which catalyzes peptide formation between Amino acids of tRNAs during elongation of protein translation. How does the toxin do this?
Peptidyl transferase is housed within the 28S rRNA of the large 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes
412
________________ ______________ disrupts ________________ __________________ causing bloody diarrhea. The toxin enters the cytosol via Golgi network and ER, cleaves a specific adenine nucleobase from the 28S RNA of the 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes.
Shiga toxin
Peptidyl transferase
413
What saying is used to identify stop codons on mRNA?
U GO Away (UGA)
U Are Away (UAA)
U Are Gone (UAG)
414
Describe termination in mRNA translation
The ribosome will reach a stop codon and a release factor will bind with the A-site
415
What are the two actions of the release factor, eRF that cause mRNA translation termination?
1. Bind to A site so no more charged tRNAs can join
2. Cut the peptide away from the tRNA in the P site via hydrolysis
416
_______________________ only have one release factor to signal termination of translation.
________________________ have three release factors. 1 of which binds to GTP and helps facilitate the termination process.
Eukaryotes
Bacteria
417
What is the release factor(s) for eukaryotes to signal termination of translation?
What is the release factor(s) of bacteria?
Eukaryotes: eRF
Bacteria: RF1, RF2, RF3 (does not recognize codon. is a helper release factor)
418
What are polysomes?
Where do they occur?
1. Polysomes are several ribosomes binding one mRNA and translating at the same time
2. Occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
419
Describe the function of interferons in their response to viral infection
Interferons are a type of cytokine that are secreted from cells when viruses invade them
The interferons tell uninfected cells to downregulate translation so that virus cannot make proteins if it infects the cell
420
Describe how interferons utilize 2-5A synthetase
The interferons use this enzyme to build 2'-5' base pair strand
This will activate endonucleases which will degrade viral mRNA as a
421
Describe how interferons utilize protein kinase
Phosphorylate eIF2 so that it cannot be recycled and mRNA translation cannot be initiated since eIF2 is not being recycled for reuse
422
What does eIF2 do?
What recycles this IF?
Eukaryotic initiation factor binds GTP and tRNA-MET to the 40S small ribosomal subunit for binding to the 5' cap of mRNA
Recycled by eIF2B
423
Amimoglycoside antibiotics act:
Bind to 16 rRNA of prokaryote ribosomes such that tRNA cannot reach the P site
424
___________________ antibiotics act to bind to 16 rRNA of prokaryote ribosomes such that tRNA cannot reach the P site
Amimoglycoside
425
Tetracycline antibiotics act:
Disallow tRNA to bind to A site in eukaryotic elongation of translation
426
____________________ antibiotics disallow tRNA to bind to A site in eukaryotic elongation of translation
Tetracycline
427
Chloramphenicol antibiotics act:
Bind to 50S subunit of prokaryote ribosomes and disrupt peptide bond formation
428
_____________________________ antibiotics Bind to 50S subunit of prokaryote ribosomes and disrupt peptide bond formation
Chloramphenicol
429
Clindamycin Macrolide antibiotics act:
An example of these antibiotics are:
Bind to 23S rRNA of prokaryotic ribosomes to block translation
Erythromycin and Azithromycin
430
_________________ _________________ antibiotics bind to 23S rRNA of prokaryotic ribosomes to block translation
Clindamycin macrolides
431
What nerve innervates the 3 muscles of the thenar region?
Recurrent branch of the median nerve
432
Deltoid muscle abducts the arm. It also:
Extends and Flexes the arm
433
Deltoid muscle abducts the arm. It also:
Extends and Flexes the arm
434
Where do the SITS muscle insert?
Greater tubercle of the humerus
1 muscle inserts onto the lesser tubercle of the humerus
435
Where does the deep radial nerve become the posterior interosseous nerve?
After it pierces the supinator
436
1. List the 3 muscles that extend and abduct or adduct the hand at the wrist.
2. Are they superficial or deep? Are they anterior or posterior?
1.) Extensor carpi radialis longus, Extensor carpi radialis brevis, Extensor carpi ulnaris
2.) Superficial & posterior
437
What are the four muscles of the hand that extend the medial four fingers?
Extensor digitorum
Extensor indicis
Extensor digiti minimi
438
Name the muscles which extend or abduct the thumb
Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus
439
What are the deep extensor muscles?
1. Supinator
2. Extensor pollicis brevis
3. Extensor pollicis longus
4. Abductor pollicis longus
5. Extensor indicis
440
All flexor muscles of the forearm are innervated by branches of the ___________ nerve including:
Radial nerve
- Deep radial nerve & posterior interosseous nerve
441
What nerve innervates the Extensor carpi radialis longus?
Radial nerve
442
What nerve innervates the extensor carpi radialis brevis?
Deep branch of radial N.
443
What nerve innervates the supinator?
Deep branch of the radial nerve
444
What does extensor indicis do?
