Week 2 Flashcards
(326 cards)
1
Q
For proteins using ER dependent trafficking what signal sequence is required to send to lysosome?
A
- Signal peptide
- Mannose 6 phosphate
2
Q
For proteins using ER dependent trafficking, what signal sequence is required for targeting destination to ER membrane?
A
Signal peptide only
3
Q
Proteins are synthesized on bound ribosomes. What are the three final destination options?
A
Lysosome
Secretion from the cell
Plasma Membrane
4
Q
In order for the nascent polypeptide to get from the cell cytosol to the ER, what is required?
A
- Signal recognition protein (SRP) must bind with signal peptide of the growing polypeptide & ribosome
- This will d/c translation
- The unit will dock to the SRP receptor and place for positioning to enter the RER
- Polypeptide will enter RER membrane and SRP leaves for reuse
5
Q
What comprises an SRP?
What is an SRP?
A
- Protein & RNA
- SRP = Signal recognition protein that allows nascent polypeptides into the RER for protein trafficking
6
Q
Once a polypeptide is trafficked into the ER lumen, what three modifications are made?
A
- Protein folding
- Formation of S-S bonds
- N-Linked Glycosylation
7
Q
Once a polypeptide is trafficked into the ER lumen, describe which peptides will be glycosylated?
A
Glycosylation at Asn
- If poly peptide has the sequence Asn-X-Ser or Asn-X-Thr, the carbohydrate will be transferred to an amino acid within the protein
- note: “x” is any peptide sequence. Only the first and last AA matter for this to occur
8
Q
Once a polypeptide is trafficked into the ER lumen, describe what is necessary for protein folding
A
Need chaperone proteins and ATP
9
Q
What are heat shock proteins?
A
- A type of chaperone protein including HSP70 and HSP90 to help with protein folding in the ER
- They bind ATP and possess ATPase activity
10
Q
What is HSP60?
A
Chaperonin
A protein involved in protein folding that occurs in the ER lumen
11
Q
What are Calnexin and BiP?
A
Chaperone proteins that are involved in protein folding in the ER lumen during ER dependent protein trafficking
12
Q
What happens if proteins are misfolded during ER dependent protein trafficking?
A
They are labeled with ubiquitin and digested by proteasomes
13
Q
________________ ___________________ is a disorder wherein Phe at position 508 is deleted. This causes improper protein folding and post-translational processing of oligosaccharide chains. The misfolded proteins are then marked with ubiquitin and degraded by proteosomes.
A
Cystic Fibrosis
14
Q
What are three modifications made to proteins in the golgi?
A
Glycosylation, phosphorylation, Sulfation
15
Q
T/F: The only three modifications made to protein in the Golgi are glycosylation, phosphorylation, and sulfation.
A
False, proteins can undergo proteolysis
16
Q
Describe the steps of protein mobilization from the Golgi to lysosomes
A
- Second signal sequence
- Clathrin will make vesicles to traffic proteins via endosomes
- Low pH will breakdown the clathrin coat and will be delivered to lysosome
17
Q
What protein coat is required to send proteins from the golgi to lysosome?
A
Clathrin coat
18
Q
What deficiency is involved in I-cell disease?
A
GlcNac-1-phosphotransferase, enzyme that makes clathrin is not present so proteins cannot be moved to endosome then lysosomes
19
Q
Describe the movement of proteins moving through the ER which are destined to stay in the membrane
A
Second signal sequence to direct the protein is built into the protein
- When moving through the ER, the stop-transfer sequence will ensure the protein stays in the membrane via translocator
20
Q
Proteins can use ER independent trafficking. Describe how cytosolic proteins get to their destination
A
There is a specific sequence which informs the protein to move to the cytosol
21
Q
T/F: Proteins using independent ER trafficking do not need a second sequence
A
True, there is a specific sequence in the protein to instruct where the protein will move
22
Q
Collagen, Elastin, and Fibronectin are all secreted out of the cell via _______________ secretion
A
Constitutive
23
Q
_____________, ______________, ___________, _____________ are all secreted out of the cell via Regulated secretion
A
Insulin, Glucagon, ACh, Glycine
24
Q
Proteins destined for remain in the cytosol or to function in the nucleus, mitochondria, or peroxisomes are synthesized on ___________ __________________.
A
Free ribosomes
25
Proteins using ER-independent trafficking mechanisms are signaled to move to mitochondria, nucleus, or perioxisomes via:
Peroxisomal trafficking sequence
Nuclear localization signal
26
Aside from the nuclear localization signal, what other component is required to ensure proteins in ER-independent trafficking arrive in the nucleus?
All nuclear localization signals bind to IMPORTIN
27
_______________ syndrome is a defect in recognition and transport of cytoplasmic proteins to peroxisomes in liver, kidney, brain. Mutation of PEX genes encoding peroxins are required for normal assembly of peroxisomes. If PEX genes are missing, what happens
Zellweger syndrome
- Buildup of long-chain fatty acids and branched fatty acids
28
What gene is missing in Zellweger syndrome? What is a result of the disorder?
- PEX genes are missing encoding peroxins that are required for normal assembly of peroxisomes
- Buildup of long-chain fatty acids, branched fatty acids
29
___________________ is caused by mutations in ABDC1 that encode peroxisomal membrane transporters which is responsible for transporting very long chain fatty acid substrate into peroxisomes for degredation.
Adrenoleukodystrophy
30
What is adrenoleukodystrophy?
Mutations in ABCD1 genes that endcode perioxisomal membrane transporter that is responsible for transporting very long chain fatty acid substrate into peroxisomes for degredation
31
Anterograde vesicle transport requires:
_____________ (ER to Golgi) and ___________ (Golgi)
COP II
COP I
32
If there is use of COP II and COP I coat proteins, what direction are proteins moving?
Anterograde
COP II: ER to Golgi
COP I: Golgi to Golgi (Bidirectional)
33
Retrograde protein trafficking requires coat proteins:
1.
2.
3.
Clathrin
Retromer
COP I
34
What direction does the coat protein, Clathrin traffic proteins?
Retrograde, more specifically, plasma membrane to endosome
35
Where does the sartorius muscle originate?
Where is it found in the leg/thigh?
Anterior thigh
Originates from ASIS
36
What vein is used in a CABG procedure?
Great saphenous vein
37
The femoral nerve innervates muscles responsible for:
Hip flexion and knee extension
38
The adductor muscles of the thigh are responsible for what type of rotation?
Internal
39
What muscle is the principle flexor at the hip?
Iliopsoas
40
What direction are proteins moving if the coat protein, Retromer is involved?
