Week 2 Lec: Lymphoid System Flashcards

1
Q

All those physiological mechanisms that endow the animal with the capacity to recognize materials as foreign to itself and to neutralize, eliminate, or metabolize them with or without injury to its own tissues.

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The _______ is structured to recognize, respond to, and destroy a wide variety of invading organism that would otherwise be capable of promoting infections, harmful to the body.

A

immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ability of an individual to resist infections by means of normally present body functions.

A

Natural Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

It is considered as first line of defense. Physical barriers such as our skin, and secretions.

A

External defense system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

It is considered as second line of defense. The most important process is process of phagocytosis. It is incorporated with the different types of WBC such as the polymorphonuclear cells, monocytes, and macrophages.

A

Internal defense system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The type of resistance that is characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen, or microbial agent. Referred to as the 3rd line of defense.

A

Acquired Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lymphocytes represent _____ of the circulating WBCs.

A

20-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the second most common type of leukocyte?

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The typical small lymphocyte is between _____ in diameter.

A

7 and 10 μm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nucleus characteristics of lymphocyte?

A

a large rounded nucleus that may be somewhat indented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Color of lymphocyte when stained?

A

lighter blue appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cytoplasm characteristics of lymphocytes?

A
  • sparse
  • few organelles
  • no specific granules
  • narrow ring surrounding the nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why are lymphocytes unique?

A

because they arise from a hematopoietic stem cell and are further differentiated in the primary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 main classifications of lymphocytes depending on where lymphocyte differentiation takes place?

A

Primary and Secondary Lymphoid Organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Main function of Primary Lymphoid Organs?

A

maturation of B and T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Main function of Secondary Lymphoid Organs?

A

proliferation and differentiation of B and T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lymphocyte circulation is complex and is regulated by different cell surface adhesion molecules and by chemical messengers called?

A

cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

They influence other activities of the cell.

A

cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 major populations of lymphocytes?

A
  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. Natural Killer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T cells account for how many percent in the total population of lymphocytes?

A

61-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

B cells account for how many percent in the total population of lymphocytes?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Natural killer cells account for how many percent in the total population of lymphocytes?

A

10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Once T and B cells mature, they go to?

A

Secondary Lymphoid Organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the precursor cell mainly associated with B, T, and NK cells?

A

common lymphoid precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Primary Lymphoid Organs consist of?

A
  • Bone marrow
  • Thymus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Secondary Lymphoid Organs consist of?

A
  • Spleen
  • Lymph nodes
  • Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (Appendix, Tonsils, Peyer’s Patches)
  • Cutaneous-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

It consists of flat, long bones that is a source of hematopoietic stem cells.

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

All lymphocytes arise from?

A

pluripotential hematopoietic stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aside from lymphocytes, it accounts for the different cell types such as RBC, WBC, macrophages and megakaryocytes/thrombocytes/platelets.

A

pluripotential hematopoietic stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Weight of bone marrow in humans?

A

1,300-1,500 g (adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

It fills the core of all long bones and is the main source of hematopoietic stem cells, which develop into different cell types.

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

_____________ are released from the marrow and travel to additional primary lymphoid organs where further maturation takes place.

A

Lymphocyte stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The mother cell of all cells.

A

hematopoietic stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells give rise to what 2 different cell lines?

A

CLP (Common Lymphoid Precursor) and CMP (Common Myeloid Precursor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Common Lymphoid Precursor gives rise to which cells?

A
  • T cell
  • B cell
  • Dendritic cell
  • Natural Killer cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Common Myeloid Precursor gives rise to which cells?

A
  • monocytes
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • neutrophils
  • erythrocytes
  • platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

It is an organ which is small, flat, bilobed organ found in the thorax, or chest cavity, right below the thyroid gland and overlying the heart.

A

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Weight of thymus at birth?

A

30 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Weight of thymus at puberty?

A

35 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A decrease in the size of thymus when it reaches its matured/maximum form is an example of what process?

A

atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Each lobe of the thymus is divided into _____ filled with _____ that play a central role in this differentiation process.

A

lobules, epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

________ are acquired as the lymphocytes travel from the cortex to the medulla over a period of 2 to 3 weeks.

A

Surface antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Part of the thymus where T cells stay before they mature.

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Once matured T lymphocytes are formed, they are then released from the?

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Each lymphocyte spends most of its life span in ___________, entering the circulation only periodically to go from one secondary organ to another.

A

solid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A specific lymphocyte may make the journey from blood to secondary lymphoid organs and back _____ times per day.

A

one to two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Largest secondary lymphoid organ.

A

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Dimensions and weight of the spleen?

A

12cm in length and weighs 150g in adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A large discriminating filter that can remove foreign antigens and all RBCs from the blood.

A

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Spleen is located?

A

in the upper-left quadrant of the abdomen, just below the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Spleen is surrounded by a?

A

thin connective tissue capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Splenic tissue can be divided into two main types?

A
  1. Red Pulp
  2. White Pulp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

It makes up more than one half of the total volume, and its function is to destroy old red blood cells.

A

Red Pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In the red pulp of the spleen, blood flows from the arterioles into the red pulp and then exits by way of the?

A

splenic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

It comprises approximately 20 percent of the total weight of the spleen.

A

White Pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The White Pulp comprises approximately ___ percent of the total weight of the spleen.

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The White Pulp contains the lymphoid tissue, which is arranged around arterioles in a?

A

periarteriolar lymphoid sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Attached to the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath are?

A

primary follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

It contains B cells that are not yet stimulated by an antigen.

A

primary follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Surrounding the PALS is a ___________ containing dendritic cells that trap antigen.

A

marginal zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The marginal zone contains what cells that trap antigen?

A

dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The most potent phagocytic cell and is considered as the best APC (Antigen Presenting Cell).

A

dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Each day, an adult blood passes through the spleen approximately ___ times.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why does the blood pass through the spleen ~4 times a day?

A

it allows lymphocytes and macrophages to constantly survey for infectious agents or other foreign matters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When B cells contained in the primary follicle are stimulated by an antigen, it results to a structure called?

A

germinal center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Tagalog term for lymph nodes?

A

kulani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Located along lymphatic ducts and serve as central collecting points for lymph fluid from adjacent tissues.

A

Lymph Nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Lymph Nodes are located along?

A

lymphatic ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Functions of lymph nodes?

A
  • collecting points for lymph fluid from adjacent tissues
  • contribute for the ideal environment of foreign antigens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Lymph nodes are especially numerous near?

A

joints and where the arms and legs join the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Size of lymph node?

A

1 mm to 25 mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Major purpose of lymph nodes?

A

filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The lymph fluid flows slowly through spaces called ______, which are lined with macrophages, creating an ideal location for phagocytosis to take place.

A

sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The lymph fluid enters the lymph nodes via?

A

afferent lymphatic vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The lymph fluid exits the lymph nodes via?

A

efferent lymphatic vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Swelling of lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Region of lymph nodes: the outermost region. An aggregation of lymph nodes. Contains macrophages and aggregations of B cells in primary follicles, follicular dendritic cells, secondary follicles (germinal center), plasma cells, and memory cells.

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Consists of stimulated B cells and site where germinal center is seen.

A

Secondary follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

They are fully differentiated lymphocytes found in the cortex of lymph nodes for antibody production and secretion.

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Region of lymph nodes: where T cells are found. Region between the cortex and medulla.

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Region of lymph nodes: contains some T cells, B cells and numerous plasma cells.

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

3 Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue?

A
  • Appendix
  • Tonsils
  • Peyer’s Patches
83
Q

Locations of Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)?

A
  • urogenital tract
  • respiratory tract
  • gastrointestinal tract
84
Q

Located at the junction of the small and large intestines.

A

Appendix

85
Q

Lymphoid tissue found in the mucous membrane lining of the oral and pharyngeal cavities that trap foreign particles. It responds to pathogens entering the respiratory and alimentary tract.

A

Tonsils

86
Q

Located at the lower ileum of the intestinal tract.

A

Peyer’s Patches

87
Q

A collective term for monocyte, macrophages, and dendritic cells (intraepidermal lymphocytes) in the epidermis. It also contains T cells. They are uniquely positioned to combat any antigens that enter through the skin.

A

Cutaneous-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (CALT)

88
Q

True or false: Within each of the secondary organs, T and B cells are segregated and perform specialized functions.

A

True

89
Q

B cells differentiate into memory cells and plasma cells and are responsible for?

A

Humoral Immunity or Antibody Production

90
Q

T cells play a role in ________ , and as such, they produce sensitized lymphocytes that secrete ________.

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity, Cytokines

91
Q

_______ are small polypeptides that regulate the functions of lymphocytes and other cells involved in the immune response.

A

Cytokines

92
Q

These are proteins or antigens used to distinguish the developmental stage of each cell and serve as markers to differentiate T cells and B cells.

A

Surface Markers

93
Q

Surface Markers have been detected by ___________, which are extremely specific antibodies made by cloning a single antibody-producing cell.

A

monoclonal antibodies

94
Q

True or false: Several laboratories have developed monoclonal antibodies, and each used its own nomenclature for the set of antigens found.