Extensor expansion of digit 2
445
Which muscles of the deep group of the posterior forearm are innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve?
Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor indicis
446
Which nerves of the superficial group of the posterior forearm are innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve?
Extensor digitorum
Extensor digiti minimi
Extensor carpi ulnaris
447
What three muscles of the superficial posterior forearm are innervated by the radial nerve before it divides?
Anconeus
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis longus
448
What is the action of extensor pollicis brevis?
Extends metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint of thumb
449
What is the action of extensor pollicis longus?
Extends metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint of thumb
450
Name the muscle of the posterior forearm matching this description: Extends metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint of thumb
Extensor pollicis longus
451
What is another name for tennis elbow?
Lateral epicondylitis
452
What causes lateral epicondylitis?
Overuse involving gripping or extending the wrist
453
What condition is characterized by inflammation of the extensor tendons of the posterior forearm?
Lateral epicondylitis AKA elbow tendinitis
454
This superficial extensor muscle is the principle extensor of the medial 4 fingers
Extensor digitorum
455
What happens at the distal end of the Extensor Digitorum superficial tendons?
The ED tendons flatten at the MP joints to form extensor expansions
456
What structure connects between the extensor digitorum tendons to distribute force and prevent independent extension of the 3rd and 4th digit
Intertendinous connection
457
When the four tendons of the extensor digitorum flatten at the distal end of the posterior hand, what are they termed?
Extensor expanion/Dorsal hood
458
What is the purpose of the extensor expansion?
Holds extensor tendons in middle of the finger and serve as a site for lumbrical muscles and interossei muscles
459
The extensor expansion has ___________ and ____________ bands.
Dorsal and lateral
460
The _________________ joint is sometimes considered the “true elbow” joint. It is a hinge joint and consists of the olecranon.
Humeroulnar joint
461
Why is the humeroradial joint NOT considered a hinge joint?
The radial head is a flat surface that slides over the capitellum
462
The _____________ joint is a pivot joint at the proximal and distal end of the forearm.
Radioulnar joint
463
What is the primary structure that stabilizes the radius at the proximal forearm?
Annular ligament
464
What does the annular ligament?
The primary stabilizer of the proximal radius
465
Why is Brachialis not involved in forearm rotation, only flexion?
Because brachialis does not insert onto the radius rather inserts on the ulnar. Remember the radius rotates around the ulna.
466
Where does the biceps brachii insert ?
Radial tuberosity of the anterior forearm
467
Where is the deep branch of the radial nerve at risk of nerve impingement?
When it passes through the supinator belly to supply the wrist extensors
If there is hypertonicity of the muscle can impinge the nerve
468
Where is the medial nerve vulnerable to nerve impingement?
When it travels between the humeral and ulnar heads of pronator teres
469
Radial deviation is wrist _________________.
Abduction
470
Radial deviation is wrist _________________.
Abduction
471
What is another term for wrist abduction?
Radial deviation
472
Ulnar deviation is wrist __________________
Ulnar deviation = Wrist adduction
473
Wrist adduction is the same as ______________ deviation
Ulnar
474
When the radial head glides in pronation is the head anterior or posterior?
When pronated the radial head is posterior
475
Motion in joints is relative to:
Motion in the joints is relative to distal end of the bone
476
Motion in joints is relative to:
Motion in the joints is relative to distal end of the bone
477
What is the radial bursa?
Synovial sheath of the flexor pollicis longus that can allow infection to spread through digits. Contains it
478
The radial pulse is lateral to which tendon of the anterior muscles of the forearm,?
Flexor Carpi Radialis
479
What ligament crosses over the tendon of supraspinatous?
Coracoacromial
480
What is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone?
Lunate b/c of its shape and weak anterior ligaments
481
What is Smith’s Fracture?
Distal fragment of the radius deviates palmarward often displacing lunate
482
What artery anastomoses accompanies the Ulnar Nerve?
What artery anastomoses accompanies the Median Nerve?
Ulnar Nerve: Superior Ulnar Collateral Artery
Median: Inferior Ulnar Collateral Artery
483
What joint does the Extensor Digiti Minimi and Extensor Digitorum action on?
Metacarpophalangeal
484
The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies flexor pollicis longus. If this nerve is injured, what joint is compromised?
Interphalangeal joint
485
What does Fremont’s sing indicate?
Weakened adductor pollicis indicating ulnar N injury
486
Colle’s Fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with the distal fragment displaced:
Dorsally
487
Clawing of the 4th & 5th fingers as hyperextesnion at the MPM joint with flexion at the PIP joint would be indicative of:
Ulnar Canal Syndrome where in the ulnar nerve coming through Guyon tunnel is compressed
488
What is Skier’s Thumb? What causes it?
Injury to ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb of the MP
Caused by hyperabduction of the MP joint
489
What tests can be used to test Biceps tendon?
Speeds & Yergason’s