Endosome back to Trans Golgi Network
41
Vesicles with proteins undergoing anterograde transport are coatmer-coated. What is coatmer?
Protein complexes formed by individual coat protein subunits called COPS.
42
What is required for coatmer-coated vesicles to assemble?
What is the purpose of coatmer-coated protein subunits?
1. Require ADP-ribosylation factor which binds to GTP to activate and recruit catomer subunits
2. They are involved in anterograde protein trafficking to cell membrane
43
Coatmer-coated protein complexes require ADP-ribosylation factor which binds to GTP to activate and recruit coatomer subunits. ADP-ribosylation factor requires four other proteins:
1. SNAP receptors AKA SNARE
2. t-SNARE
3. v-SNARE
4. SNAP-25
5. NSF
44
During membrane fusion, v-SNARE and t-SNARE proteins on separate membranes combine to form a trans-SNARE complex for anterograde protein trafficking. What toxin targets v-SNARE, t-SNARE, and SNAP25?
Botulinum toxin
45
When Botulinum toxin binds v-SNARE, t-SNARE, and SNAP25, what neurotransmitter is affected and what symptoms result?
ACh is affected
Muscle weakness from face, neck to the body
46
During membrane fusion, v-SNARE and t-SNARE proteins on separate membranes combine to form a trans-SNARE complex for anterograde protein trafficking. What toxin targets v-SNARE only?
Tetanus toxin
47
When Tetanus toxin binds v-SNARE, what neurotransmitter is affected and what symptoms result?
Glycine and GABA, if inhibitor proteins are disrupted then muscle spasm can occur
48
During membrane fusion, v-SNARE and t-SNARE proteins on separate membranes combine to form a trans-SNARE complex for anterograde protein trafficking. Where are each SNARE located? Are there any associated proteins during this process?
t-SNARE is on target membrane
v-SNARE is on the vesicle
Associated proteins include NSF & SNAP 25
49
In retrograde protein trafficking, Clathrin-coated vesicles form. What two assisting molecules are required?
Adaptins & Dynamin
50
In retrograde protein trafficking, Clathrin-coated vesicles form with the help from Adaptins and Dynamin. What do these do?
Adaptins: assist in formation of clathrin coat & establish vesicle curvature
Dynamin: GTP-binding protein to form a ring around the neck of a budding vesicle to aid in pinching it off the parent membrane
51
Clathrin coated vesicles are important in receptor-mediated endocytosis. Including:
LDL
Iron uptake
52
The drugs Alirocumab and Evolocumab are used to treat:
How do they work?
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Inhibit the enzyme that prevents receptors from being recycled at the cell membrane
53
What class of drugs are used to treat familial hypercholesterolemia?
-Cumab , i.e. Alirocumab and Evolocumab
54
What is disrupted in familial hypercholesterolemia?
The enzyme PCSK9 reduces expression of LDL receptors that endocytose cholesterol from the blood
55
What two systems inside the cell are responsible for degradation of proteins?
Proteosomes & Lysosomes
56
How does the cell determine if a proteosome or lysosome will degrade proteins?
Proteosomes digest defective proteins and proteins with short-half life
Lysosomes recycle AA of the membrane, extracellular proteins, proteins with extended half-lifes
57
Describe the process of proteasomal degradation
1. ATP dependent
2. Ubiquitin attaches to Lysine of a protein using E1, E2, E3 enzymes
3. Proteosome degrades proteins via hydrolyzing them into smaller peptides
4. Peptides emerge from the opposite end of a proteosome and are degraded by cytosolic peptidases
58
Ubiquitination is a highly regulated process, how does this mechanism work?
What is the purpose of ubiquination?
1. A minimum of 4 ubiquitin molecules on the target protein req'd for efficient protein degradation
2. Ubiquitination of a protein destines it for degradation by a proteosome
59
Describe how lysosome protein degradation works
Use the membrane of the RER to wrap around old organelles = autophagosome which will fuse with a lysosome for degradation
60
What does HPV target in the cells?
P53 & Rb
61
Describe how HPV disrupts P53 protein
P53 is a tumor suppressor gene
HPV makes the protein E6 & E7
E6 inhibits the function of P53 via Ubiquitination
62
Describe how HPV disrupts Rb protein
Rb is a protein that blocks the activity of transcription factors
HPV makes proteins E6 & E7
E7 specifically inhibits the function of Rb
63
What is Bortezomib?
A proteosome inhibitor for use as an anticancer agent
64
Describe how Bortezomib works as an anticancer therapy
Proteosome inhibitor
By inhibiting proteosomes the goal is to protect P53 from being degraded but this drug is very toxic in regard that other toxins aren't being degraded
65
In chronic degenerative diseases such as:
1.
2.
3.
There is an abnormal accumulation of autophagosomes in the brains of patients. This supports the idea that there is accumulation of autophagosomes as beneficial to try and rid plaques in the brain
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington's
66
Distal to the ridge of the neck of the femur is a ridge termed:
Interotrochanteric line
67
What comprises the true leg region of the lower limb?
Between the knee and talocrucal region
68
The deep fascia of the thigh divides the thigh into three compartments. The anterior (__________________) region is largely innervated by the :
Anterior: Extensor
Femoral Nerve
69
The deep fascia of the thigh divides the thigh into three compartments. The medial (_________________________) is largely innervated by the:
Medial: Adductor
Obturator nerve
70
The deep fascia of the thigh divides the thigh into three compartments. The posterior (_______________________) is innervated by the:
Posterior: Flexor
Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve
71
This vein is the longest vein in the body. It begins at the medial end of the dorsal venous arch and runs anterior to the medial malleolus. It ascends posterior to the medial femoral condyle. It dumps into the Femoral vein.
Great saphenous vein
72
The great saphenous vein:
1. Where does it begin?
2. What is its position relative to the medial malleolus on ascension?
3. What vein does it dump into in the thigh?
1. Beings at the medial end of the dorsal venous arch
2. Runs anterior to the medial malleolus
3. Ascends posterior to the medial femoral condyle and dumps into the Femoral vein
73
What is the treatment for varicose veins? Where do these commonly occur?
1. Sclerotherapy using chemical solution to collapse and seal off the vein so it does not carry blood
2. Commonly in the great saphenous vein and its tributaries
74
What are spider veins?
A milder form of varicose veins that are damaged small blood vessels close to the skin's surface
75
Other than being large and readily accessible, why is the ______________ _________________ vein used for CABG?
The great saphenous vein is commonly used for CABG because its wall contains more muscular and elastic fibers than other superficial veins
76
What is a valvulotome? What is it used for?
