Week 4 Flashcards
(322 cards)
1
Q
Name the three superficial muscles of the posterior leg
A
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Plantaris
2
Q
Name the muscles which comprise the triceps surae
A
Gastrocnemius & Soleus
3
Q
What is a vital role of the triceps surae?
A
Generate the power for push off during walking
4
Q
Describe the origin of the Gastrocnemius
A
Two heads: Lateral & Medial which originate lateral and medial epicondyles of the femur
5
Q
Describe the insertion of the gastrocnemius
A
Calcaneal Tendon
6
Q
Describe the composition of Plantaris muscle
A
Small belly with long tendon spanning to insert on the calcaneal tendon
7
Q
What is the innervation of the calf muscles?
A
Tibial nerves
Remember calf muscles are the superficial posterior leg muscles only
8
Q
Rupture of the Achilles Tendon can be caused by
A
Sudden plantar flexion of the foot
9
Q
What is the difference between Tendinosus and Tendonitis?
A
Tendinosus is a chronic condition caused by repeat microtrauma and tendonitis.
Tendonitis is an acute condition caused by inflammation of the Achilles Tendon
10
Q
If there is diminished Ankle Jerk Reflex, what nerve could be damaged?
A
S1 nerve root
11
Q
The ankle jerk reflex will elicit what type of response?
A
Plantar flexion & contraction of the calf muscle
12
Q
Name the deep muscles of the posterior leg
A
Tibialis Posterior
Flexor Digitorum Longus
Flexor Hallucis Longus
Popliteus
13
Q
Where does flexor hallucis longus insert?
A
Distal phalanx
14
Q
These muscles pass posterior the medial malleolus and thus their tendons are found in a common place:
A
Flexor Hallucis Longus
Flexor Digitorum Longus
Tibialis Posterior
All run through the Tarsal Tunnel
15
Q
This muscle of the posterior leg provides support for the longitudinal arches of the foot
A
Flexor Digitorum Longus
16
Q
This muscle is the primary inverter muscle for the posterior leg. What is important component of this association?
A
Tibialis Posterior
This is the secondary plantar flexor the foot, the first is Tibialis Anterior
17
Q
What is the largest branch of the sciatic N?
A
Tibial N
18
Q
What does the Tibial N innervate?
A
All muscles of Posterior Leg
Cutaneous inn of the knee, leg, and lateral plantar N
19
Q
When does the popliteal A become the Posterior Tibial A?
A
After passing below popliteus
20
Q
What does the Tibial N do in the foot?
A
Splits to medial and lateral Plantar N
21
Q
What nerve gives rise to the Medial and Lateral Plantar N?
A
Tibial N
22
Q
The posterior tibial A terminates below the flexor retinaculum and:
A
Splits into the medial and lateral plantar A
23
Q
Where is the flexor retinaculum of the ankle?
A
Spans between the medial malleolus towards the posterior direction and inserts on the medial surface of the calcaneous
24
Q
What structures comprise the tarsal tunnel
A
- Tendons of Flexor Digitorum Longus
- Tendons of Flexor Hallucus Longus
- Tibial N, V, A
- Tendon of Tibialis Posterior
25
What are the primary muscles involved in plantar flexion?
Muscles of Triceps Surae: Gastrocnemius & Soleus
26
What muscles are the secondary plantar flexors?
Popliteus
Tibialis Posterior
Flexor Digitorum Longus
Flexor Hallucus Longus
27
What is the significance of the movement: plantar flexion
Initiates/generates the power to start walking, to push off the ground
28
Why does the gastrocnemius muscle aid in knee extensino?
Due to its origin from the medial and lateral epicondyle of the femur. Crosses the knee joint
29
Which muscle has origins on two bones of the posterior leg?
What is the origin?
Soleus Muscle originates from the posterior aspect of fibular head, posterior fibula and soleal line of the tibia
30
_______ __________ is often involved in calf strains and contributes to Achilles tendinopathy due to its high-force output and frequent use
Triceps Surae
31
From where does the Sural N arise?
Lateral & Medial Sural Nerve converge
32
What does the Sural N innervate?
Sensory innervation for the lateral and posterior lower third of the leg
33
What nerve of the posterior leg is used for conduction studies and nerve grafts?
Sural Nerve
34
What muscles form the Calcaneal Tendon?
Gastrocnemius & Soleus Tendons
35
What is the expected response of the Calcaneal Tendon Reflex?
Plantar Flexion
36
What is the origin and insertion of Popliteus muscle?
Origin: Lateral surface of lateral femoral condyle & lateral meniscus
Insertion: Posterior surface of tibia
37
This muscle of the posterior leg is a ________________ muscle. It “unlocks” the extended knee by laterally rotating the femur on a fixed tibia, initiating knee flexion.
Deep Muscle (below plantaris muscle)
Popliteus muscle
38
1.) The Flexor Hallucis Longus inserts:
2.) Primary flexor of the great toe, assists in ____________ of the ankle, and supports ________________ ____________ arch
1. Flexor Hallucis Longus inserts on distal phalanx of the great toe
2. Primary flexor of the great toe, assists in plantarflexion of the ankle, supports medial longitudinal arch
39
Where does the Flexor Digitorum Longus insert?
Bases of distal phalanges of the lateral four toes
40
Which is more medial?
Which is more lateral?
Flexor Digitorum Longus
Flexor Hallicus Longus
Laterall: Flexor Hallicus longus
Medial: Flexor Digitorum Longus
41
List the 2 proximal branches of the Posterior Tibial Artery
Anterior Tibial A then the Fibular Artery
42
Pain, numbness, and tingling along the medial ankle and into the sole of the foot may indicate:
Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome with compression neuropathy of the Tibial N
43
What motor innervation does the sural nerve provide?
None! Sensory only of lateral and posterior third of leg, lateral foot, 5th toe
44
The ______________ nerve is formed by the untion of the medial sural cutaneous N and Lateral sural cutaneous N
Sural
45
From where does the Medial Sural N arise?
Tibial N
46
From where does the lateral sural cutaneous N arise?
Common fibular N
47
Describe bacterial gene expression in the presence of surplus Histadine
- Transcription & Translation occur at same time
- In surplus of His, the process will be fast and a hairpin loop will form that will halt transcription
- DOWNregulate entire process
48
Describe bacterial gene expression in the presence of low Histadine level
- Transcription translation occur at same time
- Transcription process will have to wait for His to be synthesized and will allow for a pro-transcription hairpin loop to form
- Upregulalte transcription
49
Describe levels of cAMP when Glucose is present
cAMP levels are low
50
Describe levels of cAMP when Glucose is low
cAMP is higher
51
1. The lac operon is always present in bacteria, but only active under what circumstances?
2. What activates the operon?
1. When glucose levels are low and the bacteria is forced to used Lactose for energy
2. cAMP levels up which bind to CAP protein that recruits RNA polymerase. The presence of Lactose itself removes the repressor from the operator
52
Repressors bind to:
This _________________ translation and transcription
Operators
decreases transcription/translation
53
Activators bind to:
This ____________________ transcription/translation
Promoter or Operator
54
Attenuation of Histadine operation is defined as:
A premature termination of transcription
55
List three overarching concepts for Eukaryotic Gene Expression
1. Trans-acting and cis-acting elements to regulated transcription
2. Control access to DNA
3. Post-transcriptional control
56
How do cis-acting elements alter gene expression?
