Week 1-4 revision Flashcards
(581 cards)
1
Q
What is Behaviorism in psychology?
A
A paradigm that argues against psychological theories proposing internal mental states as causal mechanisms for explaining learning and behavior.
2
Q
Who were the influential figures in Behaviorism?
A
John B. Watson and B.F. Skinner.
3
Q
What is the ‘Cognitive Revolution’?
A
A shift in psychology that focuses on internal mental processes rather than just behavior.
4
Q
What are the main components of memory according to the lecture?
A
The three components are encoding, storage, and retrieval.
5
Q
What is sensory memory?
A
A temporary, sensory-based representation of input received through sensory channels.
6
Q
What is the multi-store model of memory?
A
A model proposed by Atkinson and Shiffrin that identifies three memory stores: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.
7
Q
What processes are involved in encoding?
A
Attending to, acquiring, and interpreting information from experiences.
8
Q
What characterizes short-term memory?
A
Short-term memory (working memory) allows temporary storage and manipulation of information.
9
Q
Describe iconic memory.
A
Iconic memory is the visual sensory memory that has a brief duration and large capacity.
10
Q
What evidence did Sperling provide for the capacity of iconic memory?
A
He demonstrated through full-report and partial-report methods that iconic memory has a larger capacity than initially thought.
11
Q
What is retrieval in the context of memory?
A
The process of recalling or recognizing information stored in memory.
12
Q
What were the results of Sperling’s full-report method?
A
Participants could remember an average of only 4 letters, though they felt they had access to all items briefly.
13
Q
How did the partial-report method differ from the full-report method?
A
In the partial-report method, a cue signaled which line of letters to report, allowing better assessment of iconic memory capacity.
14
Q
What influences the retrieval process?
A
Retrieval is highly context-dependent and can be error-prone due to reconsolidation.
15
Q
What is the duration of iconic memory as found by Sperling?
A
The memory performance declined to one item after approximately 500 milliseconds.
16
Q
What role does attention play in memory encoding?
A
Attention helps in focusing on elements of an experience for better encoding of information.
17
Q
How are memories stored in the brain?
A
Memories are stored in networks of neurons distributed throughout the cortex.
18
Q
What is the capacity of sensory memory compared to short-term memory?
A
Sensory memory has a larger capacity than short-term memory.
19
Q
What defines the term ‘retrieval cues’?
A
Cues that help in recalling information by providing context or reminders.
20
Q
What two primary sensory systems have been studied in relation to sensory memory?
A
Vision and audition.
21
Q
What is the main focus of the lecture on memory?
A
To explore the multi-store model of memory and its components.
22
Q
What was the significant contribution of Tolman and Bandura to psychology?
A
They demonstrated that internal mental processes can be studied scientifically.
23
Q
What does ‘reconsolidation’ refer to in memory retrieval?
A
The process where retrieved memories may be altered when they are stored again.
24
Q
What was a key finding by Sperling in his experiments on iconic memory?
A
That the full-report method underestimated the capacity of iconic memory.
25
What is the duration and capacity of echoic memory compared to iconic memory?
Echoic memory has a brief duration similar to iconic memory but is specifically auditory.
26
What did Sperling use to improve the precision of his memory experiments?
He used auditory cues to signal which line of letters to recall in the partial-report method.
27
How does 'learning' from the Behaviorist perspective differ from cognitive theories?
Behaviorism denies the role of internal mental states, while cognitive theories emphasize their importance in understanding learning.
28
Define 'memory' based on the lecture.
A set of storage systems and processes for encoding, storing, and retrieving information acquired through the senses.
29
What insight does Sperling's research give regarding cognitive processes?
It shows that behavioral measures can effectively test theories about internal cognitive processes.
30
How do sensory memory systems operate as buffers?
They act as holding areas between early sensory processing and subsequent cognitive processing.
31
What experimental evidence did Sperling provide for iconic memory capacity?
He showed that participants could recall more letters when cued to report specific lines than when asked to report everything.
32
What is the relationship between perception and memory?
Perception involves encoding and retrieval processes that contribute to memory formation.
33
What conclusion can be drawn about the capacity of iconic memory?
The true capacity is much higher than previously thought, as indicated by the results of Sperling's partial-report method.
34
What are the three key memory processes?
Encoding, storage, and retrieval.
35
What does 'long-term memory' refer to?
A system for storing information over extended periods.
36
What was a significant limitation of Behaviorism that led to the Cognitive Revolution?
Behaviorism was considered too constrained as the only acceptable framework for understanding psychological processes.
37
What are 'explicit' and 'implicit' retrieval processes?
Explicit retrieval involves consciously recalling information, while implicit retrieval involves unconscious memory responses.
38
Describe the role of sensory memory in cognitive processes.
It acts as an initial stage for processing sensory input before further cognitive interpretation.
39
What is the focus of cognitive psychology as discussed in the lecture?
Exploring the mental processes involved in memory, learning, and behavior.
40
Who proposed the multi-store model of memory?
Atkinson and Shiffrin.
41
What does the term 'memory trace' refer to?
The physical representation of a memory in the brain's neural networks.
42
What finding did Sperling's research indicate about the fading of visual memory?
Visual memory fades quickly, indicating a brief retention period.
43
What is the purpose of 'consolidation' in memory storage?
To stabilize encoded information into a lasting memory trace.
44
How do the different types of memory systems differ in terms of capacity?
Different memory systems (sensory, short-term, long-term) have varying capacities for stored information.
45
What did Sperling's research highlight about the brief visual experience?
Participants reported an immediate but fleeting visual image of the entire display.
46
What are the characteristics of sensory memory?
Large capacity, brief duration, and serves as a buffer for cognitive processes.
47
What influences the duration of iconic memory?
The retention interval between stimulus presentation and cue signaling.
48
What are the two primary types of memory exemplified in the lecture?
Iconic memory (visual) and echoic memory (auditory).
49
How does the cognitive approach differ from Behaviorism?
The cognitive approach emphasizes internal mental processes, while Behaviorism focuses solely on observable behaviors.
50
What did early neurological research reveal about long-term memory storage?
Long-term memories are widely distributed throughout the brain rather than localized.
51
Anatomical Divisions of the Brain
The brain is divided into three primary divisions: Forebrain, Midbrain, and Hindbrain.
52
What is the function of the corpus callosum?
The corpus callosum connects the two hemispheres of the brain and facilitates communication between them.
53
Rostral refers to which direction in the brain?
Rostral means 'toward the beak' or anterior direction in the brain.
54
What does 'caudal' signify in neuroanatomy?
Caudal indicates direction toward the tail or posterior part of the brain.
55
Define 'dorsal' in relation to brain structure.
Dorsal refers to the superior direction or 'toward the back' of the brain.
56
What does 'ventral' indicate in neuroanatomical terms?
Ventral means 'toward the belly' or inferior direction in the brain.
57
What is the meaning of 'medial'?
Medial refers to a position 'toward the midline' of the body.
58
Define 'lateral' in the context of brain anatomy.
Lateral indicates a position 'toward the side' of the body or brain.
59
What do the terms ipsilateral and contralateral refer to?
Ipsilateral means 'on the same side of the midline,' while contralateral means 'on the opposite side of the midline.'
60
What is homotopic communication in the corpus callosum?
Homotopic communication connects complementary regions of each hemisphere.
61
What is heterotopic communication in the corpus callosum?
Heterotopic communication involves connections to different brain regions.
62
What is callosotomy?
Callosotomy is a surgical procedure to cut the corpus callosum, used to manage severe epilepsy.
63
What regions comprise the forebrain?
The forebrain includes the telencephalon and diencephalon.
64
What is the largest structure of the human brain?
The cerebral cortex is the largest structure of the human brain.
65
What are the two major components of the Telencephalon?
The Telencephalon consists of the limbic system and the cerebral cortex.
66
What is the role of the basal ganglia?
The basal ganglia are involved in controlling involuntary movements.
67
How does Parkinson's disease affect the basal ganglia?
Parkinson's disease affects the basal ganglia, leading to involuntary movements, tremors, and rigidity.
68
What is the emotional role of the limbic system?
The limbic system is involved in emotion regulation and includes structures like the amygdala and hippocampus.
69
What role does the thalamus play in the brain?
The thalamus acts as a major relay station for sensory inputs to the cerebral cortex.
70
Define the hypothalamus's function.
The hypothalamus controls the autonomic nervous system and regulates survival behaviors.
71
What is the primary role of the midbrain?
The midbrain is involved in motor movement, particularly of the eye, and in auditory and visual processing.
72
What structures are included in the hindbrain?
The hindbrain includes the metencephalon (cerebellum and pons) and myelencephalon (medulla oblongata).
73
What is the function of the cerebellum?
The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance.
74
What are the primary functions of the medulla oblongata?
The medulla oblongata contains neurons important for autonomic functions such as respiration and heart rate.
75
What are the lobes of the cerebral cortex?
The lobes include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe.
76
What does the primary visual cortex do?
The primary visual cortex processes sensory information from the retina.
77
What does the term 'tonotopic map' refer to in auditory processing?
A tonotopic map in the primary auditory cortex represents different sound frequencies.
78
What is the role of the primary somatosensory cortex?
The primary somatosensory cortex receives sensory information from the skin and processes touch and pain.
79
What is the significance of the primary motor cortex?
The primary motor cortex controls voluntary muscle movements on the contralateral side of the body.
80
Describe the higher order functions of the frontal lobes.
Frontal lobes are involved in voluntary behavior, impulse control, emotional regulation, abstract reasoning, and language.
81
Who was Phineas Gage and why is he significant in psychology?
Phineas Gage is significant for his case of frontal lobe damage, which altered his personality and executive functions.
82
What distinction does the human frontal cortex have compared to other animals?
The human frontal cortex is larger and more connected than that of non-primates.
83
What is the dorsal stream in parietal cortex responsible for?
The dorsal stream is involved in spatial localization and awareness.
84
What is the ventral stream in the temporal cortex responsible for?
The ventral stream is involved in complex visual processing such as object recognition and faces.
85
Which part of the brain is crucial for auditory processing?
The temporal lobe is crucial for auditory processing.
86
What is the function of the auditory sensory information processed in the primary auditory cortex?
It processes auditory information received from the cochlea.
87
What type of information does the primary somatosensory cortex process?
It processes sensory information related to temperature, touch, and pain from the skin.
88
What is an action potential?
An action potential is the rapid change in the membrane potential of a neuron caused by changes in the flow of charged ions across the neuron's cell membrane.
89
What causes an action potential to be triggered?
An action potential is triggered when the membrane potential reaches -50 mV.
90
What is the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
The resting membrane potential of a neuron is -70 mV.
91
Define hyperpolarization in the context of neurons.
Hyperpolarization is when the membrane potential is further from the threshold of activation, making the neuron less likely to trigger another action potential.
92
Describe the 'all-or-none' characteristic of an action potential.
The 'all-or-none' characteristic means that a neuron either fires an action potential fully or not at all, with no partial firing.
93
What is the Rate Law of action potentials?
The Rate Law states that the strength of a neural signal is determined by the frequency of action potentials fired.
94
What happens to the membrane potential during depolarization?
During depolarization, the membrane potential moves from -70 mV closer to 0 mV as positive sodium ions (Na+) flow into the cell.
95
What role do ion channels play in the action potential?
Voltage-dependent ion channels (Na+, K+) are crucial for the initiation and propagation of action potentials.
96
What are neurotransmitters?
Neurotransmitters are chemicals synthesized in the brain/neurons that act as 'chemical messengers' between neurons.
97
What is the function of synapses in neuronal communication?
Synapses enable communication between neurons by allowing neurotransmitters to cross between pre- and post-synaptic membranes.
98
Explain the process of neurotransmitter release at a synapse.
An action potential triggers synaptic vesicles to move toward the presynaptic membrane, fuse with it, and release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.
99
What is an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?
EPSPs depolarize the postsynaptic cell membrane and increase the likelihood of triggering an action potential.
100
What is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?
IPSPs hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell membrane and decrease the likelihood of triggering an action potential.
101
Define neural integration.
Neural integration is the process where a neuron integrates excitatory and inhibitory inputs to determine whether it will fire an action potential.
102
What is the role of receptors in neurotransmission?
Receptors bind neurotransmitters and can open ion channels to cause effects in the postsynaptic neuron.
103
What do the terms agonist and antagonist refer to in pharmacology?
Agonists activate receptors mimicking natural neurotransmitters, while antagonists block receptors and prevent activation.
104
What is the impact of drugs on neurotransmitter function?
Drugs can impact neurotransmitter function by affecting synthesis, release, receptor binding, and overall brain signaling.
105
What is the significance of the myelin sheath on nerve fibers?
The myelin sheath allows action potentials to propagate faster by ensuring ions flow in and out across the neuron membrane only at gaps called nodes.
106
Explain the term 'refractory period' in neural firing.
The refractory period is a phase after an action potential where the membrane potential is hyperpolarized, making it less likely to trigger another action potential.
107
What happens during the hyperpolarization phase of a neuron's action potential?
During hyperpolarization, the membrane potential becomes even more negative than resting potential, temporarily inhibiting firing.
108
What mechanisms allow neurotransmitters to recycle in the synapse?
Neurotransmitters can be recycled through a process called endocytosis, which reabsorbs them back into the synapse after release.
109
How do EPSPs and IPSPs work together?
EPSPs and IPSPs work together in neural integration, where their combined effect determines if a neuron will fire an action potential.
110
Describe the main structural features of a neuron.
Key structural features of a neuron include the cell body, dendrites, and axon.
111
What is the significance of the synaptic cleft?
The synaptic cleft is the space between pre- and post-synaptic membranes where neurotransmitters diffuse to effect communication.
112
What neurotransmitter is identified as the primary excitatory neurotransmitter?
Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter.
113
Which neurotransmitter is recognized as the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter?
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter.
114
What occurs when a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor?
When a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor, it triggers effects such as the opening of ion channels, impacting the postsynaptic neuron.
115
Neuroscience
The study of the function and structures of the nervous system, including the brain, neurons, and synapses.
116
What does Behavioural Neuroscience study?
The scientific study of the relationship between the nervous system and both the mind and behavior.
117
Definition of Behavioural Neuroscience
Also known as Biological Psychology or Physiological Psychology, it involves research that examines how brain activity impacts mental processes and behavior.
118
What factors limit advances in the understanding of the brain?
Religious or moral views, methodological limitations, serendipity (chance discoveries), and scientific conservatism.
119
Hippocrates (460 - 370 BCE)
Considered the father of modern medicine and the first to propose that the brain controls the body.
120
Edwin Smith Papyrus
An ancient Egyptian document around 1600 BCE that linked brain damage to mental symptoms, establishing the brain as the command center of the body.
121
Broca's Aphasia
A type of aphasia caused by damage to Broca's area, resulting in difficulty in producing speech but not in comprehension.
122
Wernicke's Aphasia
A condition caused by damage to Wernicke’s area, characterized by impaired understanding of speech while speech production remains fluent.
123
Who was René Descartes?
A French philosopher (1596-1650) known for formulating the mind-body problem and suggesting nerve signals are electrical.
124
Franz Joseph Gall
A German scientist (1758-1828) who proposed the idea of a modular brain and introduced phrenology, claiming that different brain regions corresponded to specific thoughts or behaviors.
125
What is phrenology?
Gall's flawed method that suggested the brain is composed of distinct 'organs of thought,' reflected in the shape of the skull.
126
What significance did Paul Broca's research have?
Broca's research provided early evidence for the localization of function in the brain, linking specific brain regions to language production.
127
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128
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129
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Cloze: Edwin Smith Papyrus is known for linking {{c1::}} to {{c2::}}.
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Cloze: Hippocrates proposed that the mind is located in the {{c1::}}.
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Cloze: René Descartes proposed that behaviour is driven by nerves and suggested that their signals are {{c1::}}.
134
Cloze: Broca's area is located in the {{c1::}} lobe of the brain.
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Cloze: Wernicke’s area corresponds to the {{c1::}} part of the superior gyrus.
136
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Cloze: Carl Wernicke described patients with damage that impacted their {{c1::}} but preserved their {{c2::}}.
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140
What is the role of Neuropsychology?
It is a research and clinical specialty that links brain damage with psychological processes, assessing risks and improvements in patients.
