Week 3 Knowing and Decision Making in Nursing Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary focus of Critical Theory?
a) Formulating educational policies
b) Understanding individual behaviors
c) Investigating social inequities and injustices.
d) Promoting economic growth
A
C
2
Q
How does Liberation Theory view education?
a) Merely a knowledge transmission method
b) A way to increase workforce productivity
c) Only for academic advancement
d) As a tool for challenging existing norms.
A
D
3
Q
What does Poststructuralism analyze?
a) How power balances are maintained in society.
b) The effectiveness of traditional narratives
c) The history of educational methods
d) The development of technology in education
A
A
4
Q
What do feminist perspectives emphasize?
a) Support for traditional gender roles
b) Advancement of male privilege
c) Critique of power imbalances and oppression.
d) Criticism of educational policies only
A
C
5
Q
What aims to bring social injustices into awareness?
a) Routine assessments
b) Statistical analyses
c) Cultural studies
d) Critical questions.
A
D
6
Q
Which process is involved in Dimensions of Emancipatory Knowing?
a) Standardizing educational content
b) Lesions on historical texts
c) Critiquing and imagining solutions.
d) Monitoring classroom behavior
A
C
7
Q
What kind of nature does the creative process of emancipatory knowing have?
a) Passive nature focusing on observation
b) Activist nature leading toward emancipation.
c) A commercial nature seeking profit
d) A bureaucratic nature enforcing regulations
A
B
8
Q
What types of formal expressions are included in Dimensions of Emancipatory
Knowing?
a) Standard tests and quizzes
b) Lecture notes and course outlines
c) Student evaluations and surveys
d) Action plans and manifestoes.
A
D
9
Q
What is the purpose of formal expressions in emancipatory knowing?
a) To collect data for reports
b) To enhance administrative efficiency
c) To promote compliance with regulations
d) To create clarity and communicate injustices.
A
D
10
Q
What primarily shapes ethical knowing in nursing?
a) Only the society’s values.
b) Client’s values only.
c) The nurse’s own values and professional values.
d) External regulations and laws.
A
C
11
Q
Which component provides a framework for ethical practice in nursing?
a) Social Contract Theory.
b) Interprofessional Competencies.
c) Code of Ethics.
d) Entry-to-Practice Competencies.
A
C
12
Q
What defines the expectations for nursing practice?
a) Social Contract Theory.
b) Nursing Practice Standards.
c) Code of Ethics.
d) Interpersonal Communication Skills.
A
B
13
Q
What do Entry-to-Practice Competencies represent?
a) Advanced skills for experienced nurses.
b) Ethical decision-making skills.
c) Skills and knowledge for new nurses.
d) Community service obligations
A
C
14
Q
Which theory describes the agreement between nursing and society?
a) Social Contract Theory.
b) Constructed Knowing.
c) Subjective Knowing.
d) Ethical Framework Theory.
A
A
15
Q
Which type of competency involves collaboration with other healthcare
professionals?
a) Interprofessional Competencies.
b) Entry-to-Practice Competencies.
c) Received Knowing.
d) Procedural Knowing.
A
A
16
Q
What is the first way of knowing in nursing?
a) Silence.
b) Subjective Knowing.
c) Constructed Knowing.
d) Received Knowing.
A
A
17
Q
What characterizes received knowing?
a) Internalizing experiences exclusively.
b) Debating information received.
c) Learning primarily through listening.
d) Comparing old and new beliefs.
A
C
18
Q
Subjective knowing involves which of the following?
a) Collecting data from multiple sources.
b) Receiving factual knowledge only.
c) Ignoring emotional aspects of learning.
d) Assessing personal significance of information.
A
D
19
Q
What is procedural knowing?
a) Simply memorizing facts.
b) Comparing personal beliefs loosely.
c) Ignoring feedback from others.
d) Internalizing and debating information’s meaning.
A
D
20
Q
Constructed knowing helps learners to do what?
a) Challenge existing assumptions and beliefs.
b) Accept knowledge without question.
c) Avoid engagement with new ideas.
d) Memorize facts for testing.