Regulatory sequences of DNA are embedded in noncoding regions of the genome. They influence expression of genes only on the same chromosome
57
Describe trans-acting factors and their influence on eukaryotic gene expression
It describes the regulatory molecules themselves, such that they can diffuse through the cell from its site of synthesis to its DNA-binding site
58
Where does RNA polymerase bind to in eukaryotic cells?
Promotor region
59
What transcription factor binds to the TATA box promoter?
Is the TATA box eukaryotic or prokaryotic?
TATA box is found in Eukaryotic cells. It binds Transcription Factor IID (TF IID)
60
What transcription factor binds CCAT box promoter?
Is this in Eukaryotic or Prokaryotic cells?
CCAT box is found in Eukaryotic cells and binds NFI transcription factor
61
What are TFIID, Sp1 and NFI?
General transcription factors
62
Define Enhancer and give 2 components
Enhancers are sites on DNA that bind specific transcription factors
1. May be up to 1000 base pairs away from a gene
2. My be upstream, downstream or within an intron of the gene they control
63
What is the significance of Ig heavy chain locus?
1. Ig heavy chain locus has an enhancer in the large intron
2. The enhancer can bring itself closer to the promoter DNA region to exert its effects
64
When looking for a core promotor during enhancer mapping, what should you look for?
When that region of DNA is deleted, does all or most of transcription halt?
Since the promoter is required for the start of DNA transcription
65
When looking for a silencer in DNA enhancer mapping, what should you look for?
Look for a region that when deleted causes transcription rate to increase
66
What should you look for when finding an enhancer in Enhancer Mapping of DNA?
Look for a region that when deleted does not halt transcription but makes the rates drop
67
Describe cancer hijacking in cancer using MYC transcription factor
MYC is a transcription factor that hijacks IgH Enhancer on chromosome 8 and translocates it to chromosome 14
68
Myc is a transcription factor that hijacks Igh Enchancer translocating it from chromosome ____ to chromosome ___. Recognized as t(__:___), it is associated with ________ lymphoma
Myc is a transcription factor that hijacks Igh enhancer translocating it from chromosome 8 to 14. Recognized a t(8:14), it is associated with Burkitt’s Lymphoma
69
What is BCL-2 and its relation to enhancer hijacking?
When BCL-2 hijacks IgH enhancer translocating it from chromosome 14 to chromosome 18
70
When BCL-2 translocates IgH enhancer from chromsome ___ to chromosome ____ it is known as t(___:____). Causing __________ lymphoma
When BCL-2 translocated IgH enhancer from chromosome 14 to chromosome 18 it is written as t(14:18). It is associated with follicular lymphoma
71
What is vital for transcription factors to work?
Transcription factors must bind to a DNA sequence!
72
What is “DBD?”
What is its purpose?
DNA binding domain
It is a feature of Transcription factor proteins.
It is where they attach to a specific sequence of DNA adjacent to the genes they regulate
73
T/F: Coactivators, chromatin remodlers, kinases are all examples of transcription factors?
False, they are proteins that are associated with transcription but are separate than transcription factors
74
List 4 types of DNA Binding domains
1. Zinc Finger
2. Leucine Zippers
3. Helix-loop-Helix
4. Helix-turn-Helix
75
Describe the activation domain and its importance to transcription factors
This domain interacts with other proteins and thereby increases rate of transcription. Allows TF to:
1. bind to other TF
2. Interact with RNAP II to stabilize formation of initiation complex
3. Recruit-chromatin-modifying proteins, ie. histone decetylases
76
Give two examples of Zinc Finger DBD?
What are DBD?
1. Steroid hormone receptors
2. PPAR
- Zinc Finger DNA Binding Domain (DBD) are a component of transcription factors
77
List 2 Leucine Zipper DNA binding domains
1. cAMP-dependent transcription factor AKA CREB
2. Myc
78
List examples of Helix-Loop-Helix DBD
Helix-Loop-Helix DNA Binding Domain:
1. Basic HLH transcription factors
2. HIF-1
79
Give an example of Helix-Turn-Helix DNA binding domain
Helix Turn Helix: Homeodomain proteins by homeotic/homeobox genes
80
PEX-3 is a Homeobox Gene that is influenced by _______-_______-__________ DBD.
Helix Turn Helix
81
What type of DBD is HIF-1 associated with?
Helix-Loop-Helix
82
_______s are transcription factors that respond to hypoxia and pseudohypoxia. Upregulation of ____-1 can induce polycythemia.
HIF are transcription factors that respond to hypoxia and pseudohypoxia
Upregulation of HIF-1 can induce polycythemia
83
Mutation of what gene can cause Klein-Waardenburg Syndrome?
What are some associated symptoms?
1. PAX-3 gene mutation = Klein-Waardenburg Syndrome
2. Symptoms: Dystopia canthorum (lateral displacement of corner of eye), front white blaze of hair, congenital deafness, limb abnormalities
84
Describe the difference between DNA chromatin remodeling vs. modification.
What is their significance?
1. DNA chromatin remodeling & modification both influence control of DNA gene expression
2. Remodeling: Forcing DNA strands to open using ATP
Modification: using phosphorylation, methylation, ubiquitination to make DNA more available/less available for transcription
85
List 2 ways histones can be modified to influence DNA chromatin availability
1. Acetylation
2. Phosphorylation
86
Why does Histone acetylation increase DNA transcription?
Histone Acetylation is adding lysine (- charged) to the histone DNA complex. Histone (+) with DNA (-) and Lys (-) make for overall repulsion so the DNA is easier to access for transcription
87
Describe Histone phosphorylation and its influence on chromatin modification
Adding phosphate group (- charge) to Histone/DNA complex makes: Histone (+) with DNA (-) and Phosphate (-) to create overall negative charge and cause repulsion which makes DNA segment more available to DNA transcription
88
Removing ______________ & _____________ from Histone/DNA complex downregulates transcription
Deacytelation and Dephosphorylation downregulate transcription
89
How is DNA Methylation in prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes varied?
