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Week Two Flashcards

1
Q

Neurons conduct an action potential down the axon and transmit information across the synapse to the post-synaptic cell. This information is received by:
A) The cell body
B) Dendrites
C) Receptors
D) Axons

A

Correct Answer: C) Receptors
Rationale: The post-synaptic cell receives signals through receptors that bind neurotransmitters released into the synaptic cleft.

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2
Q

Drugs can influence neuronal activity by impacting either:
A) Axonal conduction or synaptic transmission
B) Synapse reuptake or synapse breakdown
C) Dendritic growth or axonal shrinkage
D) Myelination or synaptic pruning

A

Answer: A) Axonal conduction or synaptic transmission

Rationale: Drugs may affect how action potentials are conducted down the axon (axonal conduction) or how neurotransmitters are transmitted across the synapse (synaptic transmission).

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3
Q

When a drug increases activation of a receptor, it likely:
A) Blocks the neurotransmitter
B) Decreases receptor sensitivity
C) Mimics or enhances the neurotransmitter
D) Inhibits neurotransmitter release

A

Answer: C) Mimics or enhances the neurotransmitter
Rationale: Drugs that increase receptor activation either mimic the neurotransmitter or enhance its action, leading to increased receptor activity.

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4
Q

A drug that decreases activation of a receptor might work by:
A) Inhibiting receptor binding
B) Increasing neurotransmitter production
C) Mimicking a decrease in neurotransmitter activity
D) Facilitating synaptic transmission

A

Answer: C) Mimicking a decrease in neurotransmitter activity
Rationale: Drugs that decrease receptor activation often act as antagonists, either blocking the receptor or mimicking a reduction in neurotransmitter availability or activity.

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5
Q

Receptor selectivity refers to the ability of drugs to:
A) Affect all biological processes equally
B) Target specific disease processes while leaving others unaffected
C) Increase the number of available receptors
D) Completely inhibit all receptor activity

A

Answer: B) Target specific disease processes while leaving others unaffected
Rationale: Receptor selectivity allows drugs to manipulate specific biological processes without affecting others, reducing side effects and increasing therapeutic effectiveness.

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6
Q

If drugs acted on the same receptor type for all processes, what would be the likely outcome?
A) Improved efficacy for all diseases
B) Targeted therapy for specific conditions
C) Widespread effects on multiple processes
D) Reduced drug interactions

A

Answer: C) Widespread effects on multiple processes
Rationale: If drugs did not have different receptor types to target, they would indiscriminately affect all processes mediated by that receptor, leading to unwanted side effects.

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7
Q

The presence of different receptors can:
A) Increase the dosage of drugs
B) Create drugs that can cure all diseases
C) Selectively manipulate specific processes
D) Avoid the use of any medications

A

Answer: C) Selectively manipulate specific processes
Rationale: Different receptors enable the design of drugs that can specifically target and alter certain physiological processes without impacting others, improving treatment precision.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about receptor selectivity is true?
A) All drugs work on every type of receptor in the body.
B) Receptor selectivity enhances the therapeutic index of a drug.
C) Lack of receptor selectivity results in fewer side effects.
D) Receptor selectivity is irrelevant to drug design.

A

Answer: B) Receptor selectivity enhances the therapeutic index of a drug.
Rationale: Receptor selectivity improves the therapeutic index by allowing drugs to effectively treat specific conditions while minimizing adverse effects on other processes.

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9
Q

Most structures in the body receive innervation from both the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS), except for which of the following?
A) Heart
B) Digestive organs
C) Adrenal medulla
D) Sweat glands

A

Answer: C) Adrenal medulla
Rationale: The adrenal medulla is innervated solely by the sympathetic nervous system, which stimulates the release of hormones like adrenaline.

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10
Q

The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) often have what type of relationship?
A) They work in harmony to enhance the same processes.
B) They independently regulate all bodily functions.
C) They oppose each other to maintain homeostasis.
D) They exclusively enhance physiological processes.

A

Answer: C) They oppose each other to maintain homeostasis.
Rationale: The SNS and PSNS often have opposing effects on the same organs, which helps regulate physiological processes and maintain homeostasis.

