Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Neuro Part 2 > Week 7.1 > Flashcards

Week 7.1 Flashcards

(64 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the three embryonic sources for eye development?

A
  • surface ectoderm
  • neuroectoderm
  • mesenchyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does the lens placode form?

A

induction of the surface ectoderm by the underlying optic vesicle (neuroectoderm of forebrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is anophthalmia?

A

the absence of an eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which genes play significant roles in anophthalmia and microphthalmia?

A

PAX6 and SOX2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are hyaloid vessels?

A

those that supply blood to the developing retina and lens, ultimately giving rise to the central artery and vein of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is coloboma?

A

failure of the choroid fissure to close, leaving a key hole deformity in which the iris isn’t fully formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What gene is implicated in those with coloboma?

A

PAX2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the optic lens form?

A

proliferation of cells on the posterior wall of the surface ectoderm-derived lens placode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes congenital cataracts?

A

failure of the lens to clear out properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The external layer of the eye includes what?

A

the sclera and cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The middle layer of the eye includes what?

A

the choroid, ciliary body, and iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does the sclera develop?

A

from mesenchyme surrounding the optic cup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the iridopupillary membrane?

A

the anterior 1/5 of the choroid that separates the anterior and posterior chambers during development but should degenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A child presents with a sort of web like structure covering the pupil. What’s a likely diagnosis?

A

persistence of the iridopupillary membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two layers of the developing retina?

A

pigment epithelium and neuroepithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The dilator and sphincter muscles of the pupils are derived from what embryonic tissue?

A

neuroectoderm of the optic cup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is aniridia?

A

absence of the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The external ear develops from what?

A

the first and second bronchial arches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The external auditory meatus develops from what?

A

the first branchial cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The middle ear auricles develops from what?

A
  • malleus and incus: 1st branchial arch

- stapes: 2nd branchial arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The inner ear develops from what?

A

the otic vesicle from the surface ectoderm near the hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What part of the ear develops from the first branchial pouch?

A

the lining of the tympanic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Auricular abnormalities are often due to what?

A

problems with neural crest migration (i.e. branchial arch syndromes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The otic vesicle has what two portions?

A

the utricular and saccular portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The saccular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to what?
the saccule and cochlear duct
26
How do the semicircular canals form?
the utriclar portion of the otic vesicle flattens and then selective PCD leaves three rings
27
How does the perilymphatic space of the inner ear form?
from vacuolization of the cartilaginous otic capsule
28
The utricular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to what?
- utricle - semicircular canals - endolymphatic duct and sac
29
The saccular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to what?
- saccule | - cochlear duct
30
What is the danger of a cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy?
congenital deafness
31
What is the danger of a rubella infection during pregnancy?
congenital deafness
32
The pinna is formed from what earlier structures?
the six hillocks of his
33
The 1st, 2nd, and 3rd hillocks of his give rise to what portions fo the pinna?
- 1st: tragus - 2nd: crus of helix - 3rd: helix
34
The external auditory meatus has what two segments?
- inner 2/3 are bony | - outer 1/3 is cartilagenous
35
What part of the external auditory meatus forms wax?
the outer 1/3
36
How does the tympanic membrane form?
- inner mucosal layer from endoderm (pouch) - middle fibers layer from mesoderm (arch) - outer epithelial layer form ectoderm (groove)
37
What is the pars tensa?
the majority of the tympanic membrane and constituted by three layers
38
What is the pars flaccida?
a minor region of the tympanic membrane formed by just two layers
39
Where is the pars flaccida?
the most superior portion of the tympanic membrane
40
What is a pneumatic otoscope used for?
to apply negative or positive pressure to the external auditory meatus in order to asses the flexibility of the tympanic membrane
41
What is a pre-auricular pit?
a cyst or sinus formed in front of the ear because the epithelium between two hillocks of his failed to resorb
42
What is microtia?
the most common dysmorphology of the outer ear
43
What is atresia?
the absence of an external auditory meatus
44
What is otitis external?
- aka swimmers ear | - inflammation of the ear due to constant wetness
45
How does the eustachian tube affect pathology of the middle ear?
it is responsible for ventilating and draining the middle ear, so failure can cause problems
46
What is serous otitis?
fluid behind the tympanic membrane
47
What is acute otitis?
a middle ear infection
48
What is cholesteatoma?
an accumulation of epithelium within the middle ear caused by atelectasis that will eventually erode the ossicles
49
What is treacher collins?
a first arch anomaly characterized by mid face and mandibular hypoplasia, cleft palate, microtia, and atresia
50
What are the features of Pierre Robin Sequence?
- micrognathia - glossoptosis - cleft palat
51
How are first arch anomalies treated?
initially just maintain breathing and feeding
52
What is mandibular distraction?
a treatment for pierre robin sequence in which the jaw is pulled and stretched forward
53
What is hemifacial microsomia?
a first and second arch anomaly characterized by malformed auricle, ossicular malformations, facial muscle asymmetry, and hyoid malformation
54
What is a double aortic arch anomaly?
a fourth arch anomaly in which the right dorsal aorta fails to regress
55
What are the symptoms of a double aortic arch?
- cyanosis - wheezing - stridor - repeat lower airway infections
56
What is a pulmonary artery sling?
a sixth branchial arch anomaly characterized by respiratory and feeding difficulties
57
How will a first pouch anomaly likely present?
with recurrent ear infections due to eustachian tube dysfunction
58
What is a thyroglossal duct cyst?
a midline cyst caused by 3rd or 4th pouch anomalies
59
A lingual thyroid is an anomaly of what earlier structure?
the third or fourth pouch
60
What are two possible third or fourth pouch anomalies?
- thryglossal duct cyst | - lingual thyroid
61
What is DiGeorge syndrome?
deficiency of thyroid, thymus, and parathyroid glands
62
What are the features of DiGeorge syndrome?
- cardiac anomalies - abnormal facies - thymic aplasia - cleft palatee - hypocalcemia
63
What are type 1 and type 2 branchial cleft anomalies?
- type 1: sinus or cyst anterior to ear canal that is lateral to CN VII - type 2: sinus or cyst at the angle of the mandible that ends in the ear canal and can be lateral or medial to CN VII
64
What is the most common branchial anomaly?
a second branchial cleft anomaly that presents as a painless cyst in the anterior triangle of the neck

Neuro Part 2 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions