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411 > Week 1,2 > Flashcards

Week 1,2 Flashcards

1
Q

which cell types are fixed ?

A 
Fibroblasts 
Adipocytes 
Plasma cells
Mast cells 
Macrophages*
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2
Q

What order are cell types in on CBC ?

A 
Neutrophils 
Lymphocytes 
Monocytes 
Eosinophils 
Basophils
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3
Q

Function of loose collagen fibres ?

A

Binding of tissues

Diffusion of O2 and nutrients

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4
Q

Function of dense irregular collagen

A

Allow stretching in different directions

- dermis/ organ capsules

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5
Q

Function of dense regular collagen

A

Tensile strength

Exclusive to tendons and ligaments

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6
Q

Structure and function of reticular fibres

A

Spider web like

Supportive mesh work

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7
Q

3 main functions of the pericardium

A

Important role in cardiac mechanics
Allows appropriate lubrication with cardiac motion
Serves as a barrier for limiting infections

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8
Q

3 main layers of the heart

A

Endocardium
Myocardium
Pericardium

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9
Q

What is the functional unit of a cardiac muscle fibre

A

Sarcomere

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10
Q

Cardiac output

A

Volume of blood ejected from the ventricle per minute

SV x HR = CO

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11
Q

BP calculation

A

BP = CO x SVR (systemic vascular resistance)

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12
Q

What is the G1 checkpoint looking for ?

A

Sufficient nutrients

DNA damage

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13
Q

What does the G2 checkpoint look for ?

A

Chromosomes duplicated

DNA damage

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14
Q

What does spindle checkpoint in M phase look for

A

Sister chromosomes correctly attached to the spindles

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15
Q

What is a missense point mutation ?

A

Change in the amino acid that may change function

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16
Q

What is a nonsense mutation ?

A

Mutation that cause a STOP codon —> shortened protein —> usual loss of function

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17
Q

What is an oncogene ?

A

Genetically mutated pronto-oncogene which leads it to have enhanced activity and constitutive activation —> cells that grow out of control

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18
Q

How are oncogenes produced ?

A

Point mutations
Amplifications
Translocations
Viral insertion

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19
Q

What enzyme is involved in DNA replication ?

A

DNA polymerase

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20
Q

What happens during transcription and what enzyme is involved ?

A

DNA —> RNA

RNA Polymerase

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21
Q

What happens during translation and where does it take place ?

A

RNA —> protein

Ribosomes

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22
Q

Types of non-coding DNA

A

Introns
Regions transcribed into non-coding functional RNAs
Replication origins
Structural components of chromosomes

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23
Q

What happens to RNA from splicing ?

A

Primary RNA —> mRNA by removing introns and only leaving exons

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24
Q

What is the importance of the core promoter ?

A

Binding site for RNA polymerase II at transcription start site

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25
Q

What is the role of a proximal promoter ?

A

Binding sites for transcription activators that promote the binding of RNA polymerase II to the core promoter

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26
Q

What are enhancers in transcription ?

A

Binding sites for transcription activators that promote binding of RNA polymerase II to the core promoter

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27
Q

What enzymes disrupt chromatin structure ?

A

Histone acetyltransferases

Chromatin remodeling complexes

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28
Q

What enzyme strengths chromatin structure and what is it recruited by ?

A

Histone diacetylase

Transcription repressors

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29
Q

What is promoter DNA methylation associated with ?

A

Transcription silencing

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30
Q

What cranial nerves and spinal segments make up the parasympathetic portion of the nervous system ?

A

CN III, VII, IX, X

S2-S4

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31
Q

What spinal segments compose the sympathetic nervous system ?

A

T1-L2

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32
Q

What makes up the major control and integration centres of the ANS ?

A

Hypothalamus and medulla

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33
Q

What are the different types of autonomic afferents?

A 
Baroreceptors (monitor BP)
Chemoreceptors (control ventilation)
Thermoreceptors 
Stretch activated receptors 
Mechanoreceptors 
Pain fibres 
Osmoreceptors
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34
Q

What do preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic NS release ?

A

Acetylcholine

35
Q

What do preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic NS release ?

A

Acetylcholine

36
Q

What do preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system stimulate ?

A

Nicotinic receptors

37
Q

What do postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate ?

A

a1, B1, B2-adrenergic receptors

38
Q

What do postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release ?

A

Norepinephrine / epinephrine

39
Q

What do postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulate ?

A

Muscarinic Ach receptors

40
Q

What do postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system release?

A

Acetylcholine

41
Q

Where are the arterial baroreceptors located ?

A

Carotid sinus, aortic arch

42
Q

What is the mechanism of the arterial baroreceptors ?

A

Respond to stretch caused by increased BP by increasing firing rate.
Pressure threshold of 50-60 mmHg and increase firing rate up to about 200 mmHg

43
Q

How do the afferent fibres from the carotid sinus baroreceptors act ?

A

Sense BP change —> send messages via CN IX to the vasomotor centre in the NTS in the medulla,

44
Q

What CN do the baroreceptors from the aortic arch send messages to NTS via ?