The purpose in both varies
Eukaryotes: can control/influence gene expression
Prokaryotes: Protect DNA from being cleaved from enzymes. Helps prokaryotes identify which DNA is foreign and which is endogenous
90
During DNA methylation to regulate gene expression, where is the metyl group added?
The methyl group is added to position 5 of cytosine
91
Does DNA Methylation downregulate or upregulate gene expression? How?
Addition of + charge methyl group gives the DNA (-)/Histone (+) complex and overall + charge to encourage tighter bound complex to make DNA Less available to transcription
92
DNA methylation is essential for genomic imprinting and _____ __________ _____________
X chromosome inactivation
93
1. Controlling RNA processing is a way to:
2. One way to do this is via Alternative RNA splicing. Explain
1. Controlling RNA processing is a way to influence translation and overall gene expression
2. Alternative RNA splicing is varying the removal of exons to generate a variety of proteins from mRNA
94
Describe how alternative RNA splicing can influence Fas Receptors?
Fas receptors are made by Fas Gene.
Fas receptor promotes apoptosis and normally includes exon 6. If this exon is removed it can induce cancer due to d/c regulated cell death. RNA splicing induces edits to introns and exons on DNA
95
Describe RNA Editing in the context influencing translation
RNA editing uses a guide RNA that has a complementary sequence to the mRNA target sequence. The guide rNA can induce a stop codon to preterminate translation and change proteins
96
How can RNA editing influence apolipoproteins in humans?
APO B48 is in intestines
APO B100 is in liver
Can use RNA editing with a Guide RNA to insert a stop codon on APO B100 to pre-terminate translation and make an APO B48 protein
97
Describe RNA Degradation control in its relation to influencing translation and inhibition of oncogenes
Can use double stranded siRNA or miRNA to induce gene silencing by degrading specific mRNA sections
98
PHD1 inhibits HIF via _______________.
VHL inhibits HIF via ______________. What are HIF?
PHD1 inhibits HIF via hydroxylation
VHL inhibits HIF via ubiquination
Hypoxia Inducible Factors: can make erythropoietin
99
siRNA are ___________ while miRNA are _____________ both can be used to induce RNA degredation.
siRNA are exogenous
miRNA are endogenous
both can be used to induce RNA degredation
100
Describe the steps of exogenous siRNA inducing RNA degredation
1. Dicer enzyme cuts siRNA strands
2. RISC enzyme comes and splits the mRNA double strand into single strands
3. siRNA is guided to its complement on the target mRNA. siRNA induces cleavage of complement mRNA on certain sections to SILENCE that section
101
Describe how endogenous miRNA induces RNA degredation
miRNA are made in the nucleus and bind to specific mRNA to inhibit translocation
102
How does IRP influence transferrin receptor and ferritin?
IRP is a protein that binds to the 5’ end of ferritin mRNA or 3’ end of trasferrin mRNA. Depending on where it binds will influence what translation
103
1. Describe how IRP influences stem loop ferritin mRNA.
2. Under what circumstances would this occur?
1. IRP binds to 5’ stem loop of mRNA. This stops translation of ferritin
2. When iron levels are low, iron does not need to be stored in the cell. Ferritin stores iron, thus when there are low iron levels, IRP would bind to 5’ mRNA stem loop
104
1. Describe how IRP influences Transferrin Receptor (TfR) stem loop mRNA.
2. Under what circumstances would IRP bind to TfR mRNA?
1. IRP binds to 3’ stem loop TfR mRNA. This protects the mRNA from degradation
2. Transferrin receptor induces iron uptake into the cell. Thus when iron levels are low, iron would need to be able to get into the cell and IRP would bind to 3’ mRNA
105
Under what circumstances would IRP **not** be bound to 3’ stem loop TfR mRNA?
When IRP is not bound to 3’ stem loop of Transferrin Receptor mRNA; the mRNA is vulnerable to degradation.
When iron levels are **HIGH**, iron does not need to be moved in the cell, so this would indicate for the IRP protein to disassociate from Tfr mRNA
106
IRP protein can bind to Ferritin mRNA as well as:
1.
2.
2a.
1. FPN
2. HIF-1 α
2a. HIF-2 α
107
IRP protein binds at ______ _________ ____________ on mRNA of ferritin, ________, & __________
IRP protein binds at 5’ stem loop on mRNA of ferritin, FPN & HIF-1 α
108
ΙRP binds on ________ _________ __________ of mRNA ________ & DMT-1
IRP binds on 3’ stem loop of mRNA transferrin receptor (TfR) and DMT-1
109
What do nucleases do to mRNA?
Nucleases can degrade DNA or RNA by breaking phophodiester bonds
110
What does RNAP III do?
Makes tRNA, snRNA and 5sRNA
111
How does 2’-5’ oligoadenylate synthethase contribute to viral infection?
2’-5’ Oligoadenylate synthetase reacts to interferon signal to make 2’-‘5 oligodenylates that activates latent ribonuclease that which degrades both host and viral RNA
112
What does Oligo 2’-5’ adenylate do?
Makes enzymes that activate latent ribonucleases to degrade viral and host RNA to stop viral infection
113
________________ nerves release norepinephrine at their nerve endings. They are also called _____________ ___________.
Sympathetic nerves release norepinephrine at their nerve endings. They are also called adrenergic nerves.
114
Parasympathetic nerves release __________________ at their nerve endings. They are also called _______________ ______________.
Parasympathetic nerves release AcH at their nerve endings. They are also called cholinergic nerves.
115
From what amino acid are norepinephrine and epinephrine made?
Tyrosine
116
AcH is a combination of _______________ & ______________
AcH is a combination of Acetyl-CoA and choline
117
Tyrosine > ______________ > _____________ > norepinephrine > epinephrine
Tyrosine > DOPA > Dopamine > Norepinephrine > Epinephrine is the order of synthesis
118
1. What is the name of the tumor on the adrenal gland?
2. What ANS system does it activate?
1. Pheochromocytoma
2. Secretes catecholamines & thus up regulates the Sympathetic NS
119
Chatecholamines act on what receptors?
α & β adrenergic receptors
120
What type of receptors are on Skeletal muscle?
N1 receptors
121
List 5 places α1 receptors are found:
1. Arteries 2. Radial muscles of eye 3. Pilomotor contraction 4. Intestinal sphincter contraction 5. Bladder sphincter contraction
122
What is the mechanism of action for α1 receptors?
Is a Gq protein. Stimulates phospholipase C, increase IP3 & intracellular Ca+. Also increases protein kinase C
123
Where are β2 receptors found?
1.Peripheral vascular smooth muscle 2. Lungs 3. GI tract and bladder
124
Where are β1 receptors found?
Brain, SA Node, AV node & ventricles
125
Clonidine may be used to treat HTN by activating what receptors of which division of the ANS??
