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Week 1,2 Flashcards

1
Q

which cell types are fixed ?

A 
Fibroblasts 
Adipocytes 
Plasma cells
Mast cells 
Macrophages*
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2
Q

What order are cell types in on CBC ?

A 
Neutrophils 
Lymphocytes 
Monocytes 
Eosinophils 
Basophils
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3
Q

Function of loose collagen fibres ?

A

Binding of tissues

Diffusion of O2 and nutrients

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4
Q

Function of dense irregular collagen

A

Allow stretching in different directions

- dermis/ organ capsules

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5
Q

Function of dense regular collagen

A

Tensile strength

Exclusive to tendons and ligaments

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6
Q

Structure and function of reticular fibres

A

Spider web like

Supportive mesh work

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7
Q

3 main functions of the pericardium

A

Important role in cardiac mechanics
Allows appropriate lubrication with cardiac motion
Serves as a barrier for limiting infections

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8
Q

3 main layers of the heart

A

Endocardium
Myocardium
Pericardium

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9
Q

What is the functional unit of a cardiac muscle fibre

A

Sarcomere

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10
Q

Cardiac output

A

Volume of blood ejected from the ventricle per minute

SV x HR = CO

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11
Q

BP calculation

A

BP = CO x SVR (systemic vascular resistance)

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12
Q

What is the G1 checkpoint looking for ?

A

Sufficient nutrients

DNA damage

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13
Q

What does the G2 checkpoint look for ?

A

Chromosomes duplicated

DNA damage

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14
Q

What does spindle checkpoint in M phase look for

A

Sister chromosomes correctly attached to the spindles

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15
Q

What is a missense point mutation ?

A

Change in the amino acid that may change function

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16
Q

What is a nonsense mutation ?

A

Mutation that cause a STOP codon —> shortened protein —> usual loss of function

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17
Q

What is an oncogene ?

A

Genetically mutated pronto-oncogene which leads it to have enhanced activity and constitutive activation —> cells that grow out of control

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18
Q

How are oncogenes produced ?

A

Point mutations
Amplifications
Translocations
Viral insertion

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19
Q

What enzyme is involved in DNA replication ?

A

DNA polymerase

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20
Q

What happens during transcription and what enzyme is involved ?

A

DNA —> RNA

RNA Polymerase

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21
Q

What happens during translation and where does it take place ?

A

RNA —> protein

Ribosomes

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22
Q

Types of non-coding DNA

A

Introns
Regions transcribed into non-coding functional RNAs
Replication origins
Structural components of chromosomes

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23
Q

What happens to RNA from splicing ?

A

Primary RNA —> mRNA by removing introns and only leaving exons

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24
Q

What is the importance of the core promoter ?