A
A
21
Q
What does Empirical Knowledge in nursing encompass?
a) Personal reflection and self-awareness
b) Scientific knowledge and evidence-based practice
c) Moral considerations in patient care
d) Creativity and interpersonal interactions
A
B
22
Q
Which aspect does Personal Knowledge emphasize in nursing?
a) Statistical analysis of nursing outcomes
b) Ethical decision-making in patient care
c) Self-reflection and understanding one’s actions
d) Artistic expression during patient interactions
A
C
23
Q
What is a key focus of Ethical Knowledge in nursing?
a) Scientific theories behind nursing procedures
b) Creativity in patient communication
c) Moral aspects and adherence to ethics
d) Self-assessment of personal experiences
A
C
24
Q
Which quality is emphasized in Aesthetic Knowledge?
a) Empathy and genuine presence in care
b) Statistical reasoning for treatment plans
c) Critical thinking in ethical dilemmas
d) Self-analysis of nursing techniques
A
A
25
What are the four essential Patterns of Knowing in nursing?
a) Medical, Social, Cultural, Personal
b) Theoretical, Practical, Personal, Ethical
c) Empirical, Aesthetic, Personal, Ethical
d) Clinical, Empirical, Aesthetic, Emotional
C
26
How does Empirical Knowing influence nursing practice?
a) Encourages creativity in patient interactions
b) Focuses on self-reflection and improvement
c) Emphasizes moral reasoning in care situations
d) Ensures care is based on solid evidence
D
27
What does the Aesthetic Pattern of Knowing utilize?
a) Statistical data from healthcare studies
b) Personal medical histories of patients
c) Nurse's personality and creativity in relationships
d) Ethical norms guiding nursing behavior
C
28
What influences Personal Pattern of Knowing?
a) Objective scientific research findings
b) Accumulated knowledge from personal experiences
c) Ethical codes and standards in nursing
d) Creativity in professional patient care
B
29
Why is understanding patterns of knowing important in nursing?
a) To increase statistical outcomes in healthcare
b) To provide effective patient-centered care
c) To develop personal relationships with patients
d) To comply with administrative policies
B
30
What does emancipatory knowing emphasize?
a) Promoting individual success and wealth.
b) Action arising from awareness of social injustices.
c) Ignoring social problems for personal benefit.
d) Acceptance of the status quo.
B
31
What human ability is essential for emancipatory knowing?
a) Achieving personal goals regardless of others.
b) Following popular beliefs without question.
c) Memorizing historical facts about societies.
d) Recognizing social and political problems.
D
32
What is a key aspect of critical examination in emancipatory knowing?
a) Promoting theories without evidence.
b) Believing all opinions are equally valid.
c) Uncovering why injustices often remain invisible.
d) Focusing solely on personal experiences.
C
33
What does hegemony refer to?
a) Equal representation of all viewpoints.
b) Dominance of certain ideologies over others.
c) A fleeting social trend or fashion.
d) A competitive marketplace of ideas.
B
34
Which characteristic describes hegemony?
a) Always openly discussed in society.
b) Easily recognizable and challenged by all.
c) Only beneficial to marginalized groups.
d) Often hidden and taken for granted as truth.
D
35
How does hegemony affect social groups?
a) Privileges certain groups, leading to inequities.
b) Creates equal opportunities for everyone.
c) Ensures that all voices are heard equally.
d) Encourages a diverse range of ideologies.
A
36
How is emancipatory knowing related to hegemony?
a) It supports and reinforces hegemonic ideas.
b) It promotes apathy towards social issues.
c) It frees individuals from hegemonic thinking.
d) It ignores the existence of any ideologies.
C
37
What broader perspective does emancipatory knowing encourage?
a) Focusing solely on personal health issues.
b) Minimizing the impact of larger social issues.
c) Looking beyond individual experiences.
d) Dismissing the importance of collective action.
C
38
What does emancipatory knowing motivate individuals to discover?
a) Temporary solutions to social problems.
b) Quick fixes to personal challenges.
c) Root causes for inequities.
d) Only historical evidence of injustice.
C
39
What inspiration does emancipatory knowing provide?
a) Acceptance of injustice as inevitable.
b) Action toward change and social justice.
c) Refusal to engage in social matters.
d) Focus on personal gain over community needs.
B
40
What is the first step in the EIP process?
a) Reflection on patient care.
b) Searching for literature.
c) Evaluating patient outcomes.
d) Implementing practice changes.
A
41
What is a critical challenge in evidence-informed practices?
a) Over-reliance on technological advancements.
b) Lack of available patient data.
c) Many patients do not receive recommended care.
d) Too many unqualified nurses.
C
42
How long can it take for new evidence to be integrated into practice?
a) 1-5 years.
b) 17 or more years.
c) 5-10 years.
d) Over 30 years.