A

True

95
Q

Panels of antibodies from different laboratories were used for analysis, and antibodies reacting similarly with standard cell lines were said to define?

A

Cluster of Differentiation

96
Q

CD marker for T cells?

A

CD 2, 3, 4, 8

97
Q

CD marker for B cells?

A

CD 19, 21, 23

98
Q

CD marker for NK cells?

A

CD 16, 56, 94

99
Q

4 steps of B-Cells Differentiation?

A
  1. Pro-B cells
  2. Pre-B cells
  3. Immature B cells
  4. Mature B cells
100
Q

(Pro-B cells) First step is the ______________ of an antibody molecule.

A

rearrangement of genes that code for the heavy and light chains

101
Q

(Pro-B cells) The end result is a B lymphocyte programmed to produce a unique antibody molecule, which consists of ________________.

A

two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains

102
Q

(Pro-B cells) Heavy Chains are coded on chromosome?

A

14

103
Q

(Pro-B cells) Light Chains are coded on chromosome?

A

2 and 22

104
Q

The pro-B cell has distinctive markers that include surface antigens?

A
  • CD19
  • CD45R
  • CD43
  • CD24
  • c-Kit
105
Q

(Pro-B cells) CD markers that will remain in the cell surface?

A
  • CD19
  • CD45R
  • CD24
106
Q

A tyrosine-specific phospate which is the main CD marker that can recognize Pro-B cells.

A

CD45R

107
Q

(Pro-B cells) Intracellular proteins found at this stage are terminal __________ and recombination-activating genes _____ and ______, which code for enzymes involved in gene rearrangement.

A

deoxyribonucleotide transferase (TdT); RAG-1 and RAG-2

108
Q

(Pro-B cells) These are DNA that live at certain possible recombination site.

A

RAG-1 and RAG-2

109
Q

(Pro-B cells) Helps to join the pieces back together by incorporating additional nucleotides in the joining area.

A

terminal deoxyribonucleotide transferase/TdT

110
Q

(Pre-B cells) The first heavy chains synthesized are the __________, which belong to the class of immunoglobulins called _____.

A

μ chains; IgM

111
Q

Pre-B cells begin to form when?

A

rearrangement of heavy chain occurs

112
Q

Pre-B cells also lose which CD markers?

A
  • CD43 marker
  • c-Kit
  • TdT
113
Q

Pre-B cells may also express μ chains on the cell surface, accompanied by an unusual light chain molecule called a?

A

surrogate light chain

114
Q

(Pre-B cells) Surrogate light chains consist of __________ that are noncovalently associated with each other.

A

two short polypeptide chains

115
Q

(Pre-B cells) Surrogate light chains consist of two short polypeptide chains that are __________ associated with each other.

A

noncovalently

116
Q

(Pre-B cells) The combination of the two heavy chains with the surrogate light chains plus two very short chains, Ig-α/Ig-β form the?

A

pre-B cell receptor

117
Q

Function of the pre-B cell receptor?

A

adheres to the bone marrow stromal cell membrane and transmits a signal to prevent rearrangement of any other heavy chain genes

118
Q

True or false: It appears that all pre-B cells, whether expressing the μ heavy chains in association with surrogate light chains or not, survive and proceed to further differentiation.

A

False. Only pre-B cells expressing the μ heavy chains in association with surrogate light chains survive.

119
Q

True or false: Once the pre-B receptor (pre-BCR) is expressed, neighboring pre-B cells may send signals for further maturation.

A

True

120
Q

Rearrangement of genetic sequence coding for light chains on either chromosome 2 or 22 happens to form?

A

Immature B cells

121
Q

Immature B cells are mainly distinguished by the appearance of _____ molecule on the cell surface.

A

IgM

122
Q

(Immature B cells) In the reaarangement of light chains, Kappa chain is in line with chromosome _____.

A

2

123
Q

(Immature B cells) In the reaarangement of light chains, Lambda chain is in line with chromosome _____.

A

22

124
Q

(Immature B cells) True or false: Once surface immunoglobulins appear, μ chains are no longer detectable in the cytoplasm.

A

True

125
Q

Other surface proteins that appear on the immature B cell include?

A
  • CD 21
  • CD 40
  • major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules
126
Q

Functions of the CD21 marker in immature B cells?

A
  • acts as a receptor together with CD19
  • a receptor for breaking down complement component C3 to become C3D, which acts as an adjuvant to increase humoral immune response
  • receptor for Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), the causitive agent of infectious mononucleosis
127
Q

Acts as coreceptor with CD21 that helps regulate further B cell development and activation.