Activate α2 receptors (Gi) to block norepinephrine release to the Sympathetic NS
126
_______________, a mushroom poison, is an agonist for muscarinic receptors
Muscarine
127
All glands are ______ receptors and part of the ____________ NS, except __________ ___________ which are ________________ NS
All glands are M3 receptors which are part of the PNS. Sweat glands are also M3 glands but are part of the SNS
128
What muscarinic receptors are found in the heart? Are they excitatory or inhibitory?
M2 receptors are found in the heart. They are under parasympathetic control and thus are inhibitory
129
What blocks muscarinic receptors?
Atropine
130
Describe the mechanism of M2 receptors causing inhibitory activity in the heart
M2 is a Gi protein. Inhibits Adenylate cyclase and allows K+ to leave the cell and depolarize the cell. Since M2 receptors are in the AV node, the HR is decreased
131
M3 receptors are found in the GI and increase what function:
M3 Receptors are Gq proteins which excite cells. They stimulate peristalsis
132
Parasympathetic control in the heart occurs in what part?
Parasympathetic control exerts its effects on the atria only @ the AV node
133
Describe how the Sympathetic NS exerts its effects on the eye. Include: receptor type, which muscle & their action
Sympathetic NS: Uses α1 receptors to contract the Radial Muscle of the eye. The contraction of the muscle causes pupillary dilation
134
Describe how the Parasympathetic NS exerts its effects on the eye. Include: receptor type, muscle(s) involved, their action.
PNS: M3 (Gq) receptors of the sphincter muscle of the eye cause contraction.
135
To dilate the eyes for examination, what type of drop is applied to the eye?
M3 antagonist drops are used to prevent the PNS from activating the M3 (Gq) receptor from activating and constricting the pupillary constrictor
136
What ANS system has receptors on the lens of the eye allowing for the eye to focus vision?
PNS has M3 receptors on the lenses of the eyes for focusing
137
The sympethetic system majorly uses adrenergic receptors except for:
138
Which ANS division exerts the least effect on the GI smooth muscle?
Sympathetic NS has very little effect on the GI tract
139
1. What receptors of the sympathetic NS act on the heart?
2. What receptors of the parasympathetic NS act on the heart?
1. Sympathetic: β1 to increase HR and contractility
2. Parasympathetic: M2 to decrease HR via SA only
140
What division of the ANS controls the majority of blood vessel contraction?
α1 receptors of the sympathetic NS cause vasoconstriction
141
Where in the body does parasympathetic activity cause vasodilation?
Blood vessel constriction is majority sympathetic. Vasodilation occurs via M3 receptors for sexual function
142
When stimulated the adrenal medulla secretes:
Epinephrine & Norepinephrine, 80% being epi
143
When the bladder is filling with urine, _______________ NS predominates. When the bladder is full, ____________ predominates.
When the bladder is filling with urine, sympathetic control predominates. When the bladder is full with urine the parasympathetic NS predominates
144
Which body systems only have SNS innervation?
1. Sweat glands
2. Vascular Smooth Muscle (α1)
3. Pilomotor muscles of skin (α1) 4. Liver adipose tissue 5. Kidney
145
Where in the body is the detrusor muscle found?
Muscle that contracts in the bladder to excrete urine
146
What receptors on the detrusor muscle are under sympathetic control? Why does the sympathetic system relax these muscles when they normally contract muscles?
β2 & β3 receptors relax the detrusor muscle. Additionally relaxing the muscles will allow the bladder to fill and stay filled during increased sympathetic activation
147
How does the parasympathetic system exert its effects on the detrusor muscle and external sphincter of the ______________?
- Contracts the detrusor muscle via M3 receptors & Relaxes the internal sphincter with Nitric Oxide acting on Muscarinic receptors
148
The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes ________________ which can increase BP. _______ antagonists can counteract these Gs protein to decrease its release.
The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes renin which can increase BP. β1 antagonists can counteract Gs receptors to decrease renin release
149
Primary Hyperhydrosis is treated with anti-_____________. Why?
Anti-cholenergics. This is because sweat glands are M3 receptors that act with AcH which are cholinergic
150
Pure autonomic failure is a disorder of the __________________ NS. It is more common in _______________.
Pure autonomic failure is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system. It is more common in women
151
Pure autonomic failure is a disorder of the ________________ NS. Symptoms include: (3)
Pure autonomic failure is a disorder of the sympathetic system. Symptoms include: postural hypotension, impotence, bladder dysfunction, and impaired sweating
152
_____________________ inactivates Acetylcholinesterase. Explain the effects including which division of the ANS is majorly effected.
Organophosphate poisoning inactivates AcHE. This means AcH that is being secreted is not breaking down in the synapse and builds up. This allows for continued activation of Nicotinic and Muscarinic receptors. Majorly effects PNS
153
List 4 major systems of organophosphate poisioning and why both the SNS and PNS are affected
1. Small pupils (PNS) 2. Muscle tremors 3. Sweating 4. Saliva & Tear production. Both are up-regulated because AcH is building up in the synaptic cleft and activating Muscarinic receptors of the ANS & PNS
154
What do pheochromocytomas induce the release of?
Catecholamine excess including Norepi, Epi, Dopamine
155
What is the term for the structure that implants on the uterine wall after fertilization?
Blastocyst
156
List the order of sperm synthesis
1. Spermatogonium
2. Primary spermatocyte
3. 2 seconday spermatocytes
4. 4 early spermatids
5. Late spermatids
157
Contrast the location of spermatogonium vs late spermatid in the seminiferous tubule
Spermatogonium will be closer to the basement membrane and as they mature will move closer to the lumen side
158
What is the term for spermatid once they are motile?
Spermatozoa
159
The midpiece of spermatozoa are filled with ____________. Why?
The midpiece of spermatozoa are filled with mitochondria for ample energy to travel through the reproductive tract
160
What is the final layer of the oocyte must be penetrated by the spermatid for fertilization to occur?
Zona pellucida
161
List the stages of oocyte maturation
1. Primary oocyte
2.Follicle maturation
3. Meiosis I produces secondary oocyte and polar body
4. Ovulation
5. Meiosis 2 produces mature oocyte with 3 polar bodies
162
What structure supports the oocyte follicle/fertilized zygote before a placenta is available?
Corpus luteum
163
What must occur for the sperm to penetrate the oocyte and for nuclei fusing to occur?
Enzyme released from spermatid to break down zona pelludica
164
When the blastocyts implants in the uterine wall, name two vital layers that begin to form and are considered the “true embryo”
1. Hypoblast
2. Epiblast
165
During growth, the hypoblast will generate the ______________ while the epiblast will generate the _______________.