Makes valves of the vein non-functional, used in coronary artery bypass graft in order to ensure proper blood flow direction
77
What three muscles comprise the Pes Anserinus?
Semitendinous
Sartorius
Gracilis
78
What nerve accompanies the Great Saphenous vein?
Saphenous N which is a branch of the femoral N
79
What is saphenous cutdown?
What complications might arise?
- Using the great saphenous vein for IV access by making incision anterior and slightly superior to medial malleolus
- Since the Saphenous N is located close to this vein complication can induce pain or numbness along the medial side of the lower leg, ankle, foot
80
Where does the small saphenous vein arise from?
Lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch
81
This vein arises from the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch. It ascends posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is accompanied by the Sural nerve and ends in the popliteal vein.
Small Saphenous Vein
82
The small saphenous vein:
1. Where does it begin ?
2. What nerve accompanies it?
3. Where does it end?
1. Beings lateral portion of the dorsal arch and ascends posterior to the lateral malleolus
2. Accompanied by the sural nerve
3. Ends in the popliteal vein
83
What ventral rami form the lumbar plexus?
L1-L4
84
In relation to the medial and anterior thigh, what are the most important branches coming off the ventral rami of the lumbar plexus?
Femoral N & Obturator Nerve
85
The sacral plexus consists of the lumbosacral trunk (descending part of ____ & ____) and _____-_____ ventral rami
The sacral plexus consists of the lumbosacral trunk (descending part of L4 & L5) and S1-S4 ventral rami
86
What are the two most important nerves arising from the sacral plexus?
Sciatic nerve (L4-S3)
Pudendal Nerve (S2-S4)
87
What is another name for the saphenous opening?
Fossa ovalis
88
What two nerves come together to form the sural nerve?
Where is the sural nerve found?
Tibial N & Common fibular N come together to form Sural Nerve in the popliteal fossa
Lateral leg
89
What is the origin and insertion of the IT band?
Iliac tubercle to the tubercle on the lateral tibial condyle termed "Gerdy's tubercle"
90
What is the significance of the saphenous opening aka Fossa Ovalis?
Where the great saphenous vein dumps in to the femoral vein
91
What ventral rami of the lumbar plexus make up the sciatic nerve?
L4-S3
92
What ventral rami of the lumbar plexus make up the obturator nerve?
L2-L4
93
What rami of the sacral plexus make up the sciatic N?
L4-S3
94
What rami of the sacral plexus make up the Pudendal Nerve?
S2-S4
95
Where does the quadriceps insert?
The quadriceps tendon envelops the knee cap and continues as the patellar ligament and attaches to the tibial tuberosity
96
What two muscles make up the iliopsoas prior to it becoming Iliopsoas after passing the inguinal ligament?
Psoas major & minor
Iliacus
97
This muscle is the longest in the body and also known as the "Tailor's muscle"
Sartorius
98
The muscle is the chief extensor of the leg and consists of 4 heads.
Quadriceps femoris
99
Pectineus muscle is part of the anterior thigh muscles. What is special about its innervation?
Normally would be the femoral nerve but can also receive innervation from the obturator nerve
100
This muscle adducts and slightly flexes the hip joint; assists with lateral rotation and has special innervation.
Pectineus muscle that is inn. by Femoral nerve
101
This muscle is comprised of three that act conjointly in flexion and lateral rotation of the hip joint and in stabilizing this joint when standing
Iliopsoas
102
What is the action of the pectineus muscle?
Adduct and slightly flexes hip joint
103
What is the action of iliopsoas?
Flexion and lateral rotation and stabilizing when standing
104
This muscle flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates the hip joint as well as flexes the knee
Sartorius
105
What is the term for the protrusion next to the lesser trochanter of the femur?
What muscle inserts here?
Pectineal line
Pectineus insertion
106
This muscle originates from the ASIS and inserts of the superior part of the surface of the tibia as part of pes anserinus. What are the actions of this muscle?
Sartorius
Flexion, ABduction, lateral hip rotation, knee flexion
107
This muscle functions to abduct and flex the thigh. Its innervation is the superior gluteal nerve (L__-S____). Where does it originate and insert
Tensor fasciae latae functions to abduct and flex the thigh
Innervated by the Superior gluteal N (L4, L5, S1)
It originates from ASIS and inserts onto Gerdy's tubercle via the IT band
108
The patellar tendon reflex is a physical exam that tests the integrity of what nerve and thereby what spinal cord segments?
Femoral N
L2-L4 spinal cord segments
109
The mechanism of the patellar tendon reflex follows _________________ _____________ ___________ fibers of _______________ ________________ in the quadriceps that send impulses to the spinal cord. These detect stretch.
Then __________________ ___________________ __________________ fibers send impulses back to the quadriceps, resulting in a jerk-like contract and extension of the leg
The mechanism of the patellar tendon reflex follows general somatic afferent fibers of muscle spindles in the quadriceps that send impulses to the spinal cord. These detect stretch.
Then general somatic efferent fibers send impulses back to the quadriceps, resulting in a jerk-like contract and extension of the leg
110
List the 6 muscles of the medial thigh group which function to ___________ the thigh and are innervated by the Obturator N
1. Adductor Longus
2. Adductor Brevis
3. Adductor Magnus
4. Pectineus
5. Gracilis
6. Obturator externus
ADduct the thigh
111
What muscle is the deepest among the medial thigh muscles?
Obturator externus
112
Is Pes Anserinus medial or lateral?
How to know?
Medial as it inserts on the medial tibia
113
These muscles comprise what structure at the distal end where it inserts on the medial tibia
1. Gracilis
2. Sartorius
3. Semitendinosus
Pes anserinus
114
Which muscle is weak adductor and can be removed without major functional deficits for use in reconstructive surgery?
Gracilis
115
_____________ __________________ refers to strain, stretching or tearing of the proximal attachments of the thigh adductor and flexor muscles.
Groin pull
116
This muscle has two portions the adductor and hamstring part. The adductor portion adducts the hip while the hamstring extends the hip joint. It also had dual innervation of the obturator nerve for adduction and tibial part of the sciatic N for the hamstring portion
Adductor magnus
117
What is the function of the obturator externus?
Lateral rotation of the hip joint
118
What is the only anterior intermediate muscle that crosses the knee joint?
Gracilis
119
Which muscle has the adductor hiatus?
Adductor magnus
120
The adductor hiatus is found at the distal portion of adductor magnus. What is the significance of this area?
Where femoral vessels move from anterior to posterior and become popliteal vessels
121
What forms the floor of the femoral triangle?