A

CN X (vagus nerve)

45
Q

Carotid sinus reflex

A

Excessively high BP —> increased parasympathetic tone —> decreased HR and force of contraction —> normal BP
And at the same time
Excessively high BP —> decreased sympathetic tone —> decrease peripheral resistance —> normal BP

46
Q

What is the minimum daily intake to maintain water balance ?

A

1100 mL

47
Q

How does the human body regulate water ?

A

ADH and thirst centre in hypothalamus

48
Q

What is osmolarity tightly regulated between ?

A

280-295 mOsm/L

49
Q

How does the thirst centre regulate water intake ?

A

Water loss —> increased osmolarity —> increased thirst and water intake —> restore osmolarity

50
Q

How does ADH regulate water in the body ?

A

Increase osmolarity or decrease BP —> ADH increases # of aquaporins in kidneys —> increased water retention —> normal osmolarity

51
Q

What % of sodium reaches the distal convoluted tubule/ collecting duct ?

A

<10%

52
Q

What actions do natriuretic peptides have ?

A
  1. Decrease Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule/ collecting duct
  2. Directly decrease renin release
53
Q

What is normal sodium concentration ?

A

135-145 mmol / L

54
Q

Things that can cause significant shift in K+

A

Acid-base balance
-acidosis —> hyperkalemia
Insulin
B-adrenergic agonists (epinephrine)

55
Q

Normal blood potassium concentration range

A

3.5 - 5.0 mmol / L

56
Q

Normal blood pH range

A

7.35-7.45

57
Q

What are the major extracellular and intracellular buffer systems ?

A

Bicarbonate (H+ + HCO3- H2CO3 H2O + CO2)

Hemoglobin (H+ + hemoglobin- HHemoglobin )

58
Q

Difference between respiratory and metabolic acidosis

A

Respiratory: caused by increased PCO2
Metabolic: caused by low HCO3

59
Q

Compensation in metabolic vs respiratory acidosis

A

Metabolic: compensation by lungs -> increase ventilation rate to decrease PCO2
Seconds to minutes
Respiratory: compensation by kidneys -> increase excretion of H+ / increase reabsorption of HCO3-
Hours to days

60
Q

Diffusion vs Convection

A

Diffusion: movement of molecules from high to low concentration
Convection: movement of molecules due to solvent drag

61
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis primarily occur ?

A

In the liver

62
Q

What happens in response to a decrease in blood [glucose] ?

A
  1. Active skeletal muscle cells break down glycogen to produce and release glucose into the blood
  2. Adipocytes release fatty acids which are then converted to glucose in hepatocytes
  3. Hepatocytes break down glycogen to produce and release glucose into the blood
63
Q

What happens in oxidative phosphorylation ?

A

ATP synthesis is coupled to the flow of electrons to the ultimate electron acceptor (O2) by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

64
Q

What happens in B-oxidation of fatty acids ?

A

Fatty acids converted to acetyl groups

Each round shortens the fatty acid by 2 carbons, generates one acetyl CoA and releases electrons

65
Q

What can sometimes be smelled on the breath of someone who has high concentration of ketones ?

A

Acetone (sweet smell)

66
Q

Ketone bodies are used by which tissues ?

A

Heart
Skeletal muscle
Brain during starvation

67
Q

What are the 4 signs of inflammation ?

A

Red, heat, swelling, pain

68
Q

Inflammatory response 5 Rs

A
  1. Recognition of the injurious agent
  2. Recruitment of leukocytes
  3. Removal of the agent
  4. Regulation (control) of the response
  5. Resolution (repair)
69
Q

What are cytokines ?

A

Secreted small proteins that function as mediators of immune and inflammatory reactions.

70
Q

What is the complement system ?

A

A collection of circulating and membrane associated proteins

71
Q

What role does the complement system serve ?

A

Helps in elimination of microbes during immune response

72
Q

What are the major mechanisms of pathogen entry into humans ?

A 
Direct contact 
Indirect contact 
Droplets
Airborne 
Vehicle 
Vector borne 
Mucosal surfaces 
Skin 
Ingestion into GI tract
73
Q

What is an important distinction in classification of fungi ?

A

Yeast vs molds

74
Q

Where do drugs come from ?

A

Plants
Animals
Minerals
Synthetic

75
Q

4 different types of drug names

A

Chemical name
Generic name
Proprietary name
Street name

76
Q

What is affinity in drug receptor complex ?

A

A measure of how tightly a drug binds to the receptor

77
Q

What is specificity in drug-receptor complex?

A

Ability of a drug to bind a specific type of receptor

78
Q

Four functional classes of receptors ?

A

Ligand gated ion channels
G-protein-coupled receptors
Enzyme-linked receptors
Intracellular receptors

79
Q

What are agonists ?

A

Drugs that have receptor affinity and intrinsic activity

80
Q

What are antagonists ?

A

Drugs that have receptor affinity but lack intrinsic activity
—> often work by blocking agonist activity

81
Q

What is ED50 ?

A

Dose required to produce a therapeutic effect in 50% of the population

82
Q

What is TD50

A

Dose required to produce a toxic effect in 50% of the population

83
Q

What is the therapeutic index ?

A

Measure of drug safety
TI = TD50/ED50
Larger TI —> safer

84
Q

What are the possible routes of drug delivery ?

A 
Enteral 
Parenteral 
Inhalation 
Topical 
Transdermal

411 (16 decks)

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