Week 7- Infectious Disease 2 Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
True or false: Most infectious diseases are not confined to specific organ systems
A
False
(are confined)
2
Q
Types of infectious diseases
A
-Bacterial
-Viral
-Miscellaneous infectious diseases
3
Q
Bacteria are _______ celled microorganisms with well-defined __________ that can grow independently on artificial media without the need for other cells
A
Single
Cell walls
4
Q
Bacteria can be classified according to ________
A
Shape
5
Q
Spherical bacterial cells
A
Cocci
6
Q
Rod-shaped bacteria
A
Bacilli
7
Q
Spiral-shaped bacteria
A
Spirilla/spriochetes
8
Q
Bacteria can also be classified according to…
A
-Response to staining (gram-positive, gram-negative, or acid-fast)
-Motility (motile or nonmotile)
-Tendency toward capsulation (encapsulated or nonencapsulated)
-Capacity to form spores (sporulating or nonsporulating)
-Aerobic: oxygen is needed to replicate and develop
-Anaerobic: they can sustain life in an oxygen-poor (anaerobic)
9
Q
True or false: Bacteria have a lack of a true nuclear membrane
A
True
10
Q
Bacteria require a nourishing __________ (amino acids, sugars, and other) to provide ____________ to maintain function
A
Medium
Metabolic substrates
11
Q
True or false: Bacteria multiply, competing with host (human) cells for essential nutrients
A
True
12
Q
Bacteria may directly harm human cells by releasing __________
A
Toxic substances
13
Q
Bacteria may cause an __________ response that will ultimately damage human tissues along with invading bacteria
A
Immune
14
Q
True or false: All bacteria in the human body are harmful
A
False
(not all)
15
Q
List of bacterial infections
A
-Enterobacteriaceae
-Clostridioides difficile infections
-Staphylococcal infections
-Streptococcal infections
-Streptococcus pneumoniae
-Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas Gangrene)
-Psuedomonas
16
Q
Clostridium
A
-Spindle
17
Q
Staphylo
A
Shapes that resemble clusters
18
Q
Name that infection!
-Anyone but person 65+ years are greater at risk
-Diarrhea after antibiotic consumption
-GI system
-Fecal oral route
A
Clostridioides dififcile infections (CID)
19
Q
Name that infection!
-Individuals with chronic skin lesions, surgical/burn patients
-Burns, surgical wounds, arthritis, food poisoning
-Integumentary
A
Staphylococcal infections
20
Q
Name that infection!
-Strep throat
-Group A streptococci (GAS) via respiratory droplets; Group B (GBS) via neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis
A
Streptococcal infections
21
Q
The death of body tissue, usually associated with loss of vascular (nutritive, arterial circulation) supply and followed by bacterial invasion and putrefaction
A
Gangrene
22
Q
3 major types of gangrene
A
Dry
Moist
Gas gangrene
23
Q
These forms of gangrene result from loss of blood circulation due to various causes
A
Dry and moist
24
Q
Gas gangrene occurs in wounds infected by ________ bacteria, leading to gas production and tissue breakdown
A
Anaerobic
25
Name that infection!
-Anaerobic conditions are necessary
-Integumentary system
Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas Gangrene)
26
Name that infection!
-Most common in hospitals and nursing homes
-Integumentary, circulatory, respiratory
Pseudomonas
27
Factors in picking an antibacterial drug
Patient tolerance, bacterial resistance, physician preference
28
Drugs that are effective against a variety of bacteria
Broad-spectrum agents
29
Drugs in which their spectrum of activity is relatively narrow
Specific agents
30
Drugs that typically kill or destroy bacteria
Bactericidal
31
Drugs that do not actually kills bacteria but limit their growth and proliferation
Bacteriostatic
32
The classification of bacterial drugs may depend on the drug _________
Dosage
33
Basic mechanisms of antibacterial drugs
-Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
-Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
-Inhibition of bacterial DNA/RNA synthesis and function
34
Protein-polysaccharide structures that make up the rigid and firm bacterial cell wall
Peptidoglycans
35
True or false: Drugs do not cause inadequate production of peptidoglycans or other structural components within the cell wall
False
(they do)
36
Some drugs directly punch ________ in the bacterial cell membrane, destroying the selective permeability and separation of internal from external environment
Holes
37
Drugs act as __________ that break apart the phospholipid bilayer, creating gaps and leaks in the bacterial cell membrane
Detergents
38
Drugs that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis enter the bacterial cell and bind to specific ___________ subunits
Ribosomal
39
Binding of the drug to the ribosome either blocks ____________ or causes the ribosome to misread the messenger ________ code
Protein synthesis
RNA
40
__________ serves as an enzymatic cofactor in several reactions, including synthesis of bacterial nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids
Folic acid
41
Drugs inhibit bacterial nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting the production of __________
Folic acid
42
True or false: Certain bacterial strains have a natural or acquired defense mechanism against specific anti-bacterial drugs
