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Leah URO > Week 4 > Flashcards

Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

How does colostrum management differ between species

A

cattle & sheep - shortly after birth

foals - within 6 hours

piglets - within 12-24 hours

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2
Q

what is meconium

A

neonates first faeces

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3
Q

How could you rectify breathing in neonate animal

A

Cattle, sheep – clear airways of mucous using bulb syringe

Pigs – clear airways using suction device

Foals – remove any obstructions

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4
Q

What are common issues a vet would identify in neonates

A
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5
Q

When would a vet be needed in a foaling

A

help inexperienced owner

assist in event of dystocia

examine neonatal foal in distress

routine post-foaling check

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6
Q

What temperature should a neonatal foal have

A

37-39C

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7
Q

What are common physical abnormalities found in initial exam of foal

A

Cleft plate (milk running down nostrils)
overbite
limb deformities

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8
Q

Write a checklist for indoor farrowing

A

Clean, warm farrowing area with adequate bedding

Have farrowing kit ready (towels, gloves, disinfectant, bulb syringe)

Isolate sow in farrowing crate

Clear mucous from piglets nose and mouth

Ensure piglets get colostrum soon after birth

Look for signs of illness

Check and care for umbilical cord

Ensure piglets stay warm

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9
Q

What would you expect a normal neonate piglet to look like and how should it behave

A

palpable ribs but not prominent

smooth skin

eyes & nose free of discharge

dry umbilical cord

clean ears & tail

well-formed feet & legs

active & alert

seek sow teat & suckling reflex

huddle together for warmth

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10
Q

What would you expect a normal neonate puppy/kitten to look like and how should it behave

A

Eyes & nose free of discharge

smooth coat

moist nose

curious

suckling reflex

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11
Q

What should be checked in neonatal kittens/puppies

A

Weight check – ensure proper growth & development

Ensure proper latching & milk intake – lack leads to weakened immunity & inadequate nutrition

Umbilical cord inspection – prevent infection

Body temperature check

Observe urination & defecation – prevent constipation & urinary tract issues

General health inspection

Environmental comfort check

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12
Q

What puppy/kitten neonatal abnormalities should alert an owner

A

Difficulty nursing

weight loss

respiratory distress

Lethargy

eye/ear discharge

temperature abnormalities

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13
Q

What are signs of meconium impaction in foal? how would you check? how would you treat it?

A

signs:
- rolling
- squatting
- turning head towards flank
- reluctant to nurse

diagnostic checks:
- rectal exam using 1 finger
- auscultation of gut sounds
- abdominal palpation
- ultrasound

treatment:
- enema
- pain relief
- wait & watch

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14
Q

What can you see here? and what can cause it?

A

swelling
discharge
hernia
naval should have dried up

known as omphalophlemitis (navel ill)

caused by:
- dirty calving yard - environmental bacteria enter body via open umbilical cord
- poor colostrum management - inadequate immune response to invading bacteria

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15
Q

What are the increased risks of puppies born via C-section rather than natural birth

A

natural birth helps squeeze fluid from airways

more risk of umbilical cord issues

more risk of bitch rolling onto puppies (more observation required)

many need to manually latch puppies on/re-scent puppies to promote bonding

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16
Q

describe mammary gland development

A

glands that originate from epidermis

  1. arise along 2 lateral lines (mammary ridges) on ventral surface of developing fetus
  2. mammary ridges extend from axillary region to inguinal region
  3. mammary ridges give rise to primary mammary bud
  4. primary buds push into dermis to grow
  5. growth branches into secondary mammary bud
  6. secondary buds branch out & canalise to form lactiferous ducts
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17
Q

Label the mammary gland

A
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18
Q

Describe the microanatomy of mammary glands

A
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19
Q

label the mammary gland

A
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20
Q

Describe the macroanatomy of the mammary gland

A
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21
Q

Label the mammary gland

A
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22
Q

Fill in the mammary gland table

A
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23
Q

What are marsupials vs monotremes

A
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24
Q

What are supernumery teats (polythelia)

A
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25
Q

describe the ruminant mammary suspensory system

A

udder is supported by strong suspensory ligament divided into 2 parts

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26
Q

describe mammary gland growth

A

birth to puberty:
- isometric growth (like other tissues, everything grows at same rate

after puberty:
- allometric growth (different rate)
- complete & rapid growth of ducts occurs in presence of prolactin & growth hormone
- during oestrous cycles ducts begin to branch under effect of oestrogen
- alveoli are formed under influence of progesterone (pregnancy)

pregnancy:
- terminal alveoli grow into lobules due to progesterone dominance
- prolactin, adrenal cortical hormones & placental lactogen allow synthesis of milk
- milk yield keeps increasing after parturition because demand increases as neonate gets bigger

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27
Q

What is the cycle of mammary function

A
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28
Q

Describe vascularisation of mammary glands

A
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29
Q

Describe venous drainage of the bovine mammary gland

A
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30
Q

Describe lymphatic drainage of the bovine mammary gland

A
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31
Q

Describe innervation of bovine mammary gland

A
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32
Q

compare colostrum to normal milk

A

contains more proteins, fat, minerals & vitamins than regular milk

lower lactose concentration

proteins transfer IgG, IgM & IgA from blood to milk

supplies newborn with immunoprotection
- very important in equidae, bovidae & suidae

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33
Q

what proteins does milk contain

A
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34
Q

What cells does milk contain and how many

A
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35
Q

Describe synthesis of milk

A

epithelial cells synthesise majority of milk components

mitochondria synthesise fatty acids & non-essential amino acids

RER synthesises secretory proteins

SER synthesises phospholipids & triglycerides

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36
Q

Describe metabolism during lactation

A
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37
Q

Describe the hormones involved in lactogenesis

A

cortisol needed for growth & differentiation of golgi apparatus (where lactose is synthesised)

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38
Q

Describe the control of lactogenesis by a-lactalbumin

A
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39
Q

How is milk secretion maintained

A
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40
Q

What reduced milk secretion

A
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41
Q

Describe prolactin in maintaining galactopoiesis

A
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42
Q

What is the milk ejection reflex

A
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43
Q

What causes myoepithelial cells in mammary gland to contract

A
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44
Q

What are the effects of oxytocin on milk let down

A
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45
Q

Describe mammary gland involution

A
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46
Q

What is the effect of lactation on reproduction

A
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47
Q

What is delayed implantation and how does lactation effect it

A
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48
Q

What conditions affect lactation

A
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49
Q

Describe the role of pheromones in rabbit lactation

A
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50
Q

Describe the role of pheromones in mice lactation

A
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51
Q

Label the non-lactating mammary gland

A
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52
Q

Label the non-lactating mammary gland and state the function of both cell types

A
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53
Q

Label the lactating mammary gland

A
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54
Q

What separates the gland cistern from the teat cistern

A

annular fold

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55
Q

Where is milk stored when neonate is not sucking on teat

A

lobules/alveoli

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56
Q

Label the lactating gland

A
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57
Q

Label the lactiferous duct in mammary gland

A
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58
Q

What role do squamous epithelial cells fulfil in teat

A

protective barrier of teat canal
stop pathogens from entering udder

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59
Q

What happens to teat orifice if milking machine vacuum is too high

A

physical trauma
hyperkeratosis
increased risk of bacterial invasion

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60
Q

label the papillary duct (teat)

A
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61
Q

Define mastitis

A
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62
Q

What are the changes in milk during mastitis

A
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63
Q

What are the clinical signs of mastitis

A

inflammation of gland
- swollen, hot, hard, painful, possible necrosis of quarter

reduced yield

pyrexia

anorexia

recumbency

tachycardia

tachypnoea

collapse

death

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64
Q

What are the grades of mastitis

A
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65
Q

Describe clinical vs subclinical mastitis

A
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66
Q

Describe acute vs chronic mastitis

A
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67
Q

What are the causes of mastitis

A

bacteria (main cause)
viruses
fungi
physical (e.g. trauma)
toxins
neoplasia

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68
Q

Describe contagious mastitis

A

infection spread from cow to cow (mainly during milking)

infected cows are primary reservoir of infection

bacteria:
- staphylococcus aureus
- streptococcus agalactiae
- streptococcus dysgalactiae

tends to be mild-moderate in severity

quarters often remain chronically infected for long time

associated with high somatic cell counts

infected quarters can shed large numbers of bacteria into milk

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69
Q

describe environmental mastitis

A

bacteria:
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus uberis
- Streptococcus dysgalactiae

infection acquired through contact with pathogens in environment

environment is primary reservoir of infection

most cases mild-moderate but can be severe

less likely to establish chronic sub-clinical disease

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70
Q

What is the 5 point plan for controlling mastitis

A
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71
Q

Describe the importance of post milking teat disinfection in controlling mastitis

A
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72
Q

Describe the importance of treating clinical cases in controlling mastitis

A
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73
Q

Describe the importance of dry cow therapy in controlling mastitis

A
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74
Q

Describe the importance of culling chronically infected cows in controlling mastitis

A
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75
Q

Describe the importance of milking machine maintenance in controlling mastitis

A
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76
Q

What is the purpose of teat preparation at milking to prevent mastitis

A
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77
Q

What is bulk milk somatic cell count

A
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78
Q

What is individual cow somatic cell count

A
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79
Q

What is the california mastitis test

A
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80
Q

Describe the nutrition effects on puberty

A

high planes of nutrition give increased growth rates & generally earlier puberty

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81
Q

How does nutrition effect reproduction

A

major effects through hormones

82
Q

How can nutrition cause pregnancy loss in cow

A
83
Q

Why are sheep often restricted in nutrition through early to mid gestation

A
84
Q

How does a negative energy balance effect reproduction

A

delayed return to cyclicity

ketosis

impaired follicle development & luteal function

85
Q

Why are ewes moved to a fresh pasture or given supplementary feed 2 weeks prior to tupping

A

ideally gets BCS from 2-2.5 to 3

rising plane of nutrition increases fecundity (lambs/ewe)

increases leptin, decreases insulin & GH

increases FSH which increases folliculogenesis

86
Q

What are the effects of selenium deficiency on reproduction (female)

A
87
Q

What are the effects of copper deficiency on reproduction (female)

A
88
Q

What are the reproductive effects of zinc deficiency in males & females

A
89
Q

What are the reproductive effects of iodine deficiency

A
90
Q

Why might a vet want to perform a reproductive exam

A
91
Q

Why do you see less reproduction work in small animal clinics compared to production animals

A

less chance of dystocia due to smaller offspring

92
Q

How long is gestation in dog

A

63-65 days

93
Q

When should a dairy cow return to cyclicity after calving

A

30-40 days

94
Q

What is the classic target interval between calving and serving again in dairy cows

A

80 days to calve again at same time the next year

95
Q

How can you bring a dairy cow into oestrous

A

ovysynch GnRH followed by PGF2a & then GnRH

96
Q

What is typical number of piglets per farrowing

A

8-16

97
Q

how many farrowings do sows have each year

A

2

98
Q

What methods can be used to advance breeding season in sheep

A
99
Q

What are the recommended ram:ewe ratios during breeding season for lowland & synchronised flocks

A
100
Q

What is meant by the term flushing

A

putting ewes on high grade pasture or concentrate 2 weeks before tupping

101
Q

What is the difference between fertility & fecundity

A

fertility: actual number of offspring produced by individual or population

fecundity: possible number of offspring that can be produced over a lifetime

102
Q

What is the purpose of pregnancy scanning ewes

A

determine how many lambs are present so you can feed up or down depending on how many offspring (prevents huge singles getting stuck)

103
Q

Define locus

A

position of gene on a chromosome

104
Q

Define gene

A

discreet unit of DNA which codes for a protein

105
Q

Define genotype

A

alleles contained in an organisms cells

106
Q

Define phenotype

A

characteristics of an organism determined by its genotype & environment

107
Q

Define F1 & F2 in genetics

A
108
Q

What is the law of segregation

A
109
Q

What is the law of independent assortment

A
110
Q
A
111
Q

What is the F2 genotype ratio

A
112
Q

In what situations can inheritance of characters by a single gene deviate from simple Mendelian patterns