B
43
What is evidence-informed practice (EIP)?
a) Decisions based solely on tradition.
b) Decisions based on the best current evidence.
c) Practices based on unverified opinions.
d) Actions taken without patient input.
B
44
What role does expert opinion play in clinical evidence?
a) Strictly factual data.
b) Insights from experienced professionals.
c) Patient's quantitative preferences.
d) Experimental research results only.
B
45
What is the general definition of evidence in clinical practice?
a) Only based on expert opinions.
b) Information derived from clinical research.
c) Predictions about future outcomes.
d) Personal experiences in medicine.
B
46
What must care providers avoid to promote justice?
a) Offering fewer resources to certain individuals.
b) Discrimination against individuals on any grounds.
c) Judging individuals based on their past actions.
d) Ignoring ethical guidelines in practice.
B
47
Why is refraining from judging essential in care?
a) It promotes competition among care providers.
b) It increases the workload for staff members.
c) It helps avoid stigmatizing or demeaning behaviors.
d) It encourages favoritism towards certain patients.
C
48
What should care providers do if they witness inhumane actions?
a) Ignore them to avoid confrontation.
b) They must intervene against such behaviors.
c) Report them only if prompted by someone.
d) Participate to show solidarity with peers.
B
49
What does fair decision-making in care involve?
a) Advocating for equitable allocation of resources.
b) Prioritizing family connections in resource distribution.
c) Making decisions based on personal relationships.
d) Offering resources based on past contributions.
A
50
How can care providers practice accountability?
a) By practicing honesty and integrity.
b) By covering mistakes made during practice.
c) By shifting responsibility to other staff members.
d) By manipulating information for personal gain.
A
51
Why is competence important for care providers?
a) To showcase their expertise to colleagues.
b) To ensure safety and effectiveness in care.
c) To maintain a high salary and benefits.
d) To compete with others in the field.
B
52
What must care providers do to protect safety?
a) Only report the issue to management.
b) Conceal the colleague's inability from others.
c) Act when a colleague cannot perform their duties.
d) Wait for the colleague to recover
C
53
What does accurate representation entail for care providers?
a) Using titles to impress patients.
b) Clearly stating their name, title, and role.
c) Avoiding personal details in discussions.
d) Claiming experience not related to their role.
B
54
What is a key ethical responsibility concerning conflicts of interest?
a) Identifying and addressing them promptly.
b) Hiding them to maintain workplace harmony.
c) Ignoring them unless they affect patients.
d) Discussing them with family members only.
A
55
What does the principle of responsibility entail?
a) Distinguishing between right and wrong actions.
b) Avoiding any form of decision-making.
c) Following personal morals without question.
d) Defer to others for guidance at all times.
A
56
What is the meaning of accountability in a care context?
a) Blaming others when things go wrong.
b) Promising to do better without action.
c) Accepting responsibility for one's actions.
d) Only accepting blame when publicized.
C
57
What is an example of advocacy in care?
a) Speaking on behalf of those who cannot.
b) Taking actions that benefit oneself.
c) Disregarding patient opinions in decisions.
d) Offering solutions without patient involvement.
A
58
What is an ethical dilemma in nursing?
a) Situations where the best course of action is unclear.
b) A clear and defined medical procedure.
c) A situation with universal agreement.
d) Actions that always benefit the patient.
A
59
Which characteristic is NOT associated with ethical dilemmas?
a) Multiple courses of action may be ethical.
b) All alternatives can have downsides.
c) Only one course of action is available.
d) Conflicting values are often present.
C
60
What does 'futile care' refer to?
a) Effective treatments with known outcomes.
b) Care focused solely on patient comfort.
c) Interventions that do not benefit the patient.
d) Emergency measures in critical situations.
C
61
What is the main purpose of advanced care planning?
a) To evaluate the effectiveness of medical treatments.
b) To provide immediate medical assistance.
c) To ensure all patients receive the same care.
d) To document patient preferences for future care.
D
62
What does MAiD stand for?
a) Mandatory Assistance in Dying.
b) Medical Analysis in Disease.
c) Medical Assistance in Dying.
d) Morally Assisted Intervention in Dying.
A
63
Which is NOT a requirement for resolving ethical dilemmas?
a) Incorporating conflicting ideas.
b) Applying systematic thinking.
c) Negotiating differences respectfully.
d) Ignoring differing opinions.