Iliopsoas and pectineus
122
What are the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial
Femoral N
Femoral A
Femoral V
Empty Space
Inguinal Lymph nodes
123
What is the largest branch of the lumbar plexus?
What ventral rami make up these?
Femoral N L2-L4
124
Where does the femoral nerve become the terminal cutaneous branch, the saphenous nerve?
Between Sartorius and Gracilis along the medial side of the knee
125
What is different about the saphenous opening and femoral triangle?
The saphenous opening is more superficial and is an opening in the fascia lata while the femoral triangle is deeper and below the fascia lata
126
Which branch of the femoral artery supplies the femoral head and neck?
Medial circumflex femoral artery
127
Which branch of the femoral artery passes deep to sartorius and rectus femoris to supply lateral thigh and femur head?
Lateral circumflex femoral artery
128
Which branch of the femoral artery has three more divisions termed ascending, transverse and descending?
Lateral circumflex artery has the branches Ascending, Transverse and descending
129
2 vertical partitions of the femoral sheath divide the sheath into three compartments. Each compartment consists of:
1. Lateral compartment:
2. Intermediate compartment:
3. Medial compartment AKA Femoral Canal
1. Lateral compartment: Femoral A
2. Intermediate compartment: Femoral vein
3. Medial compartment AKA femoral Canal: Lymphnodes
130
What structure is at risk of femoral hernia?
Femoral ring which is the widest part portion of the femoral sheath
131
Why is the femoral ring the widest part of the femoral sheath?
Where the femoral vein expands during venous return
132
The ______________ _____________ aka Hunter's canal is an intermuscular passage that beings at the apex of the femoral triangle. Between which muscles is it found and where does it end?
Adductor Canal
Between sartorius vastus medialis and adductor longus
Ends at the adductor hiatus
133
What structures exit at the adductor hiatus?
Femoral A and Vein
NOT the Femoral nerve which is now the Saphenous N
134
Through which structure does the femoral nerve become the saphenous N?
Through the adductor canal
135
What is a major cause of DVT?
Venous stasis (stagnation)
136
List three symptoms of DVT
Swelling
Warmth
Erythema
Cramping
Soreness
Skin color change
137
What is VTE?
Venous thromboembolism that refers to DVT, PE, or both
138
What lymph nodes are contained within the femoral canal of the femoral sheath?
Deep inguinal lymph nodes
139
As the femoral artery passes the inguinal ligament it becomes the
Femoral artery
140
Both the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes drain to:
External iliac lymph nodes
141
T/F: The femoral canal is a funnel-shaped fascial tube that encloses the proximal parts of the femoral vessels and femoral sheath
False, the femoral sheath is a funnel-shaped fascial tube that encloses the proximal parts of the femoral vessels and femoral cnal
142
________________ ___________________ is a protrusion of abdominal viscera through the femoral ring into the _________________ ________________.
Femoral hernia is a protrusion of abdominal viscera through the femoral ring into the femoral canal
143
What is the chief flexor of the thigh? Where does this muscle insert?
Iliopsoas that inserts on the lesser trochanter
144
What muscle crosses the hip joint and attaches on the anterior inferior iliac spine?
Quadriceps-Rectus femoris
145
Which muscle of the quadriceps crosses the hip joint and where does it attach?
Rectus femoris and attaches on the anterior inferior iliac spine
146
What two structures of the anterior thigh attach to the ASIS?
Inguinal ligament
Iliopsoas
147
Which is thigh adductor muscle crosses the knee joint?
Gracilis
148
What is the difference between proteoglycans and glycoproteins?
Both have proteins and carbs
Proteoglycans have more carbohydrates
Glycoproteins have more proteins
149
How are GAGs and proteins linked together?
Via O-linked glycosylation
150
What is special about Glycosaminoglycan in relation to their role in forming ground substance
GAGs have the special ability to bind large amounts of water and produce the gel-like matrix that forms the basis of the body's ground substance
151
GAGs make up the ECM, name other components of the ECM
1. Fibrous structural proteins such as collagen and elastin
2. Adhesive proteins such as fibronectin
152
_____________ are a component of mucous secretions do to their lubricating properties. In this setting they are termmed:
GAGS
Mucopolysaccharides
153
Describe the structure of GAGs
Repeating disaccharide units
Acidic sugar-Amino sugar
154
Most acidic sugars of GAGs are composed of:
What is the exception?
Most are D-glucuronic acid (glucose)
Except in Keratan sulfate where the acidic sugar is galactose
155
Most amino sugars of GAGs are composed of
D-glucosamine or D-galactosamine
156
What is the significance of the negative charges of GAGS?
- The molecule extends outwards and repels adjacent molecules
- Compressible but when release springs back to original hydrated volume
157
There are 6 classifications of GAGs. Their disaccharide amino and acidic sugars are all liked via _________________. Except Heparin which has ___________.
There are 6 classifications of GAGs. Their disaccharide amino and acidic sugars are all liked via β linkage either 1,4 or 1,3 . Except Heparin which has α1,4
158
Which glycosaminoglycan has α1,4 linkage between its disaccharide units?
Heparin
159
What is IdUA?
Where is it found?
L-iduronic acid
Found in in Dermatan sulfate class of GAG
160
What is GlcUA
Glucuronic acid
161
Some amino sugars of GAGs are GalNAC which is
N-acetylgalactosamine
162
Some amino sugars of GAGs are GlcNAC which is
N-acetylglucosamine
163
Hunter/Hurler syndrome is caused by a build-up of what two classes of GAGs?
Heparan sulfate
Dermatan Sulfate
164
Why is chondroitin sulfate with glucosamine used to treat osteoarthritis?
They are building blocks for new GAGs
165
List the 6 classes of glycosaminoglycans
1. Heparan sulfate
2. Heparin
3. Keratan I & II
4. Chondroitin sulfates
5. Dermatan sulfate
6. Hyaluronic Aicd
166
Which GAG has anti-coagulation property?
What type of linkage is used for the disaccharide unit?
Heparin with α 1,3 Linkage
167
Describe the linkage between carbohydrate and protein in proteoglycans
O linked glycosidic bond
Trihexoside unit composed of (Gal-Gal-Xylose) and a Ser/Thr residue
168
Describe the composition of a proteoglycan
Core protein - Ser/Thr Residue with O link glycosidic bond to Trihexose unit- GAG
169
What is the most common proteoglycan on the cell plasma membrane?
Syndecan
170
Proteoglycans sequester and present many growth factors. How does this occur?
Lysis of PG core protein or partial degradation of heparan sulfate chains releases growth factor
171
Describe the extracellular domain of Syndecan:
What is syndecan?