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11
Q

Regulation of physiological processes is often achieved through:
A) Continuous electrical stimulation
B) Hormonal feedback loops only
C) Feedback loops involving receptors like baroreceptors
D) Sole reliance on the endocrine system

A

Regulation of physiological processes is often achieved through:
A) Continuous electrical stimulation
B) Hormonal feedback loops only
C) Feedback loops involving receptors like baroreceptors
D) Sole reliance on the endocrine system

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12
Q

Autonomic tone refers to the “baseline” level of activity in the autonomic nervous system. Which branch is primarily responsible for managing this tone?
A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Central nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system
D) Somatic nervous system

A

Answer: C) Parasympathetic nervous system
Rationale: The PSNS often manages the autonomic tone, maintaining a baseline level of activity that promotes restful and restorative functions in the body.

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT maintained by the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)?
A) Heart rate reduction
B) Gastrointestinal motility enhancement
C) Blood vessel constriction
D) Salivation

A

Answer: C) Blood vessel constriction
Rationale: Blood vessel constriction is primarily mediated by the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), while the PSNS generally promotes vasodilation and relaxation of blood vessels.

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14
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS), how many neurons are typically involved in the pathway from the spinal cord to the target organs?
A) One neuron
B) Two neurons
C) Three neurons
D) Four neurons

A

Answer: B) Two neurons
Rationale: The PSNS utilizes a two-neuron pathway, consisting of a preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic neuron, with a synapse occurring at a ganglion.

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15
Q

he junction between the two neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway is known as:
A) Synapse
B) Dendrite
C) Soma
D) Axon

A

Answer: A) Synapse
Rationale: The junction where the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons meet is called a synapse, specifically at a ganglion in the PSNS.

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16
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), what unique pathway is present that is not found in the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) Direct connection to the spinal cord
B) A pathway involving the adrenal medulla
C) Multiple synapses in the ganglia
D) One-neuron pathway

A

Answer: B) A pathway involving the adrenal medulla
Rationale: The SNS has a unique pathway that includes the adrenal medulla, which acts as a postganglionic neuron, releasing hormones like epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream.

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the somatic nervous system?
A) It utilizes two neurons to communicate with organs.
B) It involves a ganglion between the spinal cord and target organs.
C) It only has one neuron in its pathway.
D) It can have multiple sites of action for drugs.

A

Correct Answer: C) It only has one neuron in its pathway.
Rationale: The somatic nervous system consists of a single neuron that directly innervates skeletal muscle, unlike the ANS, which involves multiple neurons and ganglia.

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18
Q

When discussing drug action in the somatic nervous system, what is true regarding the sites of action?
A) Drugs have multiple sites of action.
B) Drugs have a single site of action.
C) Drugs can act on both preganglionic and postganglionic neurons.
D) Drug action is not relevant in the somatic nervous system.

A

Answer: B) Drugs have a single site of action.
Rationale: In the somatic nervous system, drugs typically have one site of action, as they interact with the motor neurons that directly control muscle contractions.

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19
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by all preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)?
A) Norepinephrine (NE)
B) Epinephrine (EPI)
C) Acetylcholine (ACh)
D) Dopamine

A

Answer: C) Acetylcholine (ACh)
Rationale: Acetylcholine (ACh) is the neurotransmitter released by all preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the PSNS.

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20
Q

What neurotransmitter do all preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) release?
A) Norepinephrine (NE)
B) Epinephrine (EPI)
C) Acetylcholine (ACh)
D) Serotonin

A

Answer: C) Acetylcholine (ACh)
Rationale: All preganglionic neurons of the SNS release acetylcholine (ACh) before synapsing with postganglionic neurons.

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21
Q

Most postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) release which of the following neurotransmitters?
A) Acetylcholine (ACh)
B) Dopamine
C) Epinephrine (EPI)
D) Norepinephrine (NE)

A

Answer: D) Norepinephrine (NE)
Rationale: Most postganglionic neurons of the SNS release norepinephrine (NE), except those that innervate sweat glands.

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22
Q

Which neurotransmitter is specifically released by the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream?
A) Acetylcholine (ACh)
B) Norepinephrine (NE)
C) Epinephrine (EPI)
D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

A

Answer: C) Epinephrine (EPI)
Rationale: The adrenal medulla releases epinephrine (EPI), which acts as a hormone and neurotransmitter in the body.

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?
A) All postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine (ACh).
B) Postganglionic neurons that innervate sweat glands release norepinephrine (NE).
C) Preganglionic neurons release epinephrine (EPI).
D) Most postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine (NE), except those for sweat glands.

A

Answer: D) Most postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine (NE), except those for sweat glands.
Rationale: Most postganglionic neurons in the SNS release norepinephrine (NE), while postganglionic neurons that target sweat glands release acetylcholine (ACh).

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24
Q

Where are Nicotinic N receptors primarily located?
A) On the surface of skeletal muscle cells
B) In the cell bodies of post-ganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)
C) In the brain only
D) On the adrenal cortex

A

Answer: B) In the cell bodies of post-ganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)
Rationale: Nicotinic N receptors are found on the cell bodies of post-ganglionic neurons in both the SNS and PSNS, facilitating ganglionic transmission.

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25
What is one of the primary functions of Nicotinic N receptors? A) Inhibit neurotransmitter release B) Promote ganglionic transmission in all ganglia of the SNS and PSNS C) Decrease heart rate D) Cause bronchoconstriction
Answer: B) Promote ganglionic transmission in all ganglia of the SNS and PSNS Rationale: Nicotinic N receptors facilitate ganglionic transmission in both the SNS and PSNS, ensuring effective communication between pre- and post-ganglionic neurons.
26
Nicotinic N receptors also promote the release of which neurotransmitter from the adrenal medulla? A) Acetylcholine (ACh) B) Norepinephrine (NE) C) Epinephrine (EPI) D) Serotonin
Answer: C) Epinephrine (EPI) Rationale: Activation of Nicotinic N receptors promotes the release of epinephrine (EPI) from the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream.
27
The stimulation of Nicotinic N receptors can lead to which of the following outcomes? A) Decreased sympathetic activity B) Enhanced ganglionic transmission and increased adrenal hormone release C) Blockade of parasympathetic activity D) Inhibition of skeletal muscle contraction
Answer: B) Enhanced ganglionic transmission and increased adrenal hormone release Rationale: The activation of Nicotinic N receptors enhances ganglionic transmission and promotes the release of adrenal hormones like epinephrine.
28
Which of the following best describes the role of Nicotinic N receptors in the autonomic nervous system? A) They inhibit neuronal communication. B) They facilitate communication between pre- and post-ganglionic neurons. C) They only affect the sympathetic nervous system. D) They are primarily located in the peripheral nervous system.
Answer: B) They facilitate communication between pre- and post-ganglionic neurons. Rationale: Nicotinic N receptors are crucial for promoting ganglionic transmission in both the SNS and PSNS, facilitating effective neuronal communication.
29
What are the Cholinergic receptor subtypes?
Nicotinic M Nicotinic N Muscarinic
30
What can activate all three subtypes of cholinergic receptors?
Acetylcholine ACh
31
Where are Nicotinic M receptors primarily located? A) Heart tissue B) Smooth muscle C) Skeletal muscle D) Neurons in the brain
Answer: C) Skeletal muscle Rationale: Nicotinic M receptors are specifically located at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle, where they mediate muscle contraction.
32
What is the primary function of Nicotinic M receptors? A) Inhibition of skeletal muscle contraction B) Stimulation of cardiac output C) Contraction of skeletal muscle D) Regulation of smooth muscle tone
Answer: C) Contraction of skeletal muscle Rationale: The primary function of Nicotinic M receptors is to mediate the contraction of skeletal muscle upon activation by acetylcholine.
33
Activation of Nicotinic M receptors leads to which of the following outcomes? A) Relaxation of skeletal muscle B) Increased secretion of epinephrine C) Initiation of skeletal muscle contraction D) Inhibition of ganglionic transmission
Answer: C) Initiation of skeletal muscle contraction Rationale: When Nicotinic M receptors are activated by acetylcholine, they cause the contraction of skeletal muscle fibers.
34
What type of neurotransmitter primarily activates Nicotinic M receptors? A) Norepinephrine B) Epinephrine C) Acetylcholine D) Dopamine
Answer: C) Acetylcholine Rationale: Nicotinic M receptors are activated by acetylcholine, which is released from motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction.
35
Which of the following best describes the role of Nicotinic M receptors in muscle physiology? A) They inhibit muscle contraction to allow for relaxation. B) They facilitate voluntary muscle contractions by responding to neural signals. C) They primarily mediate involuntary muscle contractions. D) They are involved in the release of hormones from the adrenal gland.
Answer: B) They facilitate voluntary muscle contractions by responding to neural signals. Rationale: Nicotinic M receptors are essential for the contraction of skeletal muscle, enabling voluntary movements by responding to signals from motor neurons.
36
What are the adrenergic receptor subtypes?
Alpha 1 Alpha 2 Beta 1 Beta 2 Dopamine
37