A
113
Q

What is epistasis

A
114
Q

What are linked genes

A
115
Q

What is the ultimate result of inbreeding

A
116
Q

Is inbreeding a logical breeding strategy

A

but downside is also more unfavourable alleles

117
Q

What is the inbreeding coefficient

A
118
Q

How can inbreeding be reduced

A
119
Q

What are some inherited disorders in dogs

A
120
Q

Define heterosis

A
121
Q

What is inbreeding depression

A

reduced biological fitness (unfavourable alleles) due to inbreeding

122
Q

What is IVF and what are its uses

A
123
Q

What are the steps of IVF

A
124
Q

What is ICSI (intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection)

A

a procedure involving injecting a sperm inside an oocyte thus bypassing normal fertilisation

only used for research in animals

125
Q

Label the structures

A
126
Q

label D

A

deep inguinal ring

127
Q

Label the structures

A
128
Q

Which species is this from and label the structures

A

small ruminant (sheep)

A. corpus luteum
B. oviduct
C. uterine a.
D. caruncles

129
Q

What will structure A become

A

A is corpus luteum
corpus albicans

130
Q

What happens inside structure B

A

B is oviduct

fertilisation

131
Q

What is special about the venous return of the uterus in sheep

A

the veins form a plexus around the coiled ovarian artery

132
Q

What type of placenta attaches at D? Which species have similar types but how is the shape of the individual units different?

A

D is caruncles

133
Q

Label

A
134
Q

How is A different in cats

A

A is suspensory ligament

long and elastic in cats compared to short and inelastic in bitches

135
Q

Which ligament supports the right uterine horn

A

round ligament

136
Q

Which vessel does the left ovarian vein connect to

A

left renal vein

137
Q

The ligament which supports the mesovarian/ovary continues as which other ligament

A

proper ligament of ovary continues as round ligament

138
Q

In which condition does the ureter open into the vagina

A

ectopic ureter(s)

139
Q

Label and name the species

A

Cow
A: caruncle
B: cotyledon

140
Q

Name membranes A and B

A

A: amnion
B: chorioallantois

141
Q
A

dog

142
Q
A

A: medial suspensory ligament
B: lateral suspensory ligament

143
Q

Outline the key points of the rabbit oestrous cycle, oestrous behaviour, type of ovulation, nesting behaviour and parturition

A

induced ovulators (no definitive oestrous cycle)

variable receptive period (up to 14 days) followed by 2-4 days on non-receptivity

receptive doe is active, rubs her chin on objects, exhibits lordosis, vulval swelling & mounting

nesting behaviour involves burrowing & pulling fur from dewlap, flanks & belly

Parturition usually early morning & rapid

144
Q

How do you sex rabbits

A

males have greater anogenital distance and round opening

females have V shaped opening

145
Q

when is puberty in rabbits

A

4-8 months

146
Q

What distinctive mating behaviour do camelids exhibit

A

spitting on male post ovulation

147
Q

what type of ovulators are camelids

A

induced

148
Q

in what horn are most camelid pregnancies

A

98% left horn

149
Q

What is the alpaca gestation length

A

342 days

150
Q

At what age do laying hens begin to lat and how many weeks are they kept in lay commercially

A

start at 16 weeks
kept until 72 weeks

151
Q

what are the consequences of bringing pullets into lay too early

A

smaller eggs because she is smaller

152
Q

How does increasing day length influence egg production

A

increases egg production rate

153
Q

what happens to shell quality over time

A

increases if birds retain egg in shell gland for longer

154
Q

describe how management of lighting can maximise egg size

A

increased light periods mean birds are more likely to consume more so greater egg size

155
Q

what mineral is the major nutrient in layer-feed after protein

A

calcium

156
Q

What are examples of things that can be measured in selective breeding assessment

A
157
Q

What is heritability (h2)

A
158
Q

Why has there been a large increase in genetic potential of dairy cows

A
159
Q

What is predicted transmitting ability (PTA)

A

allows you to compare sires within a single breed

160
Q

what type of traits can you select for in cow selective breeding

A

production traits

health, welfare and fitness traits

management traits

type traits (physique)

161
Q

describe production trait selection in selective breeding of dairy cows

A

production potential

milk yield, fat %, protein %

indication of how much more milk a daughter from that bull will give in lactation compared to average for the breed

takes advantage of milk contract premiums

162
Q

describe type trait selection (physique) in selective breeding of dairy cows

A
163
Q

describe management, health, welfare and fitness trait selection in selective breeding of dairy cows

A
164
Q

What is reliability in selective breeding of dairy cows

A

measure of accuracy of predicted transmitting abilities (PTA)

bulls on scale of 30-100%

higher reliability indicates more accurate prediction
- increases as number of daughters increases
- younger bulls have lower reliability

always use mix of proven sires (never use low reliability for great percentage of herd)

165
Q

What is profitable life index (£PLI) in selective breeding of dairy cows

A

PLI of £145 means that daughters of that bull will be expected to be £145 more profitable over a lifetime compared to average for that breed

166
Q

What is fertility index (FI) in selective breeding of dairy cows

A
167
Q

What are breeding priorities in selective breeding of dairy cows

A
168
Q
A

fertility is less heritable than production

169
Q
A

efficiency
profit
animal appropriate for task

170
Q

What is genetic index

A

a measure of an animals ability to transmit its genes on to the next generation

171
Q
A
172
Q

Given the benchmarking report & the milk contract requirements, which traits align with this herd’s breeding goals?

Also select 4 traits of importance

A
173
Q

What is selecting against a gene

A
174
Q

What is selection co-efficient

A

measure of strength of selection imposed

175
Q

define heritability

A

extent to which phenotype of parents is seen in offspring

176
Q

Describe the mode of inheritance of hip dysplasia

A

complex (polygenic) inheritance

both genetic and environmental factors

177
Q

list 4 non-genetic factors that contribute to development of hip dysplasia

A

nutrition
hormones
exercise
obesity

178
Q

Define osmosis

A

net movement of water through semi-permeable membrane from region of higher water potential (concentration) to region of lower water potential

179
Q

Define water potential

A

tendency of water molecules to move out of a solution

in pure water, water potential is 0

180
Q

define solute potential

A

component of water potential due to solute molecules

always has negative value

also termed osmotic potential

181
Q

define pressure potential

A

component of water potential due to hydrostatic pressure

usually a positive value

182
Q

define hydrostatic pressure

A

pressure exerted by a fluid in a closed system

183
Q

label

A
184
Q

label

A
185
Q

Label

A
186
Q

define excretion

A

removal of waste products of metabolism from the body

187
Q

What are the functions of the kidney

A

excrete waste products from metabolism

osmoregulation

hormone secretion (erythropoietin & calcitriol)

acid/base homeostasis

blood pressure regulation via water control

reabsorption of vital nutrients

188
Q

What are the 2 main processes that occur in the production of urine in the kidney

A
189
Q

What is ultrafiltration

A
190
Q

What drives glomerulus filtration

A

hydrostatic pressure of blood in glomerulus

191
Q

What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A
192
Q

Where does most reabsorption in the kidney occur and what features does it have

A
193
Q

How are sodium and water reabsorbed in the kidney

A

sodium is reabsorbed by active transport & moves out of lumen

water than follows sodium by osmosis

194
Q

Describe the loop of Henle

A

important for water conservation

desert animals have long loops of Henle

function is to increase concentration of ions in tissue fluid of medulla

has a counter-current system
- hairpin structure ensures filtrate flows in opposite directions
- allows descending & ascending limb to have different functions

195
Q

Describe the counter-current system of the Loop of Henle

A
196
Q

Describe the kidney collecting duct

A
197
Q

In an induced ovulator what hormonal changes would you expect to find in a pre- and post-mated female

A

pre-mated:
- more FSH in run up to ovulation

post-mated:
- LH surge
- Less FSH
- low oestrogen
- High P4

198
Q
A

GnRH implant which suppresses ovarian activity

or mate with vasectomised male with subsequent pseudopregnancy

199
Q
A

bone marrow suppression

anaemia

panleukopenia

thrombocytopenia

200
Q
A

blood transfusion

GnRH implant

Jill jab (progesterone based treatment which delays breeding season)

Leah URO (8 decks)

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