Hypoblast = endoderm
Epiblast = ectoderm
166
Within what structure of the bilaminar germ does the amniotic cavity begin to form?
Forms within the epiblast
167
What are trophoblastic lacuna?
Pockets of blood filled space near the blastocyst that expand into the uterine endometrium. Will give rise to the umbilical vessels
168
During bilaminar blastocyst growth, 3 major cativites will form. List them, location & purpose
1. Yolk sac will form superficial to the hypoblast layer. Provides nutrients until placenta forms
2. Amniotic cavity: expands within the epiblast. Will surround the embryo
3. Chorionic cavity: forms external to the embryo and will later form the surface of the placenta
169
What is the major function of gastrulation?
- To transform the bilaminar blastocyst to trilaminar
- Forms Mesoderm
170
Epiblast forms: _______________ which forms:
Hypoblast forms: _____________ which forms:
Mesoderm forms:
Epiblast forms: Ectoderm which forms external tissue
Hypoblast forms: Endoderm which forms internal organs
Mesoderm forms: MSK, CV system, skin, internal systems
171
Which layer of the bilaminar germ disc differentiates into the mesoderm during ________________?
Epiblast cells push towards the hypoblast to begin to form the mesoderm. This occurs during gastrulation, ~ DAY 16 fertilization
172
What is the significance of the primitive streak during embryonic development?
The direction of the primitive streak determines which end will be rostral and which is caudal
173
Rostral:
Caudal:
Rostral: Oropharyngeal
Caudal: Anal
174
Which layer of the trilaminar embryo forms the notocord?
What is a notocord?
1. Mesoderm cells will form a fold/tube structure that beings to form the notochord
2. Notocord is an embryonic structure that gives rise to spine
175
Contrast the structures that are formed from the Notocord vs. Somites
Notocord: Spine
Somite: Vertebrae, bones, myotomes & dermatomes
176
GI tract and respiratory system are formed by __________________ during embryonic development
Endoderm
177
What trilaminar layer gives rise to the somites?
What trilaminar layer gives rise to the notocord?
Somite: mesoderm
Neural Tube: ectoderm
178
Describe the formation of the neural plate
Prechordal plate + Notocord = Neural Plate with neural groove bisecting it
179
In what direction does the neural tube develop?
Caudal to rostral (butt to head)
180
The neural plate gives rise to the _______________ by deepening and becoming enclosed by the endoderm.
Neural Tube
181
Vertebrae are formed by what trilaminar layer during embryonic development? Why?
Mesoderm
- The mesoderm gives rise to somites that are on either side of the notochord. The somites form vertebrae
182
The choroid plexus emerges during brain development. It makes _______________ that replaces _____________ ____________.
The choroid plexus within the forming ventricles of the brain make CSF that replace amniotic fluid
183
1. Defects of anterior neuropore closure can result in:
2. Define this disorder/defect
1. Defects of anterior neuropore closure can result in anencephally
2. Anencephally is a failure for brain to develop in the cranial cavity
184
______________ are premature somites. The somites will eventually form vertebrae. In order to do so they must undergo a division into:
1.
2.
Somitomeres are premature somites
Somites will differentiate into
1. Sclerotomes
2. Dermamyotome
185
1. What do sclerotomes give rise to?
2. What do dermamytomes give rise to?
3. From what structure do these layers both arise?
1. Sclerotomes form bones
2. Demamyotomes form dermis and muscle
3. Arise from somites
186
After sclerotomes form vertebra, the ________________ induces formation of the gelatinous core of the discs, __________ _____________ and finally ______________.
After sclerotomes form vertebrae, the notocord induces formation of the gelatinous core of the discs: nucleus pulposus and then degenerates
187
Formation of the annulus fibrosis starts from ______________ cells. The formation of the nucleus pulposus starts from ____________ cells .
- The formation of the annulus fibrosis starts from sclerotomoal cells from the annulus fibrosis
- The formation of the nucleus pulposus is from the notochord
188
Spina Bifida conditions are a defect of what structure?
Defect of the vertebral column where the vertebral arches failed for fully form and surround the spinal cord
189
What is the difference between Spina Bifida Cystica and Spina Bifida Occulta is:
- Cystica: Herniation of meninges only or meninges and spinal cord out of the spinal canal
- Occulta: Failure of closure of the spinal canal and vertebral column without herniation and formation of cyst
190
Defects of closure of the cranium can result in:
1. Meningeocele: cranial meninges herniate
2. Meningohydroencephalocele: Meninges, brain tissue, & ventricles herniated
191
__________________ & _________________ ______________ include defects throughout the spine including cleft vertebrae, hemivertebrae (failure of fusion of each side of vertebrae, kyphoscoliosis, rib fusions)
Spondylothoracic and spondylocostal dysostosis
192
What is the cause of cervical dysostosis?
What is cervial dysotosis?
1. Cervical dysostosis is caused by genetic mutation
2. Fused cervical vertebrae
193
______________ syndrome shows “butterfly vertebrae” with a midline cleft caused by:
Alagille syndrome: “butterfly vertebrae” showing midline cleft. Caused by genetic mutation wherein L & R sides of the vertebrae do not fuse together
194
What is the cause of congenital scoliosis?
Genetic mutation
195
The neural ______________ is the origin of all components of the PNS. This means:
- Neural crest is the origin of all components of the peripheral NS
- Neural crest will give rise to all the neurons whose cells bodies are located outside CNS-nerves, ganglia, plexsus
196
__________ _________: PNS, Arachnoid, PIA (dura derived from mesoderm)
__________ ___________: brain & spinal cord
Neural crest: PNS
Neural Tube: brain & spinal cord
197
T/F: Endoderm gives rise to sclerotomes that make ribs from extensions of the vertebrae. Once reach a certain stage, ribs will break away and re-articulate with the vertebrae
False, MESODERM gives rise to sclerotomes. Sclerotomes will give rise to ribs.
198
What is the condition that is equivalent of spina bifida occulta that occurs when there is failure of fusion of part of the midline that leaves thoracic organs covered by skin and soft tissue only?
Cleft sternum
199
What is the difference between pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum?
Pectus excavatum: depressed sternum that appears sunken
Pectus carinatum: anterior displaced sternum with flattened chest
200
Osteogeneisis Imperfecta Type II is:
Lethal skeletal dysplasia wherein defects of the thoracic cage lead to lung hypoplasia
201
What drives limb bud growth and directs their direction & differentiation?
Limb Bud Growth in proximal to distal axis is established by Hox genes
202
Limb Bud Growth in proximal to distal axis is established by genes. Which genes?