141
Psychopharmacology
The study of how neurochemistry influences mind and behavior, including the effects of neurotransmitters and drugs.
142
What are the emerging fields related to Behavioural Neuroscience?
Neuromorphic computing, cognitive computational neuroscience, and in silico neuroscience.
143
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144
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145
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148
What does the study of Cognitive Neuroscience focus on?
The neural basis of cognition, including memory, language, perception, and decision-making, and the functional connectivity among multiple brain regions.
149
What are some career paths in Behavioural Neuroscience?
Careers in clinical neuropsychology, research (including psychology and neuroscience), as well as roles in marketing and education related to brain-behavior associations.
150
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151
Models of the Human Mind
Aspects of the human brain that are common across animal species.
152
Large international brain simulation projects
Combine neuroscience knowledge with computing technology.
153
Key issues concerning the human brain
Includes whether it can be replicated and if this means replicating the human mind.
154
Advances in behavioral neuroscience
Many come from animal research.
155
Fruit Fly (Drosophila)
Used to model human disease and shows similar patterns of activity in sleep anaesthesia.
156
Comparative Neuroanatomy
Comparing brain structures across species informs behavioral neuroscience.
157
Importance of brain size
An animal's intelligence is not proportional to brain size; it typically scales with body size.
158
Neuron count in the brain
More neurons and synaptic connections increase the complexity of brain function.
159
Functional specialization in brains
Animals have larger brain areas dedicated to specific skills or functions.
160
Charles Darwin's claims about human behavior
Rooted in natural processes operating on ancestral species.
161
Moral and ethical debates in neuroscience
Arise from Darwin's claims about human and animal psychological processes.
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Comparative Psychology
Involves comparing psychological processes and behavior across species.
163
Motion illusions in neuroscience
Evidence of these exists across species.
164
Simulating the brain with technology
Rapid growth of computers aids in simulation and modeling of the human brain.
165
Allen Brain Institute funding
Received a $100 million donation from Microsoft founder Paul Allen.
166
Goals of the Human Brain Project
To simulate neurons for 'brain-inspired computing' and improve neuroscience tools.
167
Cognitive functions compared across species
Animal models help understand evolution and inform medical research.
168
Computer modeling limits
Simulating the entire human brain or mind is currently not possible.
169
Central Nervous System components
Includes the brain (and retinal cells) and spinal cord.
170
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) role
Sends messages from the brain to control muscle movement.
171
Somatic Nervous System function
Controls voluntary movements and receives sensory information.
172
Components of the Autonomic Nervous System
Includes the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic systems.
173
Parasympathetic Nervous System function
Dominates during 'rest and digest' activities.
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Sympathetic Nervous System response
Dominates during stress or threat; induces 'Fight or Flight' mode.
175
Enteric Nervous System (ENS) characteristics
Contains 100 million neurons and can act independently of the brain.
176
Neurotransmitters in ENS
Nearly every neurotransmitter found in the brain is also in the gut.
177
Major role of the Enteric Nervous System
Plays a significant role in emotions and stress.
178
Connections from gut to brain
90% of connections go from the gut to the brain.
179
EEG
Electroencephalography, measuring electrical activity in the brain.
180
MRI
Magnetic Resonance Imaging, a technique using magnetic fields to visualize brain structures.
181
PET
Positron Emission Tomography, a method for visualizing metabolic processes in the brain.
182
Strength of EEG
Good temporal resolution, relatively cheap, portable, and safe.
183
Limitations of EEG
Poor spatial resolution, typically detects only surface cortical activity.
184
First human EEG
Performed by Hans Berger in 1924.
185
Limitations of single neuron electrophysiology
High risk of infection and records from few neurons at a time.
186
What does a MRI scanner generate?
A strong magnetic field greater than Earth's magnetic field.
187
How does fMRI work?
It measures blood-oxygen-level dependent (BOLD) signals, relating oxygen levels to brain activity.
188
What is the function of Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI)?
It detects large axon tracts through the brain.
189
Why is MRI considered a valuable tool?
It identifies specific anatomical and functional properties of brain regions.
190
Limitations of MRI
High cost, requires specialist staff and facilities, and safety risks due to strong magnets.
191
What does PET imaging use to visualize brain activity?
Radioactive substances known as tracers.
192
Strengths of PET
Can detect brain chemicals and visualize metabolism or neurotransmitter function.
193
Limitations of PET
Expensive, requires specialized facilities, and has relatively low spatial resolution.
194
What techniques are used for brain modification?
Neuropsychological methods, surgical ablation, magnetic/electrical stimulation, and pharmacology.
195
What happens during ablation studies?
Deliberate lesions are made to understand brain function.
196
Who introduced frontal leucotomy?
Egas Moniz, for relief of psychiatric disorders.
197
What is electrical brain stimulation used for?
To reveal precise localization of cortical functions.
198
What was Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) originally used for?
To treat a range of mental illnesses, now mainly severe depression.
199
What is Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)?
A non-invasive method that activates small regions of the cortex using magnetic pulses.
200
What is the main focus of neuroethics?
The regulation and moral implications of brain modification techniques.
201
What is the purpose of imaging brain activity?
To assess brain structure and function non-invasively.
202
What is the issue with neuropsychological methods?
They link function to brain damage without controlling for lesion size or location.
203
What is BOLD signal used in fMRI?
It tracks the ratio of oxygenated to deoxygenated blood in the brain.
204
What are some challenges with surgical ablation?
It has profound personality consequences and can lead to apathy and emotional unresponsiveness.
205
What characterizes enhancement in brain modification?
Improvement of healthy function to above normal levels.
206
What can affect neurotransmitter function?
Drugs can impact every stage from synthesis to receptor binding.
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Challenges in brain imaging methods
They differ in resolution and approach to measuring brain activity.
208
Differences between treatment and enhancement
Treatment aims to restore function, while enhancement aims to exceed normal capabilities.
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What kind of research do brain modulation techniques support?
They provide information about causation and necessity of brain regions.
210
Who were Fritsch and Hitzig?
Researchers who electrically stimulated the frontal cortex in dogs to map brain functions.
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What does transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) do?
It is a non-invasive method for electrical brain stimulation.
212
What was Moniz awarded for?
His discovery of the prefrontal leucotomy.
213
What does MRI detect in brain structures?
Differences in water content in brain tissue.
214
How does EEG measure brain activity?
It records electrical signals from the scalp.
215
What is one limitation of using EEG?
It has poor spatial resolution.
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What are some limitations of single unit recordings in electrophysiology?
These methods are invasive and can only record a limited number of neurons.
217
What was significant about the first demonstration of epileptiform spikes?
It was performed using EEG by Fisher & Lowenback in 1934.
218
What is a major benefit of fMRI?
Very high spatial resolution of brain structures.
219
What can lead to transient disruptions in TMS?
A brief, focal magnetic pulse generated by an electrical current.
220
What does the term ablation mean?
To carry away or remove tissue.
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What is a key ethical concern in neuroethics?
Who should regulate brain modifying techniques.
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How do MRI and fMRI differ?
MRI primarily provides structural images while fMRI assesses brain function.
223
What is the effect of deoxygenated blood in fMRI?
It distorts the surrounding magnetic field, making blood vessels more visible.
224
What historical method was used for brain treatment before ECT?
Seizure inducing agents were used since the 1500s.
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What discovery did Hodgkin and Huxley make?
They recorded action potentials in the giant axon of the Atlantic squid.
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What is one aspect of brain modification focused on enhancement?
Claims regarding improvement of normal brain function using stimulation and drugs.
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What are microelectrodes used for?
Recording electrical signals from individual neurons.
228
What are some technical advancements in electrophysiology?
The development of microelectrodes and multi-unit recording electrodes.
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What are the major advantages of using EEG in research?
Good temporal resolution, low cost, and portability.
230
What are the two types of brain modification described?
Ablation and stimulation techniques.
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What kind of relationship do brain imaging methods explore?
They correlate brain activity with behavior.
232
What is the significance of the BOLD signal in fMRI studies?
It indicates changes in brain activation based on blood oxygen levels.
233
What approach do neuropsychological methods take in brain research?
Linking brain function to damage without controlling for varied damage.
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What types of structure can MRI reveal?
Anatomical and functional properties of diverse brain regions.
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Who first revealed cortical function through electrical stimulation?
Fritsch & Hitzig.
236
What does ECT target?
It targets severe psychiatric conditions, especially depression.
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What is the mechanism of action in ECT?
Unknown; it requires strong electrical stimulation to induce a seizure.
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What impact does brain function have on medical treatment?
Treatment targets abnormal brain functions associated with psychiatric and neurological conditions.
239
What was a significant consequence of early surgical ablation methods?
They often led to emotional unresponsiveness and disinhibition.
240
How does DTI differ from conventional MRI?
DTI specifically maps axonal tracts in the brain.
241
Brain plasticity
The brain's ability to adapt and change in response to experience.
242
Synaptic plasticity
The adaptability/changeability of neural connections, where existing synapses can be strengthened or weakened, and new synapses can be generated.
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Long Term Potentiation (LTP)
A persistent strengthening of synapses based on recent patterns of activity.
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Long Term Depression (LTD)
A long-lasting decrease in synaptic strength.
245
Neurogenesis
The process through which new neurons are generated, primarily in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb.
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Effects of experience on neural activation
Past activation of neurons impacts future activation, contributing to brain adaptation.
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Function of Long Term Potentiation (LTP)
Increases the likelihood of a postsynaptic potential and enhances learning and motor speed.
248
Hebb's Rule
Neurons that fire together wire together, a principle forming the basis of Long Term Potentiation.
249
Comparison of LTP and LTD
LTP strengthens synaptic connections while LTD weakens them.
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Synaptic connections in LTD
The post-synaptic neuron becomes less sensitive to neurotransmitter release, decreasing the likelihood of firing.
251
Condition for neurogenesis
New neurons can primarily be generated in the hippocampus and the olfactory bulb.
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Promise of brain rehabilitation
Surviving neurons can adapt and form new connections, aiding recovery after brain damage.
253
Consequences of substantial brain damage
Neurons destroyed in severe injuries are generally not replaced, leading to sustained impairment.
254
Three components of emotional responses
Behavioral, Autonomic, and Hormonal components that integrate to produce emotional reactions.
255
Role of the amygdala in emotional responses
Coordinates emotional responses and sends signals to autonomic and hormonal systems.
256
Impact of emotion on cognitive performance
Emotional states can influence decisions and performance in various contexts.
257
Consciousness and brain function
Different brain regions perform specialized functions and are interconnected, supporting complex behaviors.
258
Functional connectivity in the brain
Understanding what individual brain parts do and how they work together is crucial for studying complex functions.
259
Example of motor control significance
Brain integration is necessary for executing skilled movements, such as hitting a cricket ball.
260
Effects of emotional states during critical tasks
Nervousness can lead to impulsive decisions, while calmness may promote better strategic thinking.
261
Physiological changes in emotional responses
Autonomic nervous system adjusts bodily functions in response to emotions, enhancing survival.
262
Importance of sensory cues in actions
The brain must filter relevant signals for effective task execution.
263
Evolutionary significance of emotions
Emotional expressions convey intentions and influence survival-related behaviors.
264
Consequences of insufficient stimulation in neural networks
Memories may fade and skills can diminish due to lack of use in neural pathways.
265
Neural changes with practice
Long-term potentiation enhances the strengthening of synaptic connections with repetition.
266
Neuroscience goal
Understanding how interconnected brain areas support subjective experiences remains a key objective.
267
LTP's role in learning
Enhances synaptic strength, crucial for acquiring new skills and knowledge.
268
Neuroplasticity and experience
The brain's structure and function can be altered through learning and environmental interactions.
269
Behavioral component of emotions
Involves the muscular reactions and postures that accompany emotional experiences.
270
Autonomic component of emotions
Physiological changes driven by the autonomic nervous system, like heart rate increase.
271
Hormonal component of emotions
Hormones bolster autonomic changes, such as adrenaline increasing muscle energy.
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Integration of emotional response components
Behavioral, autonomic, and hormonal systems interact to shape emotional responses.
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Use of emotional reactions in lie detection
Physiological responses indicative of emotional states are measured for truthfulness.
274
Neural adaptability after brain injury
Survivors can retrain their brains to use unaffected areas to compensate for lost functions.
275
Misconceptions about brain plasticity
The media often overstates the brain's ability to entirely replace damaged tissue.
276
What is the binding problem?
The binding problem refers to how an object's individual features, which are processed independently, are combined to create a coherent percept.
277
What is an illusory conjunction?
An illusory conjunction is when features from different objects are incorrectly bound together due to inhibited attention.
278
Why does Feature Integration Theory predict conjunction searches to be slow?
Conjunction searches are slow because attention needs to be applied to each object one at a time to determine if it is the target.
279
What are the two processes that allow our perception of objects and scenes?
Grouping and segregation.
280
What does grouping refer to in perceptual organization?
Grouping is the process by which parts of an image are perceptually bound together to form a perceptual whole.
281
What does segregation refer to in perceptual organization?
Segregation is the process by which parts of a scene are perceptually separated to form distinct wholes.
282
What are the three major difficulties of object perception?
1. The stimulus on the retina is ambiguous. 2. Objects can be hidden or blurred. 3. Objects look different from various viewpoints.
283
What is the principle of good continuation?
The principle of good continuation states that aligned (or nearly aligned) contours are grouped together to form a single object.
284
What is Pr ä gnanz in Gestalt principles?
Pr ä gnanz, meaning 'Good figure', is the principle that elements are organized to create the simplest and most stable shape.
285
What does the similarity principle state in Gestalt grouping?
The similarity principle states that objects that are more similar to each other are more likely to be grouped together.
286
According to Gestalt principles, how does proximity affect perception?
The proximity principle states that the closer the dots or components are to each other, the more likely they are to be perceived as a group.
287
What is the common fate principle?
The common fate principle states that elements that move together in the same direction are perceived as a group.
288
What is the common region principle?
Elements that are within the same bordered area or region tend to group together, according to the common region principle.
289
What is the principle of uniform connectedness?
The principle of uniform connectedness posits that connected regions with similar visual characteristics tend to be perceived as a single unit.
290
What is gestalt perception?
Gestalt perception is the idea that the whole of a scene or object is more than just the sum of its parts.
291
How do Gestalt principles help us perceive objects?
Gestalt principles assist in perceptual organization, allowing individuals to see objects and scenes as coherent wholes.
292
What are illusory contours?
Illusory contours are perceived shapes or outlines that do not physically exist in the stimulus.
293
What is apparent motion?
Apparent motion is when two stationary objects appear to move due to their rapid succession.
294
What is gist perception?
Gist perception is the overall impression or understanding of a scene that is formed quickly.
295
What did Potter (1976) demonstrate regarding gist perception?
Potter demonstrated that observers can rapidly perceive the gist of a scene with near 100% accuracy after brief exposure.
296
What are the primary factors that make object perception difficult?
1. The stimulus on the retina is ambiguous. 2. Objects can be hidden or blurred. 3. Different viewpoints can distort the appearance of objects.
297
What is one way in which humans succeed at object perception?
Humans use perceptual organization, which involves grouping and segregating, to make sense of visual information.
298
According to the Gestaltists, how does conscious awareness differ from structuralism?
Gestaltists claim that conscious awareness is more than just the sum of elementary sensations, implying that perception can encompass characteristics not found in the sensations.
299
What evidence supports Gestaltism in terms of conscious awareness?
Two pieces of evidence are apparent motion and illusory contours.
300
What findings did Alcon (2019) reveal regarding computer misclassification in object recognition?
Alcon found that common objects can be misclassified by computer vision systems when presented at unexpected orientations.
301
What is the potential of artificial neural networks in object recognition?
Artificial neural networks represent the state-of-the-art in computer object recognition, although they still struggle with classification under certain conditions.
302
What can influence figure-ground segregation?
Figure-ground segregation can be influenced by depth ordering, convexity, familiarity, and the spatial relationship of objects.
303
What happens when observers perceive the Rubin vase?
Observers can switch between perceiving it as either a vase or two faces, illustrating ambiguity in figure-ground perception.
304
What is the role of past experience in object segregation?
Past experience assists in recognizing and segregating overlapping objects based on familiar patterns.
305
What is gist perception and how quickly can it be extracted?
Gist perception is the ability to form an overall impression of a scene quickly, with some aspects recognizable in as little as 27 ms.
306
How does longer exposure time affect gist perception?
Longer exposure times lead to more detailed and accurate perceptions of the scene's gist.
307
What is the relationship between figure perception and depth characteristics?
Regions perceived as figures tend to be in front of the rest of the image and exhibit convex characteristics or recognizability.
308
What is the take-home message regarding object perception?
Object perception is complex, and even advanced algorithms struggle to match human performance in recognizing objects.
309
What is the focus of the lecture series on Learning and Cognition?
It explores ways psychologists measure and explain human behavior and psychological processes, from behaviorist perspectives to cognitive accounts.
310
What is the concept of mental representation in cognition?
It refers to the format in which information is encoded, stored, and reconstructed within our minds.
311
What do cognitive capacities allow animals to do?
They allow animals to learn about and respond to their environments in adaptive ways.
312
What disciplines study cognitive states and their underlying neural mechanisms?
Cognitive psychology studies cognitive states, while cognitive neuroscience studies the neural mechanisms.
313
What is the mind-body/mind-brain problem?
It is the challenge of explaining how mental processes such as perceptions and memories are created by physical neural states and processes.
314
How does Ulrich Neisser define cognition?
Cognition is defined as "the activity of knowing: the acquisition, organisation, and use of knowledge."
315
What does the perceptual-cognitive cycle imply?
It implies an active, embodied, emotional agent embedded in the physical and socio-cultural world.
316
What are two fundamental forms of non-associative learning?
Sensitisation and habituation.
317
What is the difference between sensitisation and habituation?
Sensitisation is a heightened alertness to stimuli, while habituation is a reduction in response to a persistent stimulus.
318
What is classical conditioning?
It is a form of associative learning where a neutral stimulus becomes associated with a biologically significant event.
319
What are the three phases of classical conditioning?
1. Before conditioning (NS does not elicit a response). 2. During conditioning (NS paired with UCS). 3. After conditioning (NS becomes CS, eliciting a CR).
320
What is an unconditioned stimulus (UCS)?
A stimulus that naturally causes an unconditioned response (UCR) without prior learning.
321
What is an unconditioned response (UCR)?
A natural reflex response to an unconditioned stimulus.
322
In classical conditioning, what happens during the conditioning phase?
The neutral stimulus is presented before the unconditioned stimulus to establish an association.
323
What occurs after conditioning is completed?
The neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) that elicits a conditioned response (CR).
324
What is stimulus generalization in classical conditioning?
It is the phenomenon where a conditioned response occurs in response to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus.
325
What is stimulus discrimination?
It is the ability to differentiate between different stimuli and respond only to the specific conditioned stimulus.
326
What is extinction in the context of classical conditioning?
It is the process where the conditioned response decreases or disappears when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus.
327
What is spontaneous recovery?
It is the re-emergence of a previously extinguished conditioned response after a rest period.
328
What is rapid reacquisition in classical conditioning?
It is the quicker relearning of the conditioned response after extinction.
329
What cognitive processes are involved in learning?
Perception, attention, memory, decision-making, reasoning, problem-solving, imagining, planning, and executing actions.
330
How is learning defined in psychological terms?
Learning is the set of biological, cognitive, and social processes through which organisms make meaning from their experiences.
331
What is the importance of prediction in learning?
Learning enables organisms to predict future events based on past experiences, guiding adaptive behaviors.
332
Who conducted significant research on classical conditioning with Aplysia?
Nobel Prize-winning neuroscientist Eric Kandel.
333
What does classical conditioning allow organisms to do?
It allows them to predict biologically significant events and respond accordingly.
334
What is a conditioned stimulus (CS)?
A previously neutral stimulus that, after conditioning, elicits a conditioned response.
335
What does a conditioned response (CR) refer to?
It is a learned response to a conditioned stimulus.
336
What role does the temporal sequencing of events play in classical conditioning?
It is crucial for establishing an association between the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus.
337
What is the relationship between internal mental states and external behavioral responses?
Internal mental states can be inferred through objective measures of behavioral responses.
338
What is the aim of the Learning and Cognition seminar series?
To explore methods used to measure internal mental processes as psychology shifts from Behaviorism to Cognitivism.
339
How do cognitive states affect human behavior?
Cognitive states influence how we attend, perceive, remember, and act based on our experiences.
340
What does the phrase "the mind is a system that creates representations of the world" imply?
It suggests that cognitive processes involve constructing mental models to navigate and achieve goals.
341
What is meant by the integration of perceptual present and cognitive past?
It refers to how our current experiences are influenced by past knowledge and memories.
342
What kind of learning occurs through the reflexes Kandel studied in Aplysia?
Classical conditioning, particularly through the association of stimuli with defense mechanisms.
343
What are common characteristics of learning in organisms?
Learning is typically adaptive and promotes survival by improving responses to environmental stimuli.
344
What is an example of a conditioned response using Pavlov's dogs?
Salivation at the sound of a bell associated with food.
345
What does it mean to measure the mind?
It involves using subjective and objective methods to study and infer cognitive processes and internal states.
346
How does learning play a role in distinguishing between edible and inedible foods?
It allows organisms to predict which foods are safe based on experiences of survival.
347
Define classical conditioning in a formal context.
It is the process of learning an involuntary association between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus.
348
What concept is central to cognitive psychology?
The study of mental processes and how they relate to behavior.
349
What approach does cognitive neuroscience take?
It studies the neural mechanisms that underlie cognitive capacities and mental processes.
350
351
What is stimulus generalization?
A phenomenon where a conditioned response, such as salivation, occurs in response to stimuli that are similar but not identical to the original conditioned stimulus.
352
How did Pavlov test stimulus generalization?
Pavlov demonstrated stimulus generalization by using a different sounding bell after learning, which resulted in the conditioned salivation response.
353
What is stimulus discrimination?
The process of training an animal to produce a conditioned response only to a specific stimulus, such as a particular tone of bell.
354
How can a conditioned response be stopped?
By extinguishing the conditioned response, meaning the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus.
355
What is spontaneous recovery?
The return of a previously extinguished conditioned response after a period of rest or absence of the conditioned stimulus.
356
What is rapid reacquisition in classical conditioning?
The phenomenon where a previously conditioned response is relearned more quickly after extinction has occurred.
357
What did John B. Watson believe in terms of classical conditioning?
Watson believed conditioned learning plays a significant role in shaping human development and behavior.
358
What was the main finding of Watson and Rayner's Little Albert study?
They demonstrated that a neutral stimulus, such as a white rat, could be conditioned to elicit a fear response in a human infant.
359
What stimuli were used in the Little Albert experiment and how were they related?
A loud, sudden sound was used as an unconditioned stimulus (UCS) to create a conditioned fear response (CR) towards the previously neutral stimulus, the white rat.
360
What occurs under operant conditioning as defined by B.F. Skinner?
Voluntary behaviors are shaped by their consequences, where behaviors followed by rewards are more likely to be repeated.
361
What are the two types of reinforcement in operant conditioning?
Positive reinforcement (adding something pleasant) and negative reinforcement (removing something unpleasant) which both increase the likelihood of a behavior recurring.
362
What does a Skinner Box (Operant Chamber) allow researchers to study?
It provides a controlled environment to study the behavior and learning of laboratory animals, while recording their actions and responses to stimuli.
363
What is the difference between continuous and partial reinforcement?
Continuous reinforcement occurs every time a behavior is performed, while partial reinforcement uses a schedule where only some behaviors are rewarded, leading to more persistent behaviors.
364
What is the ABC model in operant conditioning?
The ABC model stands for Antecedent (stimulus that cues a behavior), Behavior (the action performed), and Consequence (the result of the behavior) which influences future behaviors.
365
What are discriminant stimuli in operant conditioning?
Stimuli that signal which of multiple behaviors will be rewarded in particular contexts, thus influencing decision-making.
366
What are some drawbacks of using punishment in behavior modification?
Punishment often suppresses behavior rather than teaching desirable alternatives, can lead to negative feelings, and may not result in long-term behavior change.
367
What is shaping in the context of operant conditioning?