A

CD19

128
Q

Acts as an adjuvant to increase humoral immune response. It is mainly involved in the production of antibodies.

A

C3D

129
Q

Immature B cells leave the __________ and proceed to seed the ______________.

A

bone marrow; spleen and other secondary lymphoid organs

130
Q

In the spleen, immature B cells develop into mature cells known as?

A

marginal zone B cells

131
Q

In addition to IgM, all mature B cells exhibit?

A

IgD

132
Q

The mature B cells remain in the spleen in order to?

A

respond quickly to any blood-borne pathogens they may come into contact with

133
Q

Other immature B cells become __________ which are found in __________ and other secondary organs.

A

follicular B cells; lymph nodes

134
Q

If B cell is stimulated by antigen, it undergoes transformation to a ________, which eventually forms memory cells and antibody secreting plasma cells.

A

blast stage

135
Q

Activated B cells exhibit identifying markers that include _____, which is found on both activated T and B cells and acts as a receptor for ________, a growth factor produced by T cells.

A

CD25; interleukin-2 (IL-2)

136
Q

Characteristic of plasma cells?

A
  • spherical or ellipsoidal cells
  • between 10 and 20 μm in size
  • characterized by the presence of abundant cytoplasmic immunoglobulin and little to no surface immunoglobulin
137
Q

Represents the most fully differentiated lymphocyte.

A

Plasma Cells

138
Q

Main function of plasma cells?

A

antibody production/secretion

139
Q

True or false: Plasma cells are nondividing, and after several days of antibody production, they die without further proliferation.

A

True

140
Q

It is estimated that approximately ___________ of the cortical cells die intrathymically before becoming mature T cells.

A

97 percent

141
Q

Lymphocyte precursors called _________ enter the thymus from the bone marrow.

A

Thymocytes

142
Q

Within the lobules of the thymus are two main zones?

A
  • Outer cortex
  • Inner medulla
143
Q

Thymic stromal cells include _____________, all of which play a role in T-cell development.

A
  • epithelial cells
  • macrophages
  • fibroblasts
  • dendritic cells
144
Q

In T-cell development, interaction with __________ under the influence of ___________ is critical for growth and differentiation.

A

stromal cells; cytokines

145
Q

Cytokine involved in T-cell development.

A

IL-7

146
Q

T-Cell Differentiation stages:

A
  1. Double-Negative Stage
  2. Double-Positive Stage
  3. Mature T-Cells
147
Q

Rearrangement of the genes that code for the antigen receptor known as TCR begins at this stage.

A

Double-Negative Stage

148
Q

Antigen receptor in Double-Negative Stage is called?

A

T-cell receptor complex (TCR)

149
Q

Beta-Chain rearrangement in Double-Negative Stage: Signaling by the β chain also triggers the thymocyte to become _____ and _____.

A

CD4-positive (CD4+) and CD8-positive (CD8+) cells

150
Q

The complex that serves as the main part of the T-cell antigen receptor.

A

CD3

151
Q

Early thymocytes lack?

A

CD4-positive (CD4+) and CD8-positive (CD8+) cells

152
Q

CD3 consists of ___________, six of which are common to all T cells.

A

eight noncovalently associated chains

153
Q

Six chains common to all T cells.

A
  • alpha and beta have constant and variable regions
  • epsilon
  • gamma
  • zeta
  • delta
154
Q

The two chains associated in the T-cell receptor that recognizes antigens?

A

alpha and beta chains

155
Q

Rearrangement of alpha chain takes place in what stage of T-cell development?

A

Double-Positive Stage

156
Q

Two selection process in Double-Positive Stage?

A
  • Positive selection
  • Negative selection
157
Q

When does the Double-Positive Stage start?

A

if there is complete expression of the CD3TCR complex

158
Q

When the CD3-αβ receptor complex (TCR) is expressed on the cell surface, a _______________ takes place that allows only double positive cells with functional TCR receptors to survive.

A

positive selection process

159
Q

In the positive selection process of the double-positive stage, T cells must recognize foreign antigen in association with ____________.

A

class I or class II MHC molecules

160
Q

True or false: Any thymocytes that are unable to recognize self-MHC antigens die without leaving the thymus.

A

True

161
Q

Takes place among the surviving double-positive T cells.

A

Negative selection

162
Q

In negative selection of the double-positive stage, strong reactions with self-peptides send a signal to delete the developing T cell by means of ________, or programmed cell death.

A

apoptosis

163
Q

The negative selection process is very rigorous, because only _________ of the double-positive thymocytes in the cortex survive.

A

1 to 3 percent

164
Q

In mature T-cells, CD4+ T cells recognize antigen along with __________.