Syndecan is a proteoglycan on the cell plasma membrane
ECD: Sulfate chains bind to fibrous collages ( I, III, IV) and to fibronectin to anchor ECM components to cells
172
Describe the intracellular domain of Syndecan:
What is Syndecan?
Syndecan is a proteoglycan on the cell plasma membrane
ICD: Interacts with the actin cytoskeleton and in some cases Phosphatidylinositol and PKC
173
Proteoglycan: Where does protein synthesis occur?
Where does GAG synthesis occur?
Protein: ER
GAG: Golgi
174
Synthesis of proteoglycans is unable to add disaccharide units directly, so how are they built?
Using transferases catalyze elongation of polysaccharide chains by alternate placement of their UDP-derivates or CMP-derivatives
175
How are sulfate groups added to proteogycans?
Using PAPs as a donor using the enzyme sulfotransferase
176
Describe the synthesis of Amino sugars
Glucose → G6P → F6P → Glucosamine 6 phosphate using Glutamine as a donor N → Acylate Glucosamine 6 phosphate using Acetyl transferase which can be used to make UDP derivatives or CMP derivatives
177
Which Amino acid supplies the -NH2 group to make Glucosamine 6 phosphate during synthesis of Amino sugars for proteoglycans?
Glutamine
178
What is significant about NANA?
NANA acts as a receptor for influenza viruses and allow attachment to mucous cells via hemagglutinin
179
Where is NANA found?
Glycolipids of proteoglycans
180
Glucuronic acid and Iduronic acid are:
Acidic sugars
181
What are the repercussions of inability to degrade GAGs?
Mucopolysaccharides
182
Most GAGs have a short half life except for:
Keratan sulfate
183
Describe the order of degradation of GAGs
1. Start by removing sulfate using sulfatase
2. Remove IdUA
2. Remove the next sulfate
3. Remove GlcN
184
The result of presence of oligosaccharides in urine is due to:
Incomplete breakdown of GAGs
185
Hurler's Syndrome is caused by an accumulation of Dermatan sulfate and Heparan sulfate. What symptoms are associated with this disorder?
Corneal clouding, dwarfism, mental retardation; early mortality
186
The following symptoms:
- Corneal clouding
- Mental retardation
- Early mortality
- Dwarfism
Accompanied by build up of Dermatan sulfates and heparan sulfates is indicative of:
Hurler Syndrome
187
Hunter's Syndrome is caused by an accumulation of Heparan sulfate and Dermatan sulfate.
1. How is this disorder inherited?
2. Is there Corneal clouding?
3. Give 2 symptoms and the spectrum
1. X linked inheritance
2. No corneal clouding
3. Facial and physical deformities, mental retardation, mild and severe forms exist
188
Sly's, Hurler's, and Hunters Disorders are all due to build up of the GAGs:
Which have/has corneal clouding association?
Build up of Dermatan sulfate and Heparan sulfate
Sly's and Hurler's have corneal clouding
189
Sly's syndrome is due to:
What symptoms are associated with this disorder?
1. Heparan sulfate and Dermatan sulfate build up
2. Corneal clouding, hepatomegaly, Short stature, skeletal deformity
190
The following symptoms:
Corneal clouding, hepatomegaly, Short stature, skeletal deformity
Accompanied by the build up of Heparan sulfate and Dermatan sulfate are indicative of what disorder?
Sly's syndrome
191
In glycoproteins, how are oligosaccharides attached to their protein?
O linked or N linked glycoside bond
192
T/F: Because glycoproteins are mostly protein, the all have very little carbohydrate content
False, mucin is a glycoprotein and contains more than 80% as carbohydrate
193
Mucin is a glycoprotein, what type of linkage does it use between the oligosaccharides and proteins?
O glycosidic linkage between Ser & Thr
194
DPP4, CD2, and GAT1 are _______________________ which have _____ ________________ linkage between their oligosaccharides and proteins
DPP4, CD2, GAT1 are glycoproteins with N-glycosidic linkage using Asn
195
When the hip is externally rotated, where is the femoral head?
Anterior glide
196
When the hip is internally rotated, where is the femoral head?
Posterior glideWhic
197
Patrick test AKA Fabere's Test is:
Used to determine presence and cause of Hip, lumbar, and SI pain
- Place leg in figure 4 position
- Testing for: Flexion, External rotation, and Abduction
198
The test matching this description is:
Physician places the leg to be tested in hip Flexion, Abduction, and
External Rotation by crossing the foot of the leg being tested across
the opposite leg (figure-4 position) with the lateral ankle of the
ipsilateral leg resting on the contralateral thigh proximal to the knee.
Physician places one hand on ipsilateral knee and one on contralateral
ASIS to stabilize patient, and then adds Extension by pressing the
ipsilateral knee posterior toward the table
Patrick Test AKA FABERE's test
199
What is Ober test?
- Patient on their side and determining if leg is completely relaxed, abducted and dropped does the knee drop towards the midline or stay still
- Determines if the IT band is tense/contracted
200
What test matches this description:
Patient lying lateral recumbent
Flex the knee being texted 90 degrees while keeping hip in neutral position
Fully abduct the leg then maintain control at the foot and drop the knee
Positive test is failure of thigh to fall into adducted position
Ober test
201
What muscle is Thomas's Test looking at?
Iliopsoas
202
How is Thomas's test performed?
What does a positive test indicate?
Patient laying supine, flex hip of leg not being tested, see if opposite leg bends upwards or remains flat
- If positive there will be a gap between table and leg not in flexion then the iliopsoas is tight
203
What muscle is being tested for weakness in Trendelenberg test?
Gluteus medius
204
Quadriceps Femoris ____________ thigh and _______________ knee
Flexes thigh
Extends knee
205
Psoas muscles _________ hip and ________________________ ____________ spine
Flex the hip and side bend the lumbar spine
206
The Hamstrings _________________ the thigh. ______________________ ___________________ also _______________ the thigh and _______________ ______________.
Hamstrings and Gluteus maximus extend the thigh
Gluteus maximus externally/laterally rotates
207
This muscle abducts and medially rotates the thigh
Gluteus medius
208
This muscle flexes, internally rotates, and abducts the hip
Tensor fascia lata
209
This muscle abducts and externally rotates the hip
Piriformis
210
Which muscle of the quadriceps originates from the hip joint? Which muscle originates from the femur?