A process that reinforces successive approximations toward a desired complex behavior by rewarding small steps towards that behavior.
368
What is the significance of the Little Albert experiment in psychology?
It was the first study to demonstrate that emotional responses could be conditioned in humans, adding to the understanding of phobias and conditioned emotional responses.
369
How does extinction occur in operant conditioning?
Extinction occurs when reinforcement is withheld after a behavior, often leading to an initial increase in that behavior followed by a decrease.
370
Why might partial reinforcement lead to more persistent behaviors than continuous reinforcement?
Because learners become accustomed to reinforcement occurring sporadically, making them less likely to give up even when reinforcement stops.
371
What role do antecedent stimuli play in learning?
Antecedent stimuli signal the availability of rewards or punishments, thus influencing whether a behavior will be performed.
372
How does the concept of reinforcement apply to human behaviors in everyday life?
Human behaviors, such as those tied to habits or addictions, are influenced by the history of rewards or punishments related to their actions.
373
Shaping
A process described by Skinner involving reinforcement to reward small steps towards a desired behavior.
374
What is the process Skinner described for teaching complex behaviors?
The process is called Shaping, which involves using reinforcement to reward successive approximations towards a desired response.
375
Positive Punishment
An animal will stop producing a behavior if the consequence is the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus.
376
Negative Punishment
An animal will stop producing a behavior if the consequence is that something inherently desirable is taken away.
377
What are the three Cs that make punishment effective?
Contingency, Contiguity, and Consistency.
378
Contingency
The relationship between the behavior and the punisher must be clear.
379
Contiguity
The punisher must follow the behavior swiftly.
380
Consistency
The punisher needs to occur for every occurrence of the behavior.
381
Drawbacks of Positive Punishment
It rarely works for long-term behavior change, it suppresses behavior without teaching alternatives, and may produce negative feelings.
382
Latent Learning
Learning that occurs without reinforcement but is not demonstrated until a reward is introduced.
383
Cognitive Map
A mental representation of the spatial characteristics of a familiar environment.
384
What did Tolman's experiments demonstrate about learning in rats?
Rats can develop cognitive maps of their environment, indicating that learning occurs through mental representation, not just through behavior reinforcement.
385
What is Social-Cognitive Learning Theory?
It emphasizes learning by observing a model or by receiving verbal instructions, without firsthand experience.
386
Vicarious Reinforcement
Learning that occurs by observing the reinforcement or punishment of another person.
387
Who is the psychologist associated with observational learning?
Albert Bandura.
388
What did Bandura's study on aggression and children reveal?
Children learned behaviors by observing a model, and these behaviors were influenced by the expected consequences.
389
Define Discriminant Stimuli.
Stimuli that signal which behaviors are likely to be reinforced in a certain context.
390
What role do antecedents play in operant conditioning?
Antecedents serve as cues that signal the availability of reinforcers for certain behaviors.
391
What is the ABC model of operant conditioning?
Antecedent → Behavior → Consequence.
392
How does punishment affect behavior?
Punishment leads to the suppression of behaviors.
393
What is the primary focus when changing undesirable behaviors?
To analyze the situation and identify what is reinforcing the undesirable behavior.
394
What is a key characteristic of observational learning?
It involves cognitive processes of mental representation.
395
Positive Punisher
An inherently unpleasant stimulus that weakens behavior when added as a consequence.
396
Negative Punisher
A pleasant stimulus that weakens behavior when removed as a consequence.
397
What does the term 'response cost' refer to?
Negative punishment, where something desirable is taken away as a consequence.
398
Skinner's definition of punishment
A consequence that makes a behavior less likely to recur in the future.
399
What is shaping in behavior modification?
Reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior.
400
What is the significance of reinforcement in behavior?
Reinforcement promotes the production of desired behaviors.
401
Why is punishment often less effective than reinforcement?
Punishment only suppresses behaviors without teaching alternative behaviors.
402
How does the environment influence behavior according to the principles of conditioning?
Antecedent stimuli drive habitual behaviors and signal which behaviors are likely to be rewarded.
403
What does Bandura's study imply about learned behavior?
That learning can occur vicariously through observation, and not only through direct experience.
404
What are the benefits of focusing on rewarding desirable behavior?
It can be more effective than punishing undesirable behaviors.
405
Define Extinction in the context of behavior modification.
Stop reinforcing the problem behavior to eliminate it.
406
How can attention influence behavior in behavior modification for children?
Removing attention from problematic behavior and reinforcing desirable behavior can be more effective than punishment.
407
What did Tolman demonstrate about rats' behavior in mazes?
Rats could learn to navigate mazes using cognitive maps rather than only through direct reinforcement.
408
What was the main finding of Tolman’s latent learning experiment?
Learning occurs without reinforcement and becomes evident only when a reward is available.
409
What is the importance of reinforcers in Bandura's observational learning study?
They determined whether the learned behavior would be demonstrated; expectation of reinforcement impacted performance.
410
What is the conclusion about learning behaviors as observed in Bandura's experiment?
Children learned the behaviors observed, but performance depended on the consequences they witnessed.
411
What did Bandura's study suggest about the influences of model behavior on children?
Children are likely to imitate observed behaviors, especially when they see models being rewarded.
412
What does it mean if a behavior is described as 'hidden' in the context of latent learning?
Latent learning refers to knowledge acquired that is not immediately expressed until a reward is presented.
413
What experiment did Skinner conduct to demonstrate shaping behavior?
He used pigeons playing ping-pong to illustrate the concept.
414
What might negative feelings from punishment result in for a learner?
Negative feelings may hinder new learning and promote avoidance of the punisher.
415
What is the main focus of behaviorist psychology concerning learning?
Learning is viewed primarily through the lens of observable behaviors and their consequences.
416
How can one effectively implement behavior change?
By identifying and eliminating reinforcement of the undesirable behavior and reinforcing compatible alternative behaviors.
417
418
What is Behaviorism in psychology?
A paradigm that argues against psychological theories proposing internal mental states as causal mechanisms for explaining learning and behavior.
419
Who were the influential figures in Behaviorism?
John B. Watson and B.F. Skinner.
420
What is the 'Cognitive Revolution'?
A shift in psychology that focuses on internal mental processes rather than just behavior.
421
What are the main components of memory according to the lecture?
The three components are encoding, storage, and retrieval.
422
What is sensory memory?
A temporary, sensory-based representation of input received through sensory channels.
423
What is the multi-store model of memory?
A model proposed by Atkinson and Shiffrin that identifies three memory stores: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.
424
What processes are involved in encoding?
Attending to, acquiring, and interpreting information from experiences.
425
What characterizes short-term memory?
Short-term memory (working memory) allows temporary storage and manipulation of information.
426
Describe iconic memory.
Iconic memory is the visual sensory memory that has a brief duration and large capacity.
427
What evidence did Sperling provide for the capacity of iconic memory?
He demonstrated through full-report and partial-report methods that iconic memory has a larger capacity than initially thought.
428
What is retrieval in the context of memory?
The process of recalling or recognizing information stored in memory.
429
What were the results of Sperling's full-report method?
Participants could remember an average of only 4 letters, though they felt they had access to all items briefly.
430
How did the partial-report method differ from the full-report method?
In the partial-report method, a cue signaled which line of letters to report, allowing better assessment of iconic memory capacity.
431
What influences the retrieval process?
Retrieval is highly context-dependent and can be error-prone due to reconsolidation.
432
What is the duration of iconic memory as found by Sperling?
The memory performance declined to one item after approximately 500 milliseconds.
433
What role does attention play in memory encoding?
Attention helps in focusing on elements of an experience for better encoding of information.
434
How are memories stored in the brain?
Memories are stored in networks of neurons distributed throughout the cortex.
435
What is the capacity of sensory memory compared to short-term memory?
Sensory memory has a larger capacity than short-term memory.
436
What defines the term 'retrieval cues'?
Cues that help in recalling information by providing context or reminders.
437
What two primary sensory systems have been studied in relation to sensory memory?
Vision and audition.
438
What is the main focus of the lecture on memory?
To explore the multi-store model of memory and its components.
439
What was the significant contribution of Tolman and Bandura to psychology?
They demonstrated that internal mental processes can be studied scientifically.
440
What does 'reconsolidation' refer to in memory retrieval?
