Week 4 - Med Admin, Informatics, and Tech Flashcards

1
Q

What is nursing informatics?

A

The integration of nursing science with information and communication technologies to manage and communicate data, enhance decision-making, and improve patient care.

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2
Q

What are clinical information systems (CIS)?

A

Broad systems that store and retrieve patient data to support care, such as EHRs, lab systems, telehealth platforms, and CDSS.

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3
Q

Give three examples of health information technology used in nursing practice.

A

Barcode scanning for meds, electronic health records (EHR), wearable monitors.

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4
Q

What is an Electronic Health Record (EHR)?

A

A digital version of a patient’s chart containing medical history, medications, lab values, progress notes, and other essential health info.

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5
Q

How does technology assist in safe medication administration?

A

Through EHR-integrated tools like barcode scanning, medication reconciliation, and e-prescribing.

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6
Q

What is the purpose of simulation in nursing education?

A

To safely practice clinical decision-making and hands-on skills in realistic, risk-free scenarios.

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7
Q

What is required if there is a breach of unencrypted ePHI?

A

Notify the client by mail within 60 days; immediate phone call if there’s imminent misuse.

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8
Q

What are common Telehealth technologies used in nursing?

A

Video conferencing, remote monitoring, health apps, and secure messaging.

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9
Q

What are the benefits of EHR for documentation?

A

Eases charting with flowsheets, improves tracking and communication, enhances patient safety.

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10
Q

What is a major downside of EHR documentation?

A

Time-consuming and may reduce time spent with patients.

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11
Q

What is digital health literacy?

A

The ability to find, understand, and evaluate electronic health information.

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12
Q

What populations are at higher risk for low digital health literacy?

A

Older adults, low-income groups, non-English speakers, and individuals without tech access.

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13
Q

What are potential outcomes of low health literacy?

A

Increased ER use, worse health outcomes, and higher mortality rates.

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14
Q

What does ISBARR stand for?

A

Identity, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Read Back.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the ISBARR tool?

A

To provide structured, concise communication between healthcare providers during handoffs or urgent situations.

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16
Q

What happens during the “Read Back” step of ISBARR?

A

The nurse repeats the information or orders received to ensure accuracy and prevent miscommunication.

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17
Q

What is the role of a nurse in ensuring HIPAA compliance?

A

Nurses must protect PHI, avoid unauthorized access or sharing, log out of systems, and dispose of PHI properly.

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18
Q

What is a common cause of a HIPAA breach related to technology?

A

Downloading PHI onto unauthorized devices or sharing login credentials.

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19
Q

What is meant by “minimum necessary” in HIPAA?

A

Only the information needed to perform a task should be accessed or shared.

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20
Q

How does technology support health literacy for patients?

A

It enables easier access to health records, online scheduling, messaging providers, and remote monitoring.

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20
Q

How can simulation benefit interprofessional education?

A

It promotes teamwork, communication, and understanding of each profession’s role in patient care.

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21
Q

How does technology support health literacy for patients?

A

It enables easier access to health records, online scheduling, messaging providers, and remote monitoring.

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22
Q

What is the function of a clinical decision support system (CDSS)?

A

It assists providers by offering evidence-based guidance and alerts based on patient data.

23
Q

How does barcode scanning improve medication safety?

A

It ensures the “five rights” of medication administration (right patient, drug, dose, route, and time).

24
What is one way to protect PHI on physical paper (e.g., brain sheets)?
Shred or dispose of it in a secure receptacle after use—never leave it in the open.
25
What are the three safety checks before administering medication?
1) When removing from dispensing system 2) During preparation 3) At bedside before administration.
26
What is the purpose of performing the 3 medication checks?
To ensure the correct medication is given to the correct patient in the correct manner.
27
What should always be compared during safety checks?
The medication should always be compared to the Medication Administration Record (MAR).
28
Why is documenting after administration critical?
If it isn't documented, it didn't happen—this protects patient safety and legal compliance.
29
What is the nurse’s role in medication safety?
Assess, plan, administer, and evaluate medication effectiveness and side effects.
30
Name the 10 Rights of Medication Administration.
Right client, medication, dose, route, time, documentation, assessment, evaluation, education, right to refuse.
31
How do you confirm the Right Client?
Use 2 identifiers (e.g., full name, DOB, or medical record number) and check the ID band.
32
What is involved in confirming the Right Dose?
Check against the MAR, verify with the provider if unclear, and ensure accuracy.
33
What does the Right Medication involve?
Check prescription, medication label, expiration date, and confirm it matches the diagnosis.
34
What are common routes of administration?
Oral, IV, IM, SubQ, Sublingual, Buccal, Rectal, Topical, Transdermal, Inhalation, Intranasal.
35
What is considered the Right Time?
Follow timing policies (usually within 30–60 minutes), and give STAT meds immediately.
36
What is the Right Documentation practice?
Document after giving the medication and include time, dose, and any patient response.
37
What does the Right Assessment include?
Check for allergies, contraindications, lab values, vitals, and interactions.
38
What should you do if a patient refuses medication?
Investigate the reason, educate the patient, and document refusal.
39
What is the Right Evaluation?
Follow-up to assess if the medication had the intended therapeutic effect and monitor side effects.
40
What nursing assessments are performed before medication?
Subjective: meds taken, allergies, interactions. Objective: vitals, labs, physical status.
41
What are examples of med-specific assessments before giving meds?
BP for antihypertensives, glucose for insulin, pain score for analgesics.
42
When do you assess after administering a PO med?
Around 30 minutes post-administration.
43
When do you assess after IV med administration?
Within 5–15 minutes.
44
What should a nurse evaluate after giving meds?
Effectiveness, adverse effects, and need for further interventions.
45
What are some common medication errors?
Wrong drug, dose, route, patient, time, or giving expired or discontinued meds.
46
When should an incident report be filed?
Immediately after a medication error is discovered—even if no harm occurred.
47
What is Medication Reconciliation?
Comparing patient’s home meds with current orders to avoid interactions or omissions.
48
What tech tools help prevent med errors?
Barcode scanning, smart pumps, electronic MARs, and computerized order entry.
49
What is "Tall Man Lettering"?
Capitalizing portions of look-alike drug names to prevent mix-ups (e.g., DOBUTamine vs. DOPamine).
50
Why should you avoid trailing zeros in dosages?
A trailing zero can cause a 10x overdose (e.g., 2.0mL mistaken for 20mL).
51
Why should you use a leading zero for decimals?
Without it, a dose of .5mL can be misread as 5mL.
52
What abbreviations are error-prone?
QD (daily), QID (4x/day), HS (bedtime or half strength), DC (discharge or discontinue).
53
Give examples of look-alike/sound-alike drugs.
Keppra vs. Keflex, Lantus vs. Lente, Metronidazole vs. Metformin.
54
What are the top causes of medication errors according to nurses?
Lack of med knowledge, fatigue, high workload, and interruptions.