A

Binding site for RNA polymerase II at transcription start site

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25
What is the role of a proximal promoter ?
Binding sites for transcription activators that promote the binding of RNA polymerase II to the core promoter
26
What are enhancers in transcription ?
Binding sites for transcription activators that promote binding of RNA polymerase II to the core promoter
27
What enzymes disrupt chromatin structure ?
Histone acetyltransferases | Chromatin remodeling complexes
28
What enzyme strengths chromatin structure and what is it recruited by ?
Histone diacetylase | Transcription repressors
29
What is promoter DNA methylation associated with ?
Transcription silencing
30
What cranial nerves and spinal segments make up the parasympathetic portion of the nervous system ?
CN III, VII, IX, X | S2-S4
31
What spinal segments compose the sympathetic nervous system ?
T1-L2
32
What makes up the major control and integration centres of the ANS ?
Hypothalamus and medulla
33
What are the different types of autonomic afferents?
``` Baroreceptors (monitor BP) Chemoreceptors (control ventilation) Thermoreceptors Stretch activated receptors Mechanoreceptors Pain fibres Osmoreceptors ```
34
What do preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic NS release ?
Acetylcholine
35
What do preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic NS release ?
Acetylcholine
36
What do preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system stimulate ?
Nicotinic receptors
37
What do postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate ?
a1, B1, B2-adrenergic receptors
38
What do postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release ?
Norepinephrine / epinephrine
39
What do postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulate ?
Muscarinic Ach receptors
40
What do postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system release?
Acetylcholine
41
Where are the arterial baroreceptors located ?
Carotid sinus, aortic arch
42
What is the mechanism of the arterial baroreceptors ?
Respond to stretch caused by increased BP by increasing firing rate. Pressure threshold of 50-60 mmHg and increase firing rate up to about 200 mmHg
43
How do the afferent fibres from the carotid sinus baroreceptors act ?
Sense BP change —> send messages via CN IX to the vasomotor centre in the NTS in the medulla,
44
What CN do the baroreceptors from the aortic arch send messages to NTS via ?
CN X (vagus nerve)
45
Carotid sinus reflex
Excessively high BP —> increased parasympathetic tone —> decreased HR and force of contraction —> normal BP And at the same time Excessively high BP —> decreased sympathetic tone —> decrease peripheral resistance —> normal BP
46
What is the minimum daily intake to maintain water balance ?
1100 mL
47
How does the human body regulate water ?
ADH and thirst centre in hypothalamus
48
What is osmolarity tightly regulated between ?
280-295 mOsm/L
49
How does the thirst centre regulate water intake ?
Water loss —> increased osmolarity —> increased thirst and water intake —> restore osmolarity
50
How does ADH regulate water in the body ?
Increase osmolarity or decrease BP —> ADH increases # of aquaporins in kidneys —> increased water retention —> normal osmolarity
51
What % of sodium reaches the distal convoluted tubule/ collecting duct ?
<10%
52
What actions do natriuretic peptides have ?
1. Decrease Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule/ collecting duct 2. Directly decrease renin release
53
What is normal sodium concentration ?
135-145 mmol / L
54
Things that can cause significant shift in K+
Acid-base balance -acidosis —> hyperkalemia Insulin B-adrenergic agonists (epinephrine)
55
Normal blood potassium concentration range
3.5 - 5.0 mmol / L
56
Normal blood pH range
7.35-7.45
57
What are the major extracellular and intracellular buffer systems ?
Bicarbonate (H+ + HCO3- H2CO3 H2O + CO2) | Hemoglobin (H+ + hemoglobin- HHemoglobin )
58
Difference between respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Respiratory: caused by increased PCO2 Metabolic: caused by low HCO3
59
Compensation in metabolic vs respiratory acidosis
Metabolic: compensation by lungs -> increase ventilation rate to decrease PCO2 Seconds to minutes Respiratory: compensation by kidneys -> increase excretion of H+ / increase reabsorption of HCO3- Hours to days
60
Diffusion vs Convection
Diffusion: movement of molecules from high to low concentration Convection: movement of molecules due to solvent drag
61
Where does gluconeogenesis primarily occur ?
In the liver
62
What happens in response to a decrease in blood [glucose] ?
1. Active skeletal muscle cells break down glycogen to produce and release glucose into the blood 2. Adipocytes release fatty acids which are then converted to glucose in hepatocytes 3. Hepatocytes break down glycogen to produce and release glucose into the blood
63
What happens in oxidative phosphorylation ?
ATP synthesis is coupled to the flow of electrons to the ultimate electron acceptor (O2) by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
64
What happens in B-oxidation of fatty acids ?
Fatty acids converted to acetyl groups | Each round shortens the fatty acid by 2 carbons, generates one acetyl CoA and releases electrons
65
What can sometimes be smelled on the breath of someone who has high concentration of ketones ?
Acetone (sweet smell)
66
Ketone bodies are used by which tissues ?
Heart Skeletal muscle Brain during starvation
67
What are the 4 signs of inflammation ?
Red, heat, swelling, pain
68
Inflammatory response 5 Rs
1. Recognition of the injurious agent 2. Recruitment of leukocytes 3. Removal of the agent 4. Regulation (control) of the response 5. Resolution (repair)
69
What are cytokines ?
Secreted small proteins that function as mediators of immune and inflammatory reactions.
70
What is the complement system ?
A collection of circulating and membrane associated proteins
71
What role does the complement system serve ?
Helps in elimination of microbes during immune response
72
What are the major mechanisms of pathogen entry into humans ?
``` Direct contact Indirect contact Droplets Airborne Vehicle Vector borne Mucosal surfaces Skin Ingestion into GI tract ```
73
What is an important distinction in classification of fungi ?
Yeast vs molds
74
Where do drugs come from ?
Plants Animals Minerals Synthetic
75
4 different types of drug names
Chemical name Generic name Proprietary name Street name
76
What is affinity in drug receptor complex ?
A measure of how tightly a drug binds to the receptor
77
What is specificity in drug-receptor complex?
Ability of a drug to bind a specific type of receptor
78
Four functional classes of receptors ?
Ligand gated ion channels G-protein-coupled receptors Enzyme-linked receptors Intracellular receptors
79
What are agonists ?
Drugs that have receptor affinity and intrinsic activity
80
What are antagonists ?
Drugs that have receptor affinity but lack intrinsic activity —> often work by blocking agonist activity
81
What is ED50 ?
Dose required to produce a therapeutic effect in 50% of the population
82
What is TD50
Dose required to produce a toxic effect in 50% of the population
83
What is the therapeutic index ?
Measure of drug safety TI = TD50/ED50 Larger TI —> safer
84
What are the possible routes of drug delivery ?
``` Enteral Parenteral Inhalation Topical Transdermal ```

411 (16 decks)

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