Hox (Homeobox) genes
203
Genes specific to mesoderm or ectoderm establish axis and induce mutual growth of limbs:
Most proximal signals induce _______________ structures (__________ or _____________). Most distal signals induce _____________ structures (__________ or ___________). Immediate zone genes induce ______________ structures ( ______________ or leg)
1. Most proximal structures induce stylopod structures, e.g. humerus or femur
2. Most distal signals induce autopod structures, e.g. hand or foot
3. Intermediate zone genes induce zeugopod structures, e.g. forearm or leg
204
Hox genes regulate ____________ expression which induces/determines digit formation
Hox genes regulate Shhh expression which induces/determines digit formation
205
Define: ameila
Failure to form structure resulting in total absence of structure
206
What is syndactyly?
Failure of webbing to degrade between digits during development
207
Duplication of set of toes in feet of patient with Laurin-Sandrow syndrome could be cause by:
Shh expression pattern since Shh expression drives digit formation
208
This medication was used in the 50’s and 60’s as an anti-nausea medication. However, is no longer used due to the incidence of amelia.
Thalidomide
209
How does the parasympathetic system protect the respiratory system?
Broncho-constriction/Broncho-secretion
210
Cholinoceptors respond to:
Acetylcholine
211
Cholinoceptors respond to:
Acetylcholine
212
1. Adrenoceptors respond to:
2. Adrenoceptors include:
1. Adrenoceptors respond to epinephrine and norephineprhine
2. α receptors, β receptors, Dopaminergic receptors
213
What does SLUDGE stand for?
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urinary incontinence
Diarrhea
GI cramps
Emesis
- Drug effects of Cholinergic Agents
214
1. Phenylephrine is a _____-__________ drug.
2. It is used topically as a nasal decongestant, why is side effect reflex bradycardia and BP?
1. Phenylephrine is an α1 agonist
2. It causes vasoconstriction which increases both systolic and diastolic BP=HTN. The increased pressure from vasoconstriction also activates baroreceptors that react to lower the HR
215
________________ and ______________ are selective α2 agonists. Explain the mechanism of how they are used to treat essential HTN
- Clonidine and methyldopa are selective α2 agonists
- α2 = Gi protein which decreases sympathetic outflow to heart and vessels
216
Compare and contrast the mechanism of action between Albuterol and Formoterol
- Both are selective β2 agonists
- Albuterol is a short acting drug for acute asthma attack/COPD
- Formoterol is longer acting drug for asthma and COPD. Lasts 12-14 hrs
217
Why does pseudoephedrine stimulate the CNS?
α & β agonist (mostly α1) which both increase sympathetic NS activity
218
An α ___________ might be considered for use in patient with hypotension. While α ____________ antagonists might be considered for use in patients with HTN.
α1 AGONIST: for HypOtension α1 ANTAGONIST: for HTN
219
Compare and contrast Phenoxybenzamine to Phentolamine & Prazosin.
1. All of these are nonselective α1 & α2 antagonists 2. Phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible acting drug 3. Phentolamine & Prazosin are short acting and can be overridden by Adrenaline to reverse its effects
220
Of the following drugs, which could have its effects reversed with adrenaline? Phentolamine, Phenoxybenzamine, Prazosin?
Phentolamine & Prazosin can both be displaced by adrenaline to have their effects of increasing blood pressure reversed
221
What nonselective alpha antagonist would be used in patients with pheochromocytoma to protect against hypertensive crisis? Why?
Phenoxybenzamine should be used since it is an irreversible drug and cannot be displaced by the copious amounts of adrenaline that are secreted by the tumor
222
Adrenaline = _______________. Noradrenaline = _______________.
Adrenaline is epinephrine. Noradrenaline is norepinephrine
223
Epinephrine is _________________. Norepinephrine is ___________________.
Epinephrine is adrenaline. Norepinephrine is noradrenaline
224
Epinephrine is _________________. Norepinephrine is ___________________.
Epinephrine is adrenaline. Norepinephrine is noradrenaline
225
Name a selective α1a antagonist. Based on its receptor action, what might you expect this drug to do?
α1A antagonist. Since it is an antagonist would induce relaxation
226
What are some disorders treated with Tamsulosin? What type of receptors does it affect?
Tamsulosin is used to improve urine flow and tx benign prostatic hypertrophy. It is a selective α1A antagonists so induces relaxation. Particularly relaxes smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostate
227
The suffix “-lol” indicates what about a drug
It is a β-adrenoreceptor blocker
228
List three common selective β1 antagonists
1. Atenolol 2. Bisoprolol 3. Metoprolol
229
The following drugs, Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Metoprolol are all considered:
Selective β1 antagonists
230
The following drugs, Propranolol, Pindolol, Timolol are considered:
Nonselective β1 & β2 antagonists
231
List three common nonselective β1 & β2 antagonists
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Pindolol
232
List 2 common mixed α, β receptor blocking drugs
1. Carvedilol 2. Labetolol
233
What type of drug are carvedilol and Labetalol?
Mixed α, β receptor blockers
234
List 3 of the major pharmacological actions of β adrenergic blockers
1. Anti-aginal effects
2. Anti-arrhythmic effects
3. Anti-hypertensive effects
235
Describe how β-adrenergic blockers have anti-anginal effects
- since β receptors are Gs proteins, the adrenergic blockers will have inhibitory effect on the body
- decrease HR since β receptors in the heart
- decrease force of contraction = decrease cardiac work
- decrease O2 consumption due to bradycardia
236
Discuss how β adrenergic blockers exert anti-arrhythmic effects
- Since β receptors are Gs proteins, the blockers would exhibit inhibitory effects
- Decrease excitability
- decrease automaticity -decrease conductivity due to overall sympathetic blocking
237
β2 adrenergic blockers can cause cold extremities due to:
β2 blockers block vasodilation, this increases peripheral resistance which decreases blood flow to organ. This decrease in blood flow = cold extremities
238
Choloinomimetics can act __________ or ________________. ______________ are reversible or irreversible and known as _________________. While ____________ acting parasympathomimetics are known as ____________________ or ____________________.
Cholinomimetics are either direct acting or indirect acting. Indirect acting ANTIcholinesterases are either reversible or reversible. Direct acting parasympathomimetics are either muscarinic receptor agonists or nicotinic receptor agonists.
239
The following drugs are __________ ______________ that mimic the actions of ___________ but have a longer half life.
Bethanechol
Carbachol
Methacholine
Pilocarpine
Muscarinic agonists
The following drugs: Bethanechol, Carbachol, Methacholine, Pilocarpine
240
Bethanechol:
1.
2.
used in the treatment of _________ _______________ in post op or during gastric atony. It is a _______ ________ ___________
Bethanechol is a Muscarinic receptor agonist.
1. Increases tone
2. Increase motility of bladder used in treatment of urinary retention
241
__________________ & ______________ are muscarinic receptors __________ used to decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma. Which is the preferred drug? Why?