Rectus femoris crosses the hip joints and originates from the Anterior Inferior Iliac Spine
Vastus Lateralis, Vastus Medialis, Vastus Intermedius originate from the femur
All insert on the tibial tuberosity
211
What are four indications for using post-isometric relaxation for Quadricep Hypertonicity
- Restriction in knee flexion
- Hypertonic quads
- Anteriorly rotated pelvis
- Patellofemoral syndrome
212
List three hip abductor muscles
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia lata
213
Supine traction for the Posterior thigh and Iliopsoas is described as:
The patient is supine with right leg and thigh to be treated held off the side of the table by the physician. The physician stabilizes
patient’s foot between his/her own legs. The patient’s thigh is elevated slightly.
2. The physician clasps his/her hands behind the knee, supporting the femoral condyles. The thenar eminences contact the medial and
lateral aspects of the popliteal fossa, making sure that no contact is made with the popliteal fossa itself (which would occlude fluid
movement).
3. Enough traction is applied so that the patient feels it in the posterior thigh, hip, and low back. If the traction is uncomfortable for the
patient, readjust your forces or the direction of traction
4. The traction is held for 15-60 seconds or until the patient progressively feels warmth in the thigh, leg and foot. The treatment is
continued for 15-60 seconds or until release or warmth (leg and foot) are felt by the patient.
5. Recheck the motion when you are finished.
What are the indications for this treatment?
- Lymphatic congestion of lower extremity
- Myofascial strain of above tissue or popliteal fossa
- Somatic dysfunction of hip, knee, or low back
- Overall helps facilitate circulation and drainage
214
The direction of anterior hip ligaments fibers promotes ease of _____________ and restriction of _____________.
The direction of anterior hip ligament fibers promote ease of flexion and restriction of extension
215
The direction of _____________________ hip ligament fibers promotes ease of flexion and restriction of extension
Anterior
216
Posterior hip ligamentous fibers have tendency to ____________in flexion and ________________ in extension
Posterior ligamentous fibers have tendency to unwind in flexion and wind in extension
217
________________________ hip ligamentous fibers have tendency to "unwind" in flexion and "wind" in extension
Posterior
218
What is the femoral angle of inclination?
What is the normal range?
The angle of the neck of the femur in relation to the shaft
Normal 120°-135°
219
In what plane does the angle of inclination occur?
Coronal plane
220
What is the angle of anteversion?
In what plane does this exist?
The angle of the ball of the femur in relation to the acetabulum that directs the internal or external rotation of the distal femur at rest
Transverse plane
221
Hip motion restriction in flexion means:
Hip extensors are tight/restricted
222
Hip motion restriction in extension means:
Hip flexors are tight/restricted
223
What does SCFE stand for?
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
224
What comparison is made to the slipped capital femoral epiphysis condition?
Ice cream cone slipping off its cone
225
What is the physiologic deformity that causes developmental dysplasia?
The socket of the hip is too shallow and the femoral head is not held tightly in place, so the hip joint is loose
- Predisposed to femur dislocation
226
T/F: The enteric nervous system is separate from parasympathetic or sympathetic neurons, but can be regulated (targeted) by them
True
227
t/f: tHE Parasympathetic NS and Sympathetic NS always target the same organs with opposing effects
False, in some cases the systems will cooperate with them
228
The sympathetic nervous system has ____________ _____________________ when the body is at rest. It is transiently activated and thus is involved in ____________-____________ ______________ responses.
The sympathetic nervous system has low activity when the body is at rest. It is transiently activated and thus is involved in short-term stress response.
229
The parasympathetic nervous system is ________________ _________________ when the body is at rest. It _________________________ _________________ responses.
The parasympathetic nervous system is tonically active when the body is at rest. It dampens stress responses
230
While the SNS & PSNS typically oppose each other. Under what circumstance do these systems function unopposed?
The sympathetic nervous system innervates blood vessel smooth muscle but there is no opposing parasympathetic nervous system response
231
The _________________ nervous system innervates the Kidney, Adrenal Gland, Liver, Gallbladder and spleen. While the _____________________ innervates the liver and gallbladder.
Sympathetic: Liver, Kidney, Gallbladder, Spleen, Adrenal gland
Parasympathetic: Liver & Galbladder
232
Which autonomic division has long pre-ganglions and post-ganglions synapsing close to the target organ?
Parasympathetic NS has long pre-ganglions and post-ganglions that synapse close to the target organ
233
Which autonomic division has short pre-ganglions and long-postganglions?
Sympathetic NS has short pre-ganglions near the spinal cord and longer post-ganglions
234
From where do _______________ pre-ganglions in the sympathetic division arise?
Sympathetic NS: Short pre-ganglions from T1-L3
235
The ______________________ NS has short pre-ganglions coming from T1-L3.
Sympathetic
236
From where do pre-ganglions in the parasympathetic division arise?
Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X
S2-S4
237
CN III is __________________________
CN III, Oculomotor cranial nerve
238
CN VII is _________________________
CN VII: Facial cranial nerve
239
CN IX is _________________________.
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal cranial nerve
240
CN X is _________________________.
CN X: Vagus nerve
241
Oculomotor cranial nerve is CN ___.
Oculomotor is CN III
242
Facial cranial nerve is CN ___.
Facial CN is CN VII
243
Glossopharyngeal CN is CN ____.
Glossopharyngeal: CN IX
244
Vagus N is CN _____.
Vagus N is CN X
245
The SNS originates from the _____________________ region giving off preganglionic fibers to either ______________ or ___________________ ganglion to then give off post ganglionic fibers towards the ____________________ ___________________.
The SNS originates from the thoracolumbar region giving off preganglionic fibers to either paravertebral or prevertebral ganglion to then give off post ganglionic fibers towards the target organ
246
Sympathetic ganglia are either PARAvertebral or PREvertebral. Describe location of PARAvertebral
Paravertebral: Located lateral to the spine
247
Sympathetic ganglia are either PARAvertebral or PREvertebral. Describe the location of PREvertebral.
Prevertebral: Anterior to spine or further away from spine
248
List the three major levels of the parasympathetic NS.
1.
2.
3.
1. Cranial nerves 3, 7, 9
2. Vagus N, CN 10
3. Pelvic Splanchnics
249
What level of the spinal cords do Pelvic Splanchnics pre-ganglions arise from?
S2-S4
250
Oculomotor CN of the ____________________ system innervates pupil constriction
Parasympathetic
251
What does the oculomotor CN of the parasympathetic system innervates:
Pupil constriction
252
Facial CN of the ________________________ system innervates tears and salivary glands.
Parasympathetic
253
What does the Facial CN of the parasympathetic system innervate?
Tears and salivary glands
254
What does the Glossopharyngeal CN of the parasympathetic NS innervate?