The process where retrieved memories may be altered when they are stored again.
441
What was a key finding by Sperling in his experiments on iconic memory?
That the full-report method underestimated the capacity of iconic memory.
442
What is the duration and capacity of echoic memory compared to iconic memory?
Echoic memory has a brief duration similar to iconic memory but is specifically auditory.
443
What did Sperling use to improve the precision of his memory experiments?
He used auditory cues to signal which line of letters to recall in the partial-report method.
444
How does 'learning' from the Behaviorist perspective differ from cognitive theories?
Behaviorism denies the role of internal mental states, while cognitive theories emphasize their importance in understanding learning.
445
Define 'memory' based on the lecture.
A set of storage systems and processes for encoding, storing, and retrieving information acquired through the senses.
446
What insight does Sperling's research give regarding cognitive processes?
It shows that behavioral measures can effectively test theories about internal cognitive processes.
447
How do sensory memory systems operate as buffers?
They act as holding areas between early sensory processing and subsequent cognitive processing.
448
What experimental evidence did Sperling provide for iconic memory capacity?
He showed that participants could recall more letters when cued to report specific lines than when asked to report everything.
449
What is the relationship between perception and memory?
Perception involves encoding and retrieval processes that contribute to memory formation.
450
What conclusion can be drawn about the capacity of iconic memory?
The true capacity is much higher than previously thought, as indicated by the results of Sperling's partial-report method.
451
What are the three key memory processes?
Encoding, storage, and retrieval.
452
What does 'long-term memory' refer to?
A system for storing information over extended periods.
453
What was a significant limitation of Behaviorism that led to the Cognitive Revolution?
Behaviorism was considered too constrained as the only acceptable framework for understanding psychological processes.
454
What are 'explicit' and 'implicit' retrieval processes?
Explicit retrieval involves consciously recalling information, while implicit retrieval involves unconscious memory responses.
455
Describe the role of sensory memory in cognitive processes.
It acts as an initial stage for processing sensory input before further cognitive interpretation.
456
What is the focus of cognitive psychology as discussed in the lecture?
Exploring the mental processes involved in memory, learning, and behavior.
457
Who proposed the multi-store model of memory?
Atkinson and Shiffrin.
458
What does the term 'memory trace' refer to?
The physical representation of a memory in the brain's neural networks.
459
What finding did Sperling's research indicate about the fading of visual memory?
Visual memory fades quickly, indicating a brief retention period.
460
What is the purpose of 'consolidation' in memory storage?
To stabilize encoded information into a lasting memory trace.
461
How do the different types of memory systems differ in terms of capacity?
Different memory systems (sensory, short-term, long-term) have varying capacities for stored information.
462
What did Sperling's research highlight about the brief visual experience?
Participants reported an immediate but fleeting visual image of the entire display.
463
What are the characteristics of sensory memory?
Large capacity, brief duration, and serves as a buffer for cognitive processes.
464
What influences the duration of iconic memory?
The retention interval between stimulus presentation and cue signaling.
465
What are the two primary types of memory exemplified in the lecture?
Iconic memory (visual) and echoic memory (auditory).
466
How does the cognitive approach differ from Behaviorism?
The cognitive approach emphasizes internal mental processes, while Behaviorism focuses solely on observable behaviors.
467
What did early neurological research reveal about long-term memory storage?
Long-term memories are widely distributed throughout the brain rather than localized.
468
Atkinson and Shiffrin’s model of memory consists of which three stores?
Sensory memory, Short-term memory, Long-term memory.
469
What is the capacity range of short-term memory (STM)?
Estimates range from 3 to 9 items.
470
What is maintenance rehearsal in the context of STM?
A mechanism proposed by Atkinson and Shiffrin to keep information active in STM, often described as an 'inner voice'.
471
What is the typical duration of information in short-term memory?
15 to 30 seconds.
472
What effect do levels of processing have on memory?
Deeper processing leads to better long-term memory retention.
473
What does the Brown-Peterson task measure?
The duration of short-term memory traces by preventing rehearsal.
474
What cognitive system does Baddeley's model of working memory introduce?
A multi-component system that includes the central executive, phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer.
475
What is the central executive responsible for in Baddeley's working memory model?
Directing attention and integrating information from subordinate systems.
476
What task is used to estimate verbal short-term memory capacity?
The digit span task.
477
Define the serial position effect.
The tendency to recall the first (primacy effect) and last (recency effect) items of a list more easily than those in the middle.
478
What influences the ability to transfer information from STM to LTM?
The extent of attention maintenance and encoding processes during STM.
479
What does the term 'cognitive map' refer to in the context of the visuospatial sketchpad?
Mental representations of spatial relationships and navigation.
480
Explain the difference between verbal and visual working memory components.
Verbal working memory involves the phonological loop for auditory information, while visual working memory is managed by the visuospatial sketchpad for visual information.
481
In memory research, what is the meaning of the term 'item' as it pertains to STM?
An 'item' can vary in definition; it could refer to a single digit, a word, or a group of digits or words that are meaningfully connected.
482
What does immediate serial recall involve?
Recalling presented information in the exact order it was given immediately after presentation.
483
How do executive functions relate to working memory?
They include processes like planning, attention control, problem-solving, and multitasking, often linked to the pre-frontal cortex.
484
What is the role of the episodic buffer in Baddeley's working memory model?
To integrate information from visuospatial and phonological systems into a coherent representation.
485
What cognitive process does the Corsi Block Tapping task assess?
Spatial working memory.
486
Describe what is meant by 'trace decay' in STM.
The gradual loss of memory traces over time without rehearsal or encoding.
487
Identify one implication of levels of processing for STM according to Craik and Tulving.
STM should be seen as a system that supports meaningful learning and reasoning, rather than simply a temporary storage for immediate recall.
488
Explain the significance of the primacy and recency effects in memory research.
These effects suggest the existence of separate stores for short-term and long-term memory with different retrieval processes.
489
What are some tasks that assess the visual elements of working memory?
Tasks like mental rotation or spatial array recognition.
490
What is the neural basis of working memory associated with executive functions?
It is primarily located in the pre-frontal cortex, particularly the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
491
What is the average adult digit span based on research findings?
About 7 items, plus or minus 2.
492
How does rehearsal in STM contribute to long-term storage?
It strengthens the memory trace and increases the likelihood of successful transfer to long-term memory.
493
What did Craik and Tulving's (1975) study demonstrate regarding memory?
Deeper levels of processing during encoding lead to improved long-term retention of information.
494
How is the concept of working memory different from that of short-term memory?
Working memory encompasses complex cognitive processes beyond mere retention, including active reasoning and problem-solving.
495
What are the two components of Baddeley's initial model of working memory?
The phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad.
496
What role does the prefrontal cortex play in working memory?
It governs executive functions, including attention regulation and complex cognitive processes.
497
Define the phonological loop in the context of Baddeley’s model.
A component that processes and maintains auditory and verbal information.
498
Discuss the function of the visuo-spatial sketchpad.
It temporarily holds and manipulates visual and spatial information.
499
In memory experiments, what does a filled retention interval refer to?
A period filled with a distracting task to prevent rehearsal of previously learned information.
500
What impact does the introduction of a concurrent task have on recall performance?
It can eliminate the primacy or recency effects by disrupting rehearsal.
501
What does transfer to long-term memory rely on in the context of maintenance rehearsal?
The successful rehearsal of information in short-term memory.
502
What are executive functions primarily responsible for in cognition?
They are responsible for planning, shifting attention, and suppressing distractions.
503
Explain the concept of cognitive flexibility in the context of working memory.
The ability to adaptively switch between tasks or perspectives when solving problems.
504
What happens to short-term memory capacity as complexity increases?
Capacity is limited and can decrease when the information becomes more complex or less organized.
505
What does the episodic buffer integrate within Baddeley’s working memory model?
It integrates multi-modal inputs, creating a coherent episode or scene in awareness.
506
Define the term 'recency effect' in relation to memory recall.
The tendency to recall the most recently presented items better than those presented earlier.
507
How does interference from previous trials affect STM performance?
It can lead to forgetting or decrease accuracy in recalling sequences.
508
Explain the importance of attention in the context of STM and LTM transfer.
