Week 3 Flashcards by Emma Light

Aside from flexion and extension (major motion) and medial/lateral glide of the knee, name 3 additional minor motions of the knee.

Anteroposterior glide
Anteromedial/Posterolateral glide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During dorsiflexion, describe the location of the fibula.

Distal: Posterior glide
Proximal: Anterolateral glide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During _________________________, the location of the head of the fibula is anterolateral while the distal fibula is located posteriorly.

Dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During plantar flexion, describe the location of the fibula

Distal: Anterior glide
Proximal/Head: Posteromedial glide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is another name for Tibial Stress Syndrome?

Shin splints

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

List the symptoms of: Tibial Stress syndrome AKA Shin splints

Vague pain along anterolateral or posteromedial distal tibia that increases with running
May have tight Achilles tendon
Poss. pain on resisted plantar flexion
Exacerbated by flat feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Parameniscal and Baker’s cyst have common etiology, what is their cause?
Which is larger in size?

Meniscal tear with fluid escaping and concentrating within capsule space
Baker’s cyst is larger

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In Parameniscal and Baker’s cyst, what is the best position to visualize a popliteal mass?

Knee in extension

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

Inflammation of tibial tuberosity at growth plate where patellar tendon attaches due to physical activity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What disorder matches this description:
Pain on anterior aspect of knee with resisted knee extension
Enlarged and tender tibial tubercle
Common in young teenage boys with hx of jumping

Osgood-Schlatter’s disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is Prepatellar bursitis?

Pressure on prepatellar bursa = inflammation = decreased gliding of tissue over the patella

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe cause of Patellofemoral Syndrome AKA Chondromalacia Patellae

Damage to undersurface of cartilage of patella due to weakness of vastus medialis
Patella rubs against femoral condyle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What disorder matches these symptoms:
- Diffuse pain in peri or retropatellar area of knee
- Aggravated by stairs, prolonged sitting
- Palpable crepitus
- Patella maltracking

Patellofemoral Syndrome/Chondromalacia Patellae

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This description matches what disorder:
Damage to undersurface of cartilage of patella due to weakness of vastus medialis
Patella rubs against femoral condyle

Patellofemoral Syndrome/Chondromalacia Patellae

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is O’Donoghue’s Triad?

Injury to MCL, ACL, Medial meniscus caused by forced flexion and abduction of knee with foot fixed upon ground

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What disorder matches this description:
Injury to MCL, ACL, Medial meniscus caused by forced flexion and abduction of knee with foot fixed upon ground

Unhappy/Terrible/O’Donoghue’s Triad

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe symptoms of Unhappy/Terrible/O’Donoghue’s Triad

medial joint line “popping”
clicking

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Patellofemoral syndrome is most often caused by weakness of what muscle?

Vastus medialis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A child comes to your clinic complaining of anterior knee pain. On PE, you see an enlarged bump and tender bump on his tibia. What is the dx?

Osgood-Schlatter’s disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe the movement of the foot with supination

Adduction
Plantar flexion
Inversion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe the movement of the foot with pronation

Abduction
Dorsiflexion
Eversion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

List three ligaments of the ankle

Posterior Talofibular ligament
Anterior talofibular ligament
Calcanofibular ligament

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What portion of the talus is wider?

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why does standing in heels make the ankle more unstable?

The stability of tibiofibular is reduced in plantar flexion because tibiofibular glide is over the more narrow posterior talus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

_______________ is injury to a ligament while ________________ is injury to a muscle or tendon

Sprain is injury to ligament Strain is injury to muscle or tendon

What is the difference between a strain and sprain?

Sprain: injury to ligament Strain: injury to muscle or tendon

Most ankle sprains occur in supination because:

Most ankle sprains occur in supination because the foot is plantar flexed = tibiofibular glide posterior = narrow posterior talus

In what position is ankle sprain least common? What ligament is sprained?

Pronation Deltoid ligament on medial ankle

Fibular head dysfunction can contribute to ankle sprain suceptability?

Fibular head dysfunction

What is the purpose of Ottawa rules?

To determine if XR is needed for ankle/foot pain

According to Ottawa's Rules: Ankle XR are only required if there is any pain in malleolar zone and any of the three following findings: 1. 2. 3.

1. Bone tenderness at posterior edge or tip of lateral malleolus 2. Bone tenderness posterior edge or tip of medial malleolus 3. An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the ED

According to ____________________ Rules: Ankle XR are only required if there is any pain in malleolar zone and any of the three following findings: 1. Bone tenderness at posterior edge or tip of lateral malleolus 2. Bone tenderness posterior edge or tip of medial malleolus a.) where to palpate? 3. An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the ED a.) How to determine?

2a.) Palpate the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the fibula 3a.) If the patient can transfer weight twice to each foot (4 steps), he or she is considered able to bear weight even if he or she limps

According to Ottawa Rules: Foot XR are only indicated for patient who have pain in the midfoot zone and any of these findings: 1. 2. 3.