Salivary glands
255
________________________ CN of the parasympathetic NS innervates salivary glands.
Glossopharyngeal
256
The ___________ N of the parasympathetic NS innervates vitals and digestion.
Vagus
257
The Vagus N of the parasympathetic NS innervates:
Vitals and digestion
258
Pelvic splanchnic pre-ganglions synapse with post-ganglions which innervate:
Pelvic organs
259
The sympathetic NS 1st neuron uses ____________________ and the 2nd neuron uses _____________________________.
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
260
The parasympathetic NS 1st neuron uses ____________________________ and the 2nd neuron uses _____________________________.
1st & 2nd neuron use Acetylcholine NT
261
What type of receptors bind acetylcholine?
Does the Parasympathetic or Sympathetic NS use Ach?
1. Acetylcholine binds nicotinic receptors
2. PSN & SNS preganglions use Ach, the 2nd neuron of the PARAsympathetic uses Ach
262
What type of receptor binds Norepinephrine?
Adrenergic Receptors
263
Does the Pre-ganglion or post-ganglion of the SNS use Norephinephrine?
Post-ganglions of the SNS use Norephinephrine
264
What type of receptors are on tissues of the PNS and bind Ach?
Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic NS on the post-ganglion bind Acetylcholine
265
_______________________ NS: The Vagus N ( CN ____) exits the skull into the neck. Then the vagus N descends the neck into the ________________________. It continues through the ___________________________. And enters the abdomen and territory ends at the ______________ ______________________.
Parasympathetic NS: Vagus NS (CN X) exits the skull into the neck. Then the Vagus N descends the neck into the thorax. It continues through the diaphragm and enters the abdomen. Vagus N territory ends at the large intestine
266
Which nerve of the Parasympathetic NS is known as the "Wanderer" and the __________________ of the body
Vagus N, CN X
The longest N in the body
267
Parasympathetic NS: The ______________ N (CN X) exits the skull into the __________. Then this N descends the ________________ into the thorax. It continues through the diaphragm. And enters the ______________________ with territory that ends at the _______________ ___________.
Parasympathetic NS: The Vagus N (CN X) exits the skull through the neck. Then it descends the neck and into the thorax. It continues through the diaphragm. And enters the abdomen with territory that ends at the large intestine
268
Describe the anatomy of the pelvic splanchnics?
Are they sympathetic or parasympathetic?
Parasympathetic
There are cell bodies in the grey matter that exit via ventral roots
They then exit the sacral foramina with spinal nerves
Finally branch off spinal nerves as Pelvic splanchnic nerves
269
Describe the Sympathetic chain in the Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral region?
Bilateral trunks on either side that span the full length of the spine
A ganglion on each except for the the Coccyx where they converge to one structure
270
Describe the Sympathetic chain in the cervical region?
Only 3 ganglia
An inferior
Middle
Superior
271
The Superior Cervical Ganglion is the highest ganglion of the Sympathetic trunk. Describe how innervation reaches the ______________ _______________ _______________ from the superior cervical ganglion.
The ganglion are used by sympathetic circuitry for targets in the head.
- The preganglion will synapse on the post ganglion and will innervate external carotid artery in the head
272
The Superior Cervical Ganglion is the highest ganglion of the Sympathetic trunk. Describe how innervation reaches the internal carotid artery from the superior cervical ganglion.
The ganglion are used by sympathetic circuitry for targets in the head
The preganglion will synapse on the post-ganglion and will innervate the internal carotid artery through a foramen in the skull into the cranium
273
Sympathetic innervation to the heart and lungs comes from:
Pre-ganglions from T1-T4
274
Sympathetic innervation to the abdominal organs comes from:
T5-L3
274
Sympathetic innervation to the Head and neck comes from
Originates from T1-T2 which synapse in the Superior Cervical Ganglion which project to targets in the head
275
Sympathetic innervation to the pelvic targets originate from:
Lower spinal cord levels
L1-L3
276
List 4 types of cell receptors
1. Ligand gated ion channels
2. G protein coupled receptors
3. Enzyme Linked Receptor
4. Nuclear receptors
277
List 3 types of Ligand gated ion channels
1. Cys-Loop
2. Ionotropic Glutamate Receptors
3. ATP-Gated
278
Ligand Gated Ion Channels can be differentiated via their structure.
1. Pentamer
2. Tetramer
3. Trimer
Name them accordingly
1. Pentamer is Cys-Loop
2. Tetramer is Ionotropic Glutamate Receptor
3. Trimer is ATP-Gated channels
279
CFTR channels are a type of Ligand gated ion channels, which type?
ATP Gated Channel
280
CFTR channels are a type of ATP gated channels, which are:
Ligand Gated Ion Channels
281
What do CFTR channels do?
These channels are disseminated throughout the body and promote influx of Cl- ions and thus Na+ will follow
In the GI cause diarrhea
282
Ionotropic Glutamate receptors are a type of Ligand Gated Ion channel, what do they do?
Influx of Ca+2 into the cell which depolarizes the cell and thus increases cellular transmission
283
List the types of Nuclear receptors
1. Type I receptors of the Cytosol
2. Type II receptors
284
Describe the basic premise of Nuclear Receptors
- Ligands are lipid soluble and penetrate the cell membrane
- Attach to receptor in cytoplasm which then moves to the nucleus to activate transcription
285
Ligands of Nuclear receptors are normally lipid soluble, why?
Because lipid soluble ligands can pass through the cellular membrane to reach their target receptors
286
Steroid hormones receptors are a type of:
Type I Nuclear Receptor in the Cytosol
287
List two examples of Type II Nuclear Receptors
PPAR & Thyroid Hormone Receptors
288
What does PPAR stand for?
What type of receptor are they?
Peroxisome Proliferation-Activated Receptors are a Type II Nuclear Receptor
289
List the types of PPAR Type II Nuclear Receptors
PPAR α & PPAR γ
290
What are PPAR α Receptors?
What category of receptors are they?
PPAR α Receptors: activated by Fibrates, they lower Fat level by stimulating β-oxidation of Fatty Acids
They are a type II Nuclear Receptor
291
What are PPAR γ receptors?
What category of receptors are they?
PPAR γ Receptors: activated by Glitazones that induce storage of Fatty acids so cell must use glucose
They are a Type II Nuclear Receptors
292
PPAR γ Receptors are activated by Glitazones that induce:
What are they used to treat?
Glitazones induce storage of fatty acids so the cell must use glucose
Thus used to treat diabetes and lower Glucose levels
293
What is the structural difference between Type I & Type II Nuclear receptors?