D
64
What is the role of ethical decision-making models?
a) Offer specific solutions to ethical problems.
b) Limit stakeholder involvement in decisions.
c) Simplify the decision-making process.
d) Provide frameworks for discussing ethical issues.
D
65
In ethical decision-making, what should be identified first?
a) The preferred course of action.
b) The expected outcomes for patients.
c) The moral dimension of the situation.
d) Relevant laws and regulations.
C
66
What does 'weigh benefits and burdens' involve?
a) Considering the pros and cons of actions.
b) Eliminating all potential actions.
c) Focusing solely on patient preferences.
d) Ignoring the opinions of stakeholders.
A
67
What is important about engaging in discussion during ethical decision-making?
a) To impose one's own views on others.
b) To minimize stakeholder involvement.
c) To gather diverse perspectives on the issue.
d) To avoid controversy in decision-making.
C
68
Why is self-reflection part of ethical decision-making?
a) To assess personal comfort with the decision.
b) To ensure compliance with organizational rules.
c) To review medical outcomes only.
d) To impose standards on others.
A
69
Which step involves recognizing all affected parties?
a) Assess values involved in the situation.
b) Engage in discussion with legal teams.
c) Identify key stakeholders.
d) Look for analogous cases.
C
70
What step follows after exploring possible courses of action?
a) Reconcile facts with principles.
b) Gather background information.
c) Identify the ethical problem.
d) Engage in self-reflection.
A
71
What does 'resolution' in ethical decision-making mean?
a) Reaching a consensus with no conflict.
b) Choosing the quickest option available.
c) Deferring decisions to other professionals.
d) Arriving at a decision considering all factors.
D
72
What is a key aspect of demonstrating compassion in healthcare?
a) Avoiding personal interactions with patients.
b) Using speech and body language to show empathy.
c) Focusing solely on medical procedures.
d) Providing care without verbal communication.
B
73
What is the ethical obligation concerning unsafe care?
a) To accept all practices without question.
b) To challenge practices that endanger patient safety.
c) To only report concerns to management.
d) To document but not act on unsafe care.
B
74
How does collaboration contribute to healthcare?
a) By reducing communication among healthcare providers.
b) By ensuring the delivery of safe care.
c) By creating competition between care teams.
d) By limiting patient access to different specialists
B
75
Why is disaster response important in healthcare?
a) To maintain regular healthcare operations only.
b) To prioritize administrative tasks over care.
c) To ensure no medical interventions are delayed.
d) To provide care during natural or human-made disasters.
D
76
What is a focus area for violence prevention in healthcare?
a) Allowing verbal abuse for patient compliance.
b) Ignoring conflicts between staff and patients.
c) Minimizing all forms of violence in healthcare settings.
d) Promoting aggressive behavior among healthcare workers.
C
77
What defines patient-centered care?
a) Focusing only on physical health issues.
b) Treating all patients with a one-size-fits-all approach.
c) Prioritizing care for the individual, family, or community.
d) Emphasizing cost over patient preferences.
C
78
Why advocate for least restrictive measures in care?
a) To maintain strict control over patient choices.
b) To promote unnecessary restrictions on freedoms.
c) To support using the least restrictive options for individuals.
d) To avoid considering patients' values and needs
C
79
How does collaboration enhance health outcomes?
a) By isolating patients from community healthcare resources.
b) By allowing individual practices without coordination.
c) By working with others to improve overall health.
d) By prioritizing profit over patient health.
C
80
What is essential for informed decision-making?
a) Giving information only when asked.
b) Withholding details to avoid confusion.
c) Assuming patients understand their conditions.
d) Providing necessary information to individuals.
D
81
How should family and community values be viewed in healthcare?
a) As irrelevant distractions from medical advice.
b) As barriers to effective treatment plans.
c) As considerations only in emergencies.
d) As important factors in individual decision-making.
D
82
What does the right to refuse treatment signify?
a) An option for patients to ignore medical advice.
b) Support for an individual's autonomy in care choices.
c) A guideline for mandatory treatment compliance.
d) A reason to question patients' mental health.
B
83
Why is it important to respect lifestyle choices in healthcare?
a) To encourage unhealthy behaviors.
b) It acknowledges individuals' autonomy in health decisions.
c) To direct patients toward government-approved lifestyles.
d) To limit personal freedom in health-related choices.
B
84
What does respectful interaction in healthcare entail?
a) Relating to all individuals with respect and dignity.
b) Maintaining a formal and distant demeanor.
c) Using technical jargon to impress patients.
d) Being indifferent to patients' emotions.