A

MHC class II protein

165
Q

T helper cells consist of two subsets?

A

Th1 and Th2

166
Q

TH1 is associated with?

A

gamma or type 2 Interferon and Tumor Necrosis Factor-beta

167
Q

Role of TH2?

A

help B cells to produce antibodies against extracellular pathogens and produce interleukins 4, 5, 10, and 13

168
Q

In mature T-cells, CD8+ T cells interact with antigen and _________.

A

MHC class I proteins

169
Q

1/3 of the total T-cell population is associated with what cell?

A

CD8+

170
Q

Activated T lymphocytes express receptors for_____, just as activated B cells do.

A

IL-2

171
Q

Receptor for IL-2?

A

CD 25

172
Q

Third major subclass CD4+ T-Cell population?

A

T-Regulatory Cells

173
Q

T-Regulatory Cells possess which CD markers?

A
  • CD4
  • CD25
174
Q

T-Regulatory Cells comprise approximately _________ percent of all CD4-positive T cells.

A

5 to 10

175
Q

T-Regulatory Cells produce which cytokines?

A

IL-10 and transforming growth factor-beta

176
Q

Third population lymphocytes?

A

Natural killer cells

177
Q

5-10% circulating lymphocyte in the PB?

A

Natural killer cells

178
Q

These lymphocytes are generally larger than T cells and B cells.

A

Natural killer cells

179
Q

Characteristics of NK cells?

A
  • 15 μm in diameter
  • kidney-shaped nuclei with condensed chromatin
  • prominent nucleoli
  • higher cytoplasmic-nuclear ratio
  • cytoplasm contains a number of azurophilic granules
180
Q

They represent the first line of defense against virally infected and tumor cells.

A

Natural killer cells

181
Q

Diseased and cancerous cells tend to lose their ability to produce?

A

MHC proteins

182
Q

A second method of destroying target cells.

A

ADCC/Antibody-Dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity

183
Q

They recognize and lyse antibody-coated cells through a process called?

A

ADCC/Antibody-Dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity

184
Q

Type of WBC that is considered as ADCC?

A

Eosinophil

185
Q

Cells coated with IgM are not subject to ADCC because?

A

IgM has no available Fc region

186
Q

Primarily, _____ is the antibody responsible for ADCC.

A

IgG

187
Q

A technique to separate mononuclear cells from other cells.

A

Density Gradient Centrifugation with Ficoll-Hypaque

188
Q

The specific gravity for Density Gradient Centrifugation with Ficoll-Hypaque varies depending on the manufacturer, but ranges from?

A

1.077 to 1.114

189
Q

Centrifugation for Density Gradient Centrifugation with Ficoll-Hypaque produces 3 distinct layers?

A
  • Plasma
  • Mononuclear cells
  • RBC and Granulocytes
190
Q

2 types of Cell flow cytometry?

A
  1. Forward Light Scatter
  2. Side Light Scatter
191
Q

Forward Light Scatter identifies?

A

Cell Size

192
Q

Side Light Scatter identifies?

A

Cellular Granularity

193
Q

Lymphocytes are separated from whole blood and then mixed with a suspension of sheep red blood cells is performed in what test?

A

Rosette test/technique

194
Q

E-rosette is in line with?

A

T cells

195
Q

EAC/Erythrocyte Antibody Complement rosette is involved with?

A

B cells

196
Q

Laboratory Techniques to Quantify and Identify Lymphocytes?

A
  1. Density Gradient Centrifugation with Ficoll-Hypaque
  2. Cell flow cytometry
  3. Immunofluorescence microscopy
  4. Rosette test/technique
197
Q

An automated system for identifying cells based on the scattering of light as cells flow in single file through a laser beam.

A

Cell Flow Cytometry

198
Q

In Cell Flow Cytometry, _____________ are used to screen of subpopulation of T and B cells.

A

Fluorescent antibodies

199
Q

Components of Cell Flow Cytometry?

A
  • Sample delivery system
  • A laser for cell illumination
  • Photodetectors for signal detection
  • Computer based management system
200
Q

2 types of IFA (Immunofluorescence Assay)?

A
  1. Direct Immunofluorescence
  2. Indirect Immunofluorescence
201
Q

Uses monoclonal antibodies with a fluorescent tag fluorescein and phycoerythrin (490nm) rhodamine (545 nm).

A

Direct Immunofluorescence

202
Q

Uses unlabeled antibody that first combines with the antigen by itself and a second antibody that is complexed with a dye.

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence

203
Q

phycoerythrin nanometers?

A

490nm

204
Q

rhodamine nanometers?

A

545 nm