Type I are HOMOdimers
Type II are HETEROdimers
294
List four types of Enzyme Linked Receptors
1. Receptor Ser/Thr Kinase
2. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
3. Receptor Guanylyl Cyclase
4. Cytokine Receptors
295
BMP Receptor and TGTβ Receptors are what category of receptors?
BMP Receptor and TGTβ Receptors are Receptor Ser/Thr Kinase which are a type of Enzyme Linked Receptor
296
Insulin Receptors are what type of receptor?
Insulin Receptors are Receptor Tyrosine Kinase that are a type of Enzyme Linked Receptors
297
Name 4 examples of Cys-Loop Receptors
1. Nicotinic Acetylcholine Receptor
2. Serotonin Receptors (5-HT Receptor)
3. GABA Receptor
4. Glycine Receptor
298
1. Nicotinic Acetylcholine Receptor
2. Serotonin Receptors (5-HT Receptor)
3. GABA Receptor
4. Glycine Receptor
are all types of _________-________________ receptors. What is the difference between them?
1. Nicotinic Acetylcholine Receptor
2. Serotonin Receptors (5-HT Receptor)
3. GABA Receptor
4. Glycine Receptor
1& 2 promote Na+ into the cell & thus depolarizing the cell
3 & 4 promotes Cl- influx to the cell and thus hyperpolarizing
299
Myasthenia Gravis is caused by defects of the Nicotinic Acetylcholine Receptor, the defect is of what kind of receptor?
Cys-loop receptors which are a type of Ligand-Gated Ion Channels
300
Myasthenia Gravis is caused by defects of the _______________________ ________________________ _________________________ which means it is a defect in cys-loop receptors
Nicotinic Acetylcholine Receptor
301
How does Ondansetron work?
Ondansetron is a antagonist of 5-HT3 Receptors/Serotonin receptors and thus outcompetes Serotonin receptors against Na+ influx to the cell
302
___________________________________ is a Gaba Receptor agonist and thus causes Cl- influx to the cell and inducing hyperpolarization. This receptor is a type of:
Benzodiazepine drugs are type of GABA receptor agonist. They are a type of Cys-Loop receptors which are a type of Ligand gated channels
303
Anti-schizophrenic drugs act on what receptors?
NDMA receptors which are a type of Ionotropic Gluatamate Receptors
304
In Cystic Fibrosis there are mutations of F508 which disrupts which channels?
Cystic Fibrosis is a mutation of F508 which causes CFTR channels not to work so Cl- does not cross cell membrane and decrease lubrication
305
These two ATP gated channels act oppositely on CFTR channel
Cystic fibrosis= downregulate CFTR
Cholera = upregulate CFTR
306
Type I nuclear receptors are ___________________ and located in the ____________________. Type II Nuclear receptors are __________________ and located in the nucleus.
Type I Nuclear receptors are homo-dimers and located in the cytoplasm
Type II Nuclear Receptors are hetro-dimers and located in the nucleus
307
Type ____ Nuclear receptors are heterodimers are normally associated with RXR. What is RXR?
Type II Nuclear Receptors are heterodimers
RXR is Retinoid receptor
308
Anti-inflammatory, antihypertensive, anti-diabetic, lipid-lowering drugs are all types of:
anti-inflammatory, antihypertensive, anti-diabetic, lipid-lowering drugs are types of Nuclear receptors
309
_____________________ receptors have anti-inflammatory properties. ______________________ receptors have antihypertensive properties. They are both Type _____ Nuclear receptors
Glucocorticoid receptors have anti-inflammatory properties
Mineralocorticoid receptors have antihypertensive receptors. They are both Type I Nuclear Receptors
310
PPARS are _______________________ ________________________-_________________ receptors and heterodimerize with Retinoid X receptor (RXR). They are what class of nuclear receptors?
PPARS are Peroxisome-Proliferation-Activated Receptors
They are Type II Nuclear Receptors
311
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases and Cytokine Receptors are both what class of receptors?
What is dissimilar between them?
RTK & Cytokine receptors are enzyme linked receptors
Cytokine Receptors function similarly to RTKs but they do not posses intrinsic properties
312
Growth hormone receptors, Erythropoietin Receptor and Interleukin-2 receptors are all types of:
Cytokine receptors which are a type of Enzyme-linked receptors
313
What receptor does this description match?
1. Ligand binds & receptors dimerize
2. Intrinsic kinase properties cause phosphorylation at the tyrosine residue
3. The phosphorylated RTK is now recognizable by Grb-2. Grb-2 binds to RTK via SH-2 domain
4. Grb-2 binds GEF via SH-3 Domain
5. GEF has GDP with inactive Ras
6. Once GDP is exchanged for GTP, Ras is activated
Receptor Tyrosine Kinase which is a type of Enzyme-Linked Receptor
314
What is the end result of Receptor Tyrosine Kinase activity?
GEF receives GTP which activates RAS
315
What happens after Ras is activated?
RAF will activate MEK to activate ERK (AKA MAPK) which will phosphorylate transcription factor
316
If Ras is too active:
Ras too active = cell overgrowth
317
What mechanism counteracts Ras signaling?
Where does Ras signaling begin?
1. GTPase-activity protein mitigates Ras activity
2. Ras signaling begins in RTK which are enzyme-linked receptors
318
Neurofibromatosis Type I is inherited autosomal dominant and impacts skin and NS. What happens in this disorder?
Renders GTPase activity underactive and thus cannot counteract Ras activity which upregulates cell overgrowth
319
Human EFGR are a type of:
Human EFGR are:
Receptor Tyrosine Kinase that activate Ras
HER 1, HER 2, HER 3, HER 4
320
The following drugs are anti-cancer for use in the Ras-MAPK pathway in cancer. Rafenib drug class are _________________ inhibitors.
Metinib drug class are ________________ inhibitors.
Rafenib drugs are Ras inhibitors
Metinib drugs are MEK inhibotors
321
MEK =
MAPK
322
What are the basic steps of Cytokine Kinase activity?
1. Ligand binds to cytokine receptor and induces dimerization
2. JAK phosphorylates cytokine receptor
3. JAK recruits and phosphorylates STAT transcription factor
4. When STAT is phosphorylated it moves to the nucleus to upregulate transcription
323
What two components are required for Cytokine Kinase activity.
What type of receptor are they?
Cytokine kinase receptors require JAK and STAT transcription factor
They are enzyme linked receptors
324
Interleukin Receptors (_________) are what type of receptor. If there are deficiencies in this receptors what is the effect?
IL-2R, Type of Cytokine Receptor which is a Enzyme Mediated Receptor
If these receptors are defective T & B cells cannot be made = SCID
325