A
85
What action is required when others fail to treat individuals with respect?
a) Ignoring the situation to avoid conflict.
b) Joining in to demonstrate compliance.
c) Taking intervention to uphold dignity.
d) Waiting until someone else addresses it.
C
86
Why is cultural sensitivity significant in healthcare?
a) It standardizes care without considering differences.
b) It minimizes the importance of personal preferences.
c) It avoids discussions about cultural backgrounds.
d) It considers unique values, customs, and beliefs.
D
87
What does discreet care aim to achieve?
a) Maintaining confidentiality while providing care.
b) Erasing patient history from records.
c) Discussing patient cases openly in public.
d) Ignoring personal circumstances during treatment.
A
88
Why are professional boundaries crucial in healthcare?
a) They allow for casual interactions with patients.
b) They encourage sharing personal stories with patients.
c) They protect the integrity of patient-provider relationships.
d) They are unnecessary in routine care settings.
C
89
How should healthcare providers handle privacy laws?
a) Adhere to laws and respect personal information.
b) Share information freely among colleagues.
c) Neglect to educate patients about their rights.
d) Limit access to patient records without justification.
A
90
What is an important measure to ensure confidentiality?
a) Discussing cases in crowded waiting areas.
b) Using loud voices during private discussions.
c) Recording sensitive information in public spaces.
d) Avoiding overheard conversations with patients.
D
91
What does appropriate access to information imply?
a) Anyone can view patient records without consent.
b) Access is limited to only administrative staff.
c) Information must be accessed correctly and ethically.
d) Information can be shared without patient knowledge.
C
92
What is the definition of a value?
a) A strong personal belief held by a person or group.
b) A general opinion on societal norms.
c) A financial measure of worth.
d) An objective measurement of actions.
A
93
How do values influence our behavior?
a) They solely provide economic guidance.
b) They dictate what we consider right and wrong.
c) They are unrelated to decision making.
d) They remain constant throughout life
B
94
What role do family and peers play in value formation?
a) They have no effect on value formation.
b) They only influence economic values.
c) They are irrelevant to personal beliefs.
d) They provide early teachings and societal influence.
D
95
Which factors contribute to the formation of personal values?
a) Only family and friends matter.
b) Values are innate and not influenced.
c) Culture, religion, school, and social media.
d) Workplace experiences are irrelevant.
B
96
What is involved in the process of value clarification?
a) Avoiding conscious decision-making.
b) Reflecting on and appraising personal values.
c) Imposing external values on others.
d) Disregarding moral principles.
B
97
What does ethics focus on?
a) Determining legal implications of actions.
b) The study of good conduct and motives.
c) Only following societal norms.
d) Personal opinions on various issues
B
98
What is morality primarily concerned with?
a) Only the outcomes of actions.
b) Financial and economic factors.
c) Norms, principles, and what ought to be.
d) Legal standards and regulations.
C
99
What is moral autonomy?
a) Ownership of one's chosen values and beliefs.
b) Reliance on others for moral judgment.
c) Absence of feelings towards decisions.
d) Conformity to societal expectations.
A
100
What does deontology emphasize in ethics?
a) The consequences of actions.
b) Moral duties, principles, and rules.
c) Subjective personal opinions.
d) Cultural traditions.
B
101
How does utilitarianism determine the value of actions?
a) Based on established moral rules.
b) According to personal beliefs.
c) By the usefulness and outcomes of the action.
d) From social media feedback.
C
102
What is the ultimate goal of utilitarianism?
a) Greatest good for the greatest number of people.
b) Maximizing individual success.
c) Preserving traditional norms.
d) Improving social media engagement
A
103
What is one of the four fundamental responsibilities for nurses?
a) Promote Health
b) Restore Health
c) Conduct Research
d) Manage Healthcare Facilities
A
104
Which responsibility focuses on reducing disease risk?
a) Prevent Illness
b) Alleviate Suffering
c) Restore Health
d) Provide Education
A
105
What is included in the 'Nurses and People' element of ethics?
a) Informed Treatment
b) Patient Rights
c) Clinical Competence
d) Informed Consent
D
106
What does confidentiality refer to in nursing ethics?
a) Maintaining privacy of patient information
b) Sharing patient information
c) Public health reporting
d) Patient advocacy
A
107
Which action is part of nursing integrity?