- Pilocarpine & carbachol are muscarinic receptor agonists used to treat intraocular pressure in glaucoma
- Pilocarpine is preferred
- Carbachol is restricted due to nicotinic effects in autonomic ganglia
242
What is Xerostomia?
Dry mouth condition that occurs after head and neck radiation tx or with Sjogren’s
243
_________________ is a _________________ receptor ________________ that is used to treat dry mouth aka:
Pilocarpine is a muscarinic receptor agonist used to treat Xerostomia which is a another name for dry mouth
244
Methacholine induces _________________. Thus it is used as a diagnostic tool for patients with _______________ as they are much more sensitive to its effects compared to the rest of the population.
Methacholine induces bronchoconstriction. Thus it is used for diagnostic purposes in patients with asthma as they are sensitive to the drug
245
This drug may be used in smokers due to its nicotinic acetylcholine receptor ____________ property
Varenicline is a nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist
246
Describe the mechanism of action of indirect cholinomemetics
They block acetylcholinesterases such that AcH breakdown is much less so the post-synaptic neuron receives more NT
247
Cholinesterase inhibitors are ______________ ________________ acting drugs
Cholinesterase inhibitors are indirect cholinomimetic acting drugs
248
What are two conditions treated with cholinesterase inhibitors. What type of drugs are these classified as?
Myasthenia Gravis and Alzheimers Disease/Dementia are treated with reversible Cholinesterase inhibitors which are indirect acting cholinomimetics
249
Organophosphates are _____________ _____________ ____________. They are also lipid soluble and thus can:
Organophosphates are irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors that are lipid soluble and thus can rapidly cross cell membranes including skin and blood-brain barrier
250
Organophosphates are _____________ _____________ ____________. They are also lipid soluble and thus can:
Organophosphates are irreversible
251
Atropine is a cholinergic antagonist. What effects might it exert?
Induce tachycardia due to blockage of M-2 receptors since it is an antagonist. Increases AV conduction
252
Both asthma and COPD are associated with bronchoconstriction. By blocking ___________ ___________ can cause ________________: which is why Ipratropium is used for asthma and COPD
Both asthma and COPD are associated with bronchoconstriction. By blocking muscarinic receptors can induce bronchodilation
253
What acronym can help remember the external rotators of the thigh?
Piece Of Shit, Go Quit Playing
Pectineus
Obturator Externus
Sartorius
Gluteus Maximus
Quadratus Femoris
Piriformis
254
What nerve innervates the dorsal web space between digits 1 & 2?
Deep fibular nerve
255
Which is more superficial, adductor longus or adductor brevis?
Adductor longus is more superficial
256
What muscle of the anterior thigh receive dual innervation
Pectineus innervated by Femoral and Obturator N
257
What is the origin of sartorius?
Origin: Anterior Superior Iliac Spine
Insertion: Medial surface proximal tibia, pes anserinus
258
What nerve innervates the extensor hallucis longus?
Deep fibular N
259
This nerve root provides cutaneous sensation to a portion of the back and the anterior portion of the thigh to the knee
L2
260
What is the action of the quadratus femoris?
External rotation of the hip
261
What is the action of the following muscles:
Superior & Inferior Gemellus
Obturator internus
Piriformis
External rotation of extended hip
Abduction of Flexed hip
262
What is the action of Pectineus?
Flexion and Adduction
263
Name 4 muscles that are responsible for internal rotation of the hip?
Gluteus Minimus
Gluteus Medius
Tensor Fascia Latae
Pectineus
264
Aside from the adductors, what other muscles adduct the thigh?
Pectineus & Gracilis
265
List 5 muscles that extend the hip?
1. Biceps Femoris (long head & short head)
2. Semitendinosus
3. Semimembranosus
4. Adductor magnus
5. Gluteus Maximus
266
What is the action of Sartorius?
Flexion & External rotation
267
List the superficial muscles of the dosal forearm
1. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
2. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
3. Extensor Digitorum
4. Extensor Digit Minimi
5. Extensor Carpi Ulnairs
6. Brachioradialis
268
List the deep muscles of the posterior forearm?
Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis longus
269
List the deep muscles of the posterior forearm?
Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis longus
Supinator
Extensor Indices
270
List sites for possible ectopic pregnancy
1. Uterine tube
2. Pelvic Cavity
3. Abdominal Cavity
271
What are the components of the blastocyst?
Epiblast & Hypoblast, the "true embryo"
272
From where do trophoblastic lacuna arise?
Cytotrophoblast
273
The ___________________________ will become the chorionic cavity. The chorionic cavity will surround
The cytotrophoblast will become the chorionic cavity. The chorionic will surround the amnionic cavity
274
Where will the yolk sak form?
Where will the amniotic cavity form?
Within the hypoblast
Amniotic cavity will form within the epiblast and expand to surround the embryo
275
______________________: failure of vertebral components to fuse, commonly involving the thoracic vertebrae, hence the term Spondylothoracic ______________________.
Dysostosis is the failure of vertebral components to fuse, commonly involving the thoracic vertebrae, hence the term Spondylothoracic Dysostosis
276
What does the Deep Femoral A supply?
The body of the femur
277
What artery supplies Vastus Lateralis?
lateral circumflex deep femoral artery
278
What nerve is impaired in foot drop?
What muscles are affected in this condition?
Common fibular N
Anterior & Lateral muscles since they are both supplied by branches of Common Fib
279
Foot drop is due to an impairment and what muscle action deficits?
Common Fibular N
- Dorsiflexion & Eversion
- Cannot heel strike, foot drop to floor
280
From where does the sural N arise?
What does this nerve innervate?
Branches of the Common Fibular N and Tibial Nerve come together to form the sural N
- Innervates Lateral posterior leg & lateral foot
281
This condition is characterized by pain at the tibial ____________________ due to the force generated by the patellar ligament. Commonly seen in overweight adolescent children.
Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is pain of the tibial tuberosity due to pulling force generated by patellar ligament
282
What is the significance of Gerdy's tubercle?
Where is it found?
- Gerdy's Tubercle is the location of IT band insertion
- Found on lateral condyle of proximal tibia
283
What is the location of IM injection?
Anterior and superior to PSIS & Greater trochanter
284
What Artery gives rise to Dorsalis pedis?
Anterior Tibial A
285
What is the fibularis tertius?
Include innervation and action
- Small muscle of the anterior compartment of the leg
- Lateral muscle that inserts on 5th metatarsal, originates from lateral distal fibula
- Eversion and dorsiflexion
- Deep fibular N since anterior compartment
286
Pain during palpation of the ischial tuberosity is indicative of what condition? What muscle is involved?