True
43
True or false: A bacteria's defense mechanism enables the strain to survive the effects of the drug and continue to grow and reproduce similar resistant strains, representing a genetic selection process in which the only resistant strains survive the drug
True
44
States that antibacterial drugs should be used carefully and not overused
Antibiotic stewardship
45
Identifying the specific pathogenic bacteria leads to the use of more _________
Selective agents
46
True or false: Administering broad spectrum antibiotics may help attenuate and kill resistant strains more effectively
False
(Selective agents)
47
Common side effects of antibacterial drugs
-Hypersensitivity reactions (skin rashes, itching, respiratory difficulty/wheezing
-GI problems (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea-- usually not serious but may be bothersome if they continually interrupt therapy)
48
True or false: PTs may have to alter the time of the treatment session to work around side effects of antibacterial drugs, especially if GI and similar side effects tend to occur at a specific time of the day
True
49
Subcellular organisms made up of only an RNA or a DNA nucleus covered with proteins
Viruses
50
Viruses are the _______ known organisms, visible only through an _________
Smallest
Electron microscope
51
True or false: Viruses are independent on host cells
False
(completely dependent)
52
True or false: Viruses cannot replicate unless they invade a host cell and stimulate it to participate in the formation of additional viruses particles
True
53
True or false: Viruses are susceptible to antibiotics
False
(not susceptible)
54
True or false: Antiviral medications can mitigate (moderate) the course of the viral illness
True
55
True or false: Antiviral medications do not mitigate the course of viral illnesses
False
(they do)
56
True or false: Viruses contain cellular components (ex: ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum) to replicate itself or synthesize proteins and other macromolecules
False
(do not contain those cellular components)
57
Viruses contain only the __________ that will produce additional viruses
Genetic code
58
To replicate, the virus must rely on the ___________ of the host cell
Biochemical machinery
59
How does viral replication work?
Virus invades the host cell, takes control of the cell’s metabolic function, and uses its macromolecular synthesizing apparatus to crank out new viruses
60
A virus often __________ the infected cell so that the infected cell cannot carry out its normal physiological activities
Incapacitates
61
A virus is released by the process of __________, leaving the host cell relatively intact (although still infected with the original virus)
Exocytosis
62
True or false: The host cell may be simply be destroyed (undergo lysis), thus releasing the viral offspring
True
63
__________ of the host cell results in the release of the virus and the death of the cell and may stimulate the production of inflammatory mediators which create a _____________ response
Lysis
Hypersensitivity
64
HBV, HVC, and HIV are these types of viral infections
Bloodborne viral pathogens
65
Varicella-Zoster, Infectious Mononucleosis, and Cytomegalovirus are these types of viral infections
Herpesviruses
66
Influenza and COVID-19 are these types of viral infections
Viral respiratory infections
67
HBV can be transmitted to HCWs via percutaneous injuries or by direct or indirect contact with __________
Blood
68
True or false: Pre-exposure HBV vaccination of HCWs who are at risk is not recommended
False
(it is recommended)
69
Accidental percutaneous injuries are the highest risk vehicle for transmission to HCWs from people with acute or chronic ______
HCV
70
The incubation period for HCV is ________ weeks, and nearly all individuals with acute infection will have chronic HCV infection
6-7
71
More than _____% of all people with HCV develop chronic hepatitis
75%
72
True or false: There is a vaccine against HCV available
False
(nope lol)
73
True or false: Strict adherence to handwashing and standard precautions is critical to prevent transmission of hepatitis-contaminated body fluids
True
74
Derived from the Greek word herpein ("to creep")
Herpes
75
The known human herpesviruses (HHVs) are divided by genomic and biologic behavior into _______ types
Eight
76
Approximately 70% of Americans older than 12 years harbor ______ , which is usually responsible for ________ ; 20% older than 12 years have _______
HSV-1
Cold sores
HSV-2
77
True or false: Infants born to women with genital herpes can be infected with HSV when they pass through an infected birth canal
True
78
Primary infection of herpesviruses occurs through a break in the _________ of the mouth, throat, eye, or genitals or via minor abrasions in the skin
Mucous membranes
79
Primary _______ typically affects the mouth and oral cavity, causing vesicles in the mouth, throat, and around the lips
HSV-1
80
HSV-2 is most often acquired through __________________
Sexual contact
81
Primary HSV-2 causes vesicles to form in the _______________ tract
Genitourinary
82
Systemic symptoms of herpesviruses include...