a) Achieving personal goals
b) Upholding moral principles in practice
c) Prioritizing profit
d) Ignoring ethical concerns
B
108
What is the meaning of competent practice in nursing?
a) Following patient preferences
b) Adapting to personal beliefs
c) Delivering care that meets professional standards
d) Innovating care techniques
C
109
What encompasses the element of personal health for nurses?
a) Regularly visiting patients
b) Engaging in social activities
c) Maintaining fitness to practice safely
d) Conducting peer reviews
C
110
Which value emphasizes respect for every individual?
a) Honouring Dignity
b) Promoting Health
c) Ensuring Safety
d) Providing Education
A
111
What does the CNA Code of Ethics primarily address?
a) Patient treatment protocols
b) Healthcare financing
c) Nursing values and ethical responsibilities
d) Hospital management practices
C
112
What are the two parts of the CNA Code of Ethics?
a) Nursing Values and Ethical Responsibilities, Ethical Endeavors
b) Nursing Roles, Patient Care
c) Ethical Standards, Care Protocols
d) Patient Rights, Quality Assurance
A
113
What is one of the seven central values in nursing practice?
a) Working Independently
b) Avoiding Risks
c) Being Accountable
d) Managing Staffing
C
114
What is the primary focus of promoting justice in healthcare?
a) Reducing costs of care
b) Advocating for fairness and equity
c) Ensuring patient autonomy
d) Maximizing healthcare profits
B
115
What does the ethical endeavor address in the CNA Code of Ethics?
a) Approaches to address social inequalities
b) Clinical procedures
c) Financial assessments
d) Patient recruitment strategies
A
116
Which of the following is a priority in nursing ethics?
a) Cost-effectiveness
b) Family preferences
c) Personal convenience
d) Safety
D
117
What defines moral integrity in nursing?
a) Disrespect of clients' values.
b) Inability to act on ethical principles.
c) Consistency between convictions and actions.
d) Making decisions for clients.
C
118
What triggers moral distress?
a) Open and clear communication.
b) Values being disrespected or ignored.
c) Supportive teamwork among nurses.
d) Full compliance with ethical standards.
B
119
Which emotion may result from unresolved moral distress?
a) Contentment.
b) Elation.
c) Frustration.
d) Indifference.
C
120
What does client autonomy emphasize?
a) The client's right to make decisions.
b) Healthcare providers making decisions.
c) Ignoring client preferences.
d) Mandatory treatment of clients.
A
121
What is essential for informed consent?
a) Quick agreements on treatment.
b) Verbal agreement without details.
c) Assumed consent from family members.
d) Clients being fully informed before treatment.
D
122
How is trust built in nursing?
a) By imposing decisions on clients.
b) By maintaining a reliable relationship.
c) Through frequent updates on billing.
d) By minimizing patient interactions.
B
123
What does fidelity in nursing involve?
a) Ignoring patients' concerns.
b) Accepting all patient claims.
c) Truth-telling and addressing deception.
d) Withholding important information.
C
124
What does beneficence represent?
a) Maximizing healthcare costs.
b) Ignoring client needs.
c) Acting in the client's best interest.
d) Favoring hospital policies over patients.
C
125
What does the principle of justice in nursing focus on?
a) Maximizing profits for healthcare providers.
b) Fairness and equity in healthcare distribution.
c) Prioritizing care based on wealth.
d) Rationing care based on age.
B
126
What do codes of ethics provide?
a) Standards for ethical practice.
b) Unwritten rules.
c) Guidelines for profit-making.
d) Recommendations for personal conduct.
A
127
What serves as the foundation for codes of ethics?
a) Hospital policies and procedures.
b) Client satisfaction metrics.
c) Cost management strategies.
d) Ethical theories and principles.
D
128
What role do codes of ethics play in decision-making?
a) Limit nurses' discretion.
b) Assist in ethical decision-making processes.
c) Promote standard procedures only.
d) Discourage client involvement.
B
129
What is a key aspect of professional responsibility in nursing?
a) Serving the public interest.
b) Maximizing individual profits.
c) Avoiding accountability.
d) Focusing solely on clinical tasks.
A
130
What do behavioral standards define?
a) Economic gains for the organization.
b) Clients' personal preferences.
c) Acceptable and unacceptable professional behavior.
d) Time management strategies for staff.
C
131
What do guiding principles clarify in nursing?
a) Financial incentives for performance.
b) Training requirements for new hires.
c) Guidelines for facility maintenance.
d) Principles that guide decisions and actions.
D
132