Attention is crucial for maintaining information in STM and for the encoding process necessary for transfer to LTM.
509
Describe the significance of dual-task experiments in understanding memory processes.
They reveal how different memory components operate and interact under cognitive load.
510
What does the term 'shallow processing' refer to in memory studies?
A type of encoding that focuses on superficial aspects, like visual features, with less lasting memory retention.
511
What was the focus of early short-term memory studies?
They concentrated on the verbal maintenance of information for immediate recall.
512
Identify the sessions utilized to elucidate the levels of processing effects on memory retention.
Word encoding tasks linked to question types regarding visual features, sounds, and meanings.
513
What effect does psychological load have on the working memory capacity?
Increased cognitive load can reduce the effective capacity for processing and retaining information.
514
In the context of Baddeley's working memory model, what is the role of the central executive?
It allocates resources, manages and integrates input, and coordinates tasks across the different subsystems.
515
What researchers contributed to the evolution of working memory concepts from STM?
Alan Baddeley, Craik, and Tulving.
516
What are the potential tasks associated with assessing the visuospatial sketchpad?
Mental rotation, navigating cognitive maps, and visual memory tasks.
517
Explain how the changes in Baddeley’s working memory model differ from his initial approach.
It evolved from a unitary store concept to a multi-component system emphasizing functional roles in cognition.
518
What does the term 'item' in the digit span task represent?
An individual digit that is either recalled or incorrectly recalled.
519
How does multi-modal information interaction occur in the episodic buffer?
It binds visual and auditory information into a unified representation for easier processing.
520
What processes do executive functions enable us to perform?
Goal-directed behaviour, attention control, inhibition of distractions, and integration of information.
521
How does verbal rehearsal in STM influence long-term memory formation?
It keeps pertinent information active and increases the likelihood of its transfer to LTM.
522
What phenomena give evidence of separate STM and LTM systems?
Primacy and recency effects.
523
How is short-term memory defined in cognitive psychology?
As a temporary storage for information that allows for the integration of sensory experiences with long-term memory.
524
What are the two broad divisions of Long-Term Memory (LTM)?
Declarative Memory and Non-declarative Memory.
525
What is another term for Declarative Memory?
Explicit Memory.
526
What is another term for Non-declarative Memory?
Implicit Memory.
527
What is Declarative Memory dependent on?
The medial temporal lobes, including the hippocampus.
528
What does Non-declarative Memory support?
Skill learning, conditioning, habit memory, and priming.
529
What are the two sub-systems of Declarative Memory?
Episodic Memory and Semantic Memory.
530
What distinguishes Episodic Memory from other forms of memory?
It involves the retrieval of information regarding the spatial and/or temporal context in which the event occurred.
531
Who proposed the distinction between Episodic Memory and Semantic Memory?
Endel Tulving.
532
What is Anterograde Amnesia?
An inability to recall any declarative knowledge experienced after the time of brain injury.
533
What is Retrograde Amnesia?
An inability to remember episodes acquired before the brain injury.
534
What is the role of the hippocampus in memory?
It is crucial for the consolidation of new declarative memories.
535
What did the case study of patient H.M. reveal about memory?
It demonstrated the distinction between declarative and non-declarative memory systems.
536
Define Episodic Memory.
Memory of personally experienced events situated in space and time.
537
Define Semantic Memory.
Our general knowledge about things in the world, including facts and concepts.
538
What type of memories does Non-declarative Memory encompass?
Memories that are expressed as a change in behavior without conscious recollection.
539
What evidence supports the distinction between Declarative and Non-declarative Memory?
Studies with amnesic patients show selective deficits in memory processes.
540
Describe the characteristics of Procedural Memory.
It involves the learning and performance of motor and cognitive skills.
541
What can the Lexical Decision Task measure?
Response time and accuracy in recognizing words and distinguishing them from nonwords.
542
What did H.M. demonstrate regarding his Memory Performance?
He could improve on tasks requiring procedural learning despite having no conscious recollection of performing those tasks.
543
What type of memory tasks do not require conscious recollection?
Implicit memory tests.
544
What does the term 'dissociation' refer to in memory studies?
Selective deficits in memory processes supporting the distinction between different memory systems.
545
What led to H.M.'s severe anterograde amnesia?
The removal of the medial portion of both temporal lobes, including the hippocampi.
546
What was H.M.'s condition post-surgery?
He suffered from severe anterograde amnesia and temporally graded retrograde amnesia.
547
How is the temporal gradient of Retrograde Amnesia typically characterized?
Most recent memories are more affected than older memories.
548
What is the nature of forgetting in Retrograde Amnesia?
It is often temporally graded, affecting newly acquired memories more than remote ones.
549
How does Non-declarative Memory express itself?
As changed behavior rather than conscious recollection.
550
Would H.M. recognize new vocabulary introduced after 1953?
No, he was unable to retain new semantic knowledge introduced post-surgery.
551
What brain structures are essential for the encoding, consolidation, and retrieval of Declarative Memory?
Medial temporal lobes, including the hippocampus.
552
What is a key feature of Priming in Non-declarative Memory?
It is demonstrated by a change in the ability to identify a stimulus as a result of prior exposure.
553
What were H.M.'s preserved memory functions post-surgery?
Preserved working memory and remote episodic memories.
554
What is a common task used to study procedural memory?
Mirror tracing task.
555
What does the term 'implicit memory' refer to?
Forms of memory that influence behavior without conscious awareness.
556
What potential role does consolidation play in memory processes?
It modifies memory representations over time to become stable and independent of medial temporal lobes.
557
What types of conditioning form part of Non-declarative Memory?
Classical and operant conditioning.
558
What is 'habituation' in the context of Non-associative learning?
Learning to ignore a stimulus because it is trivial.
559
What occurs in 'sensitization' as a type of Non-associative learning?
Learning to attend to a potentially threatening stimulus.
560
What did H.M. describe his memory loss as feeling like?
He felt like he was waking from a dream and could not recall what happened just before.
561
What technique has been used to assess memories of H.M. over the years?
Explicit memory tests that require reportable descriptions.
562
What did Scoville and Milner conclude from H.M.'s case?
The hippocampus is critical for the consolidation of long-term declarative memories.
563
What did Brenda Milner learn from her work with amnesic patients?
They could process events but did not remember them.
564
How is memory consolidation related to time?
Older memories may become independent of the medial temporal lobe structures for retrieval.
565
What effect does repeated exposure have on memory retrieval in Non-declarative Memory?
It speeds up access to related information due to increased activation of existing knowledge.
566
What is a characteristic feature of Declarative Memory tests?
They require conscious retrieval of memories that can be articulated.
567
What is Semantic Priming?
Faster response times for semantically related words presented after each other.
568
How do H.M.'s other cognitive abilities compare to his memory deficits?
His intelligence and some memory functions were relatively preserved.
569
What implication does the study of H.M. have for understanding memory types?
It suggests that declarative and non-declarative memories are independently processed.
570
What demonstrates that Declarative Memory can be dissociated from Non-declarative Memory?
Amnesic patients can learn skills without recalling prior administration of the task.
571
What is the neurological basis for cognitive skills like reading?
Non-declarative memory systems support their learning and performance.
572
What type of learning persists in patients with severe amnesia like H.M.?
Procedural learning, such as motor skills.
573
How did H.M. perform on tasks requiring short-term memory retention?
He performed well, similar to participants with intact medial temporal lobes.
574
What are the implications of H.M.'s preserved remote memories?
They suggest that older memories may not rely on the medial temporal lobes for retrieval.
575
What is the significance of the changes in H.M.'s performance across trials in the mirror tracing task?
It shows improvement in procedural memory despite a lack of recollection.
576
What neural structures are involved in Non-declarative Memory processes?
They are generally outside the medial temporal lobes.
577
What did H.M.'s case imply about the time frame of memory storage?
That memory consolidation occurs, leading to gradual independence from the hippocampus.
578
What does 'conditional learning' refer to?
Learning that occurs through association with rewarding or punishing consequences.
579
What are the indications of temporal gradients in retrograde amnesia?
That recently acquired memories are more likely to be forgotten compared to older ones.
580
How does Non-declarative memory enable behavioral changes?
Through processes without conscious awareness, demonstrating learned associations.
581