Ischial Bursitis is characterized by pain over the ischial tuberosity that increases with movement of gluteus maximus
287
What vein travels with the Sural N?
Small saphenous vein
288
List three structural classifications of Joints
- Synovial
- Fibrous
- Cartilaginous Joints
289
Name 3 functional classifications of joints & their movement capability
- Synarthrosis: not freely moveable
- Amphiarthoses: slightly moveable
- Diarthrosis: Freely moveable
290
Name the structural and functional classification of suture joints
- Suture joints may be found in the cranium
- Classified functionally as synarthrosis as they do not move
- Classified structurally as fibrous connection by fibrous connective tissue
291
Name structural and functional classification of syndesmosis joints
- Syndesmosis joints: bones connected by a ligament CT
- Classified functionally as amphiarthrosis-some movement
- Classified structurally as fibrous joint since connected by ligaments
292
What is the difference between knee joint and hip joint classification?
- Knee is considered a synovial joint since it has a joint capsule
- Hip is a cartilaginous joint since covered in articular cartilage and lacks a joint capsule with synovial fluid
293
Give an example of a pivot joint and describe the movement it allows:
- Pivot joint: Dens articulating with C1
- ROTATION ONLY
294
Why is the shoulder NOT considered a hinge joint?
- Opposing surface between humerus and scapula is small & flat
- glides & slides permitting greater movement than pivot for ex. in elbow which is Flexion and extension only
295
What is the difference between the carpometacarpal joints and metacarpophalangeal joint?
- Carpometacarpal joint: Saddle joint-abduction/adduction, flexion, extension, some circumduction
- Metacarpophalageal: condyloid joint-abduction/adduction, flexion and extension, more restricted
296
These ligaments form the _____________________ ligament.
Trapezoid ligament: located more distal
Conoid ligament: located more medial
Coraclavicular ligament
297
What hormone incurs negative feedback of prolactin secretion?
- Prolactin comes from the anterior pituitary
- Dopamine from the hypothalamus inhibits prolactin release in a negative feedback mechanism
298
What level of dopamine would incur elevated prolactin level?
Since dopamine has inhibitory effects on prolactin, decreased dopamine would allow increased level of prolactin secretion
299
Why does ACTH production from an ectopic tumor not cause excess cortisol release from the adrenal _____________________.
- Adrenal cortex releases cortisol
- Ectopic tumor releasing excess Adrenocorticotropic Releasing H (ACTH) does NOT exert same effects as would a pituitary tumor since it directly stimulates the adrenal cortex
300
Describe primary hypothyroidism
- Low levels of T3/T4 cause the pituitary gland to INCREASE release of TSH
- Loss of negative feedback by T3/T4
301
Describe the feedback mechanism of breast feeding
- Positive feedback mechanism wherein nipple stimulation increases oxytocin release
- Oxytocin induces milk ejection
302
What feedback mechanism induces continued cervix dilation during labor?
Positive feedback by cervical stretch on oxytocin secretion
303
Paravertebral forms the sympathetic chain from the ___________________________ NS
Paravertebral chain is associated with the Sympathetic chain ganglia
304
What does CN III control?
Is it PNS or SNS?
- CN III is Oculomotor CN that controls pupil constriction
- PNS
305
What does CN VII control?
PNS or SNS?
- CN VII is Facial CN
- Controls Tears and Salivation
- PNS
306
What does CN IX control?
PNS or SNS?
- CN IX is the Glossopharyngeal N that controls Salivation
- PNS
307
What does CN X control?
PNS or SNS?
- CN X is Vagus nerve that controls Vitals and digestion
- PNS
308
What do S2-S4 innervate?
PNS or SNS?
- S2-S4 is pelvic organ innervation by the Peripheral NS
- Pelvic Splanchnics
- PNS
309
What are the targets for pre-ganglions T1-T2?
SNS or PNS?
Head & neck
1. Iris
2. Sweat glands
3. Blood vessels
4. Mucosal membranes
5. Opposes salivary glands
SNS
310
What are the targets for preganglions T1-T4?
SNS or PNS?
Upper thoracic spinal cord
Heart & Lung
311
What are the targets for preganglions T5-L3?
SNS or PNS?
Abdominal Organs: Stomach, Liver, Pancreas, Adrenal medulla, Kidney, Large Intestine
- SNS
312
What are the targets for preganglions L1-L3? SNS or PNS?
Targets for L1-L3 are pelvic organs
SNS
313
What is another name for hyaline cartilage?
Articular Cartilage
314
What is endochondral ossification?
Process by which hyaline cartilage serves as a cartilage model precursor
315
What is the purpose of the ruffled border of osteoclasts which are in apposition to bone?
What forms the ruffled border?
- This is where microvilli secrete organic acids that dissolve the mineral component of bone while the lysosomal proteolytic enzymes destroy organic osteoid matrix
316
CPR: Explain why pathologic shunts do or do not respond to oxygen adminstration
- Pathologic shunt is perfusion without ventilation, thus no air is reaching the blood
- Common cause is airway obstruction so 0 air is reach a particular alveoli
- Blood is still coming by the alveoli but no gas exchange is occurring, thus it is not oxygenated and stays with CO2
- Even if administering O2, the O2 cannot reach the blood vessel for gas exchange!
- V/Q = 0
317
CPR: T/F there are physiologic shunt
True
Shunt means perfusion without ventilation
- The bronchiole arteries go to the lungs but are not oxygenated by the lungs as they are supplying perfusion = Shunting
- The arteries then transition to veins and dump into the L Atria to mix with the highly oxygenated blood
318
CPR: What 3 common causes of V/Q mismatch? Very generally, explain what is happening.
- COPD
- Pneumonia
- Pulmonary edema
- In a V/Q mismatch, there is decreased ventilation being delivered to Q the perfusing blood that needs to be oxygenated
319
CPR: Explain why, during a V/Q mismatch, need to be careful not to induce hypercapnia?
- In V/Q mismatch the body will naturally vasoconstrict the blood vessels that have reduced ventilation
- If administer O2 too fast, then the alveolar O2 will rise quickly and cause the blood vessels to dilate
- BUT, since there is poor ventilation, the CO2 and O2 are not being exchanged in an ideal rate. Thus, the increased volume of blood coming by the alveoli will not be exchanging enough CO2 out to be breathed out which will cause blood CO2 levels to rise
320
CPR: What is hypercapnia?
Excess CO2 in the blood
321
CPR: Where is natural dead space?
- In the conducting zone
- Dead space is ventilation without perfusion
- Since they do not participate in gas exchange this is dead space
322
CPR: What is a common cause of alveolar pathologic dead space?
- Pulmonary embolism
- So there is not perfusion to the alveoli but they are still recieving air to the alveoli