Headaches
Malaise
Myalgias
Fever
83
True or false: Primary infection of herpesviruses can be asymptomatic
True
84
_________________ reduces the risk of neonatal herpes in mothers known to be shedding the virus
Cesarean section
85
Recurrent disease of the __________ is best treated with acyclovir, and recurrent genital disease requires _______ precautions during sexual activity in addition to medication
Herpes simplex virus
Barrier
86
True or false: HCWs do not need to protect themselves from acquiring HSV
False
(they need to)
87
How HCWs protect themselves from acquiring HSV
Adhering to standard precautions and handwashing before all client contact and by the use of appropriate barriers such as a mask, gloves, or gauze dressing to prevent hand contact with the lesion
88
True or false: Varicella is highly contagious
True
89
The period of communicability for the varicella zoster virus extends from 1 to 2 days before the onset of the _______ through the first ________ days or until all lesions have formed crusts
Rash
4-5
90
VZV is ________ and is known as chickenpox or ________
HHV-3
Shingles
91
Approximately ________% of the population develops the secondary, or reactivation, form of VZV, resulting in herpes zoster or shingles
10-20%
92
Adults older than _____ years and anyone who is ___________ (e.g., HIV infection, chemotherapy, corticosteroid therapy, or cancer) are at greatest risk for varicella
50
Immunocompromised
93
An acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Herpesvirus type 4
94
Herpesvirus type 4 primarily affects this population
Young adults and children
95
Infection with EBV is common in the US, with _____% of people between the ages of 35 and 40 years having been infected
95%
96
True or false: When an adolescent or young adult becomes infected with EBV, 35% to 50% of the time the individual will develop infectious mononucleosis. Both genders are affected equally.
True
97
Transmission of herpesvirus type 4 is through contact with...
Oral secretions
Blood
Transplanted organs infected with the virus
98
True or false: Infectious mononucleosis is not contagious before symptoms develop until the fever subsides and the oral and pharyngeal lesions disappear
False
(probably)
99
True or false: The person with infectious mononucleosis should be cautioned against engaging in excessive activity, especially contact sports, which could result in splenic rupture or lowered resistance to infection
True
100
The guideline for infectious mononucleosis is appropriate for a period of at least...
1 month
101
__________ causes annual outbreaks of pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and tracheobronchitis in infants and very young children and is the main cause of hospitalization for a respiratory illness in this group
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
102
Usually people shed RSV for 3-8 days, but young infants may shed the virus for as long as...
3-4 weeks
103
True or false: Rapid diagnosis of RSV may be made by viral antigen identification of nasal washings using an ELISA or immunofluorescent assay (IFA)
True
104
Treatment for RSV consists of...
Hydration
Humidification of inspired air
Ventilatory support
105
Influenza is caused by the _______ and occurs in epidemics between late ______ and early _______
Influenza viruses A or B
Fall, spring
106
True or false: The onset of influenza is usually abrupt, with high fever, chills, malaise, muscular aching, headache, sore throat, nasal congestion, and nonproductive cough
True
107
The fever (influenza) lasts about 1-7 days but it is usually _____ days
3-5
108
Influenza can progress rapidly in the first few days, causing ________ and _________, particularly in high-risk groups
Pneumonia
Respiratory failure
109
True or false: Secondary bacterial pneumonia may also develop after the first few days of influenza, usually 5 to 10 days after the onset of viral symptoms, particularly in the older adult
True
110
An early diagnosis of influenza can result in the use of ___________ to minimize the intensity and duration of symptoms, especially in those at high risk for complications
Antivirals
111
True or false: In younger patients, rare inflammatory syndromes are sometimes associated with COVID-19
True
112
A viral disorder generally characterized by high FEVER; COUGH; DYSPNEA; CHILLS; PERSISTENT TREMOR; MUSCLE PAIN; HEADACHE; SORE THROAT; a new loss of taste and/or smell (see AGEUSIA and ANOSMIA) and other symptoms of a VIRAL PNEUMONIA
COVID-19
113
True or false: In all cases, a myriad of coagulopathy associated symptoms often correlating with COVID-19 severity is seen (e.g., BLOOD COAGULATION; THROMBOSIS; ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME; SEIZURES; HEART ATTACK; STROKE; multiple CEREBRAL INFARCTIONS; KIDNEY FAILURE; catastrophic ANTIPHOSPHOLIPID ANTIBODY SYNDROME and/or DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION)
False
(severe cases)
114
True or false: Viral resistance, like bacterial resistance, is not a growing concern
False
(it is)
115
True or false: Viruses can mutate and alter their structural or functional characteristics so that previously effective drugs will be unable to control specific viral infections adequately
True
116
Efforts should be made to limit the __________ or ____________ use of antiviral drugs
Indiscriminate
Inappropriate
117
True or false: Viral infections may produce pain and other symptoms that can be treated by PT
True
118
True or false: Currently, many drugs can effectively resolve viral infections in humans
False
(only a few)
119
__________ research is a very dynamic and rapidly changing area of pharmacology
Antiviral drug