1. Bone tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal 2. Bone tenderness at the navicular 3. An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the ED

According to Ottawa Rules: Foot XR are only indicated for patient who have pain the __________________________ _________________ and any of these findings: 1. Bone tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal 2. Bone tenderness at the navicular 3. An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the ED a.) how is inability to bear weight determined?

Pain in the midfoot zone 3a.) If the patient can transfer weight twice to each foot (4 steps), he or she is considered able to bear weight even if he or she limps

List the names of Foot bones:

Calcaneus Talus Cuboid Navicular 3 Cuneiform 5 Metatarsals 5 phalanges

Which bone is lateral, Cuboid or Navicular?

Cuboid

Which bone is medial, Cuboid or Navicular?

Navicular

List arches of the foot

1. Transverse arch 2. Medial Longitudinal arch 3. Lateral longitudinal arch

Where does "support" of the arches come from?

Tendons and Ligaments

What ligaments support arches of the foot?

Deltoid ligament

What tendon supports arches of the foot?

Peroneus longus Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior

Where is the transverse arch located?

Lateral heel of foot

What tendons support the medial longitudinal arch?

Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior Peroneus longus

Dysfunction of the Medial Longitudinal arch of the foot is typically related to what bones of the foot?

Navicular 3 Cuneiforms

Which bone is never involved in dysfunction of arches of the foot?

Talus

What ligament supports the transverse arch of the foot?

Transverse Metatarsal Ligament

What bones form the transverse arch?

Cuboid, Cuniform Laterla, Intermediate, Medial Bases of Metatarsals

What muscle supports the transverse arch? Where is this muscle located?

1. Peroneus Longus muscle 2. Plantar surface

What bone can reproduce pain associated with plantar fasciitis?

Press on calcaneous bone

Name the dysfunction associated with these symptoms: - Plantar tenderness, 4th/5th distal metatarsal pain, prominent cuboid inferiorly - Motion restriction of 5th metatarsal-cuboidal, cuboid calcaneal joints

Cuboid dysfunction

Which of the 7 signs of Spencer can you perform muscle energy on?

1. Extension 2. Flexion 5. Abduction & Adduction 6. Internal rotation

What division of the ANS has short preganglions?

Sympathetic NS

1. What division of the ANS has long preganglions? 2. Describe the postganglions

1. Parasympathetic 2. Post ganglions synapse close to target organ or within the target organ

All post ganglion Parasympathetic nerves release _____________________ to what kind of receptors?

Post ganglion parasympathetic nerves release AcH on to Muscarinic 3 receptors

Which ANS division releases Ach from the pre-ganglion onto N2 receptors? What are N2 receptors?

Parasympathetic & Sympathetic preganglion release AcH to Nicotinic2 receptors

1. Which ANS division can release both NorEpi and/or ACh from their postganglion? 2. What kind of receptors does each use?

1. Sympathetic NS can release Norepinephrine and Acetylcholine 2. Norepinephrine receptor α1, α2, β1, β2, β3 ACh to Muscarinic 3

The _____________________ NS releases ACh from their post ganglion to _________ receptors of the sweat glands

The sympathetic NS releases ACh from their post ganglion to Muscarinic recpetors of the sweat glands

What are the major receptors of the sympathetic NS and what acts on them?

Adrenergic Receptors use Norepinephrine in the SNS but can have Epi act on them: α1, α2, β1, β2, β3

What amino acid makes NorEpi or Epinephrine?

Tyr

What G protein is associated with α1 receptors?

What is the overall function of Gq proteins?

- Increase Ca+2 & PKC to induce STIMULATION or contraction

What G protein is associated with α2 receptors?

What is the overall function of Gi proteins?

- Decrease cAMP levels thus decrease PKC and decrease stimulation/contraction

1. Which type of adrenergic receptors all function with the same type of Gs protein? 2. What is the overall function of Gs proteins?

1. β receptors 2. Increase cAMP levels, increase stimulation

Name the receptor: Contract radial eye muscle that causes iris dilation

α 1

Name the receptor: Vasoconstriction

α 1

Name the receptor: Intestinal sphincter contraction

α 1

Name the receptor: Pilomotor contraction

α 1

Name the receptor: Bladder sphincter contraction

α1

Name the receptor: Intestinal relaxation

β2 but very little effect overall from SNS

Name the receptor: Vasodilation

β2

Name the receptor: Uterine relaxation

β 2

Name the receptor: Bronchodilation

β 2

Name the receptor: Calorigenesis & Glycogenolysis

β 2

Name the receptor: Bladder wall relaxation

β2 & β3

Name the receptor: Lipolysis

β 3 & β 1

Name the receptor: Thermogenesis

β 3

Name the receptor: Cardioacceleration

β 1

Name the receptor: Myocardial strenght

β1

What is the term for a spermatid with movement capability?

Spermatozoa

What is important about the Midpiece component of a sperm

It houses the mitochondria since it uses a lot of energy

During spermatogenesis, the direction of production moves from _________________ to _________________

Basement membrane towards lumen

List the steps for Spermatogenesis

1. Spermatogonium 2. Primary spermatocyte 3. 2 secondary spermatocytes 4. 4 early spermatids 5. Late spermatids with flagella and add’l structures

Week 3 Flashcards

(84 cards)