Where are Alpha 1 receptors primarily located? A) Heart, lungs, and brain B) Eyes, blood vessels, male sex organs, prostate capsule, and bladder C) Adrenal glands and pancreas D) Skeletal muscle and liver
Answer: B) Eyes, blood vessels, male sex organs, prostate capsule, and bladder Rationale: Alpha 1 receptors are primarily found in these tissues, where they play a key role in various physiological responses.
38
Which of the following is a function of Alpha 1 receptors? A) Decrease heart rate B) Dilation of blood vessels C) Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure D) Relaxation of the bladder
Answer: C) Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure Rationale: Activation of Alpha 1 receptors causes vasoconstriction, which leads to increased blood pressure
39
What effect does the activation of Alpha 1 receptors have on the pupil? A) Constriction of the pupil B) Dilation of the pupil C) No effect on the pupil D) Blurred vision
Answer: B) Dilation of the pupil Rationale: Activation of Alpha 1 receptors causes dilation of the pupil (mydriasis) as part of the body's response to various stimuli.
40
Which physiological response is associated with Alpha 1 receptor activation in male sex organs? A) Erection B) Ejaculation C) Inhibition of sexual function D) Dilation of blood vessels
Answer: B) Ejaculation Rationale: Activation of Alpha 1 receptors in male sex organs leads to ejaculation as part of the physiological sexual response.
41
What effect does Alpha 1 receptor activation have on the bladder? A) Relaxation of the bladder wall B) Contraction of the bladder neck C) Increased urine production D) Inhibition of bladder contractions
Answer: B) Contraction of the bladder neck Rationale: Alpha 1 receptors facilitate the contraction of the bladder neck, which contributes to urine retention.
42
Where are Alpha 2 receptors primarily located? A) Postsynaptic sites in the brain B) Blood vessels and smooth muscle C) Nerve terminals (always presynaptic) D) Adrenal medulla
Answer: C) Nerve terminals (always presynaptic) Rationale: Alpha 2 receptors are primarily located on presynaptic nerve terminals, where they play a role in regulating neurotransmitter release.
43
What is the primary function of Alpha 2 receptors? A) Promote neurotransmitter release B) Inhibit neurotransmitter release C) Increase heart rate D) Facilitate smooth muscle contraction
Answer: B) Inhibit neurotransmitter release Rationale: Activation of Alpha 2 receptors leads to the inhibition of neurotransmitter release, thereby modulating neuronal signaling.
44
Activation of Alpha 2 receptors results in which of the following effects? A) Increased sympathetic nervous system activity B) Decreased sympathetic nervous system activity C) Vasodilation and increased blood flow D) Enhanced release of catecholamines from the adrenal gland
Answer: B) Decreased sympathetic nervous system activity Rationale: When Alpha 2 receptors are activated, they inhibit the release of norepinephrine, leading to a decrease in sympathetic nervous system activity.
45
Which of the following statements is true regarding Alpha 2 receptors? A) They are only found on postsynaptic neurons. B) They play a role in increasing neurotransmitter release. C) They are involved in feedback inhibition of neurotransmitter release. D) They directly stimulate muscle contraction.
Answer: C) They are involved in feedback inhibition of neurotransmitter release. Rationale: Alpha 2 receptors participate in a feedback mechanism that inhibits neurotransmitter release, thus helping to regulate synaptic transmission.
46
Where are Beta 1 receptors primarily located? A) Lungs and blood vessels B) Heart and kidney C) Liver and pancreas D) Skeletal muscle and gastrointestinal tract
Answer: B) Heart and kidney Rationale: Beta 1 receptors are primarily found in the heart and kidneys, where they play crucial roles in cardiovascular function.
47
What is the primary function of Beta 1 receptors in the heart? A) Decrease heart rate B) Increase heart rate and force of contraction C) Promote vasodilation D) Inhibit cardiac impulse transmission
Answer: B) Increase heart rate and force of contraction Rationale: Activation of Beta 1 receptors in the heart increases both heart rate and the force of contraction, enhancing cardiac output.
48
How do Beta 1 receptors affect cardiac impulse conduction? A) They slow down the conduction of electrical impulses. B) They have no effect on impulse conduction. C) They increase the speed of cardiac impulse conduction. D) They inhibit impulse conduction in the atria.
Answer: C) They increase the speed of cardiac impulse conduction. Rationale: Activation of Beta 1 receptors increases the speed of cardiac impulse conduction, which helps regulate heart rhythm.
49
What effect do Beta 1 receptors have on the kidneys? A) Inhibition of renin release B) Promotion of vasodilation C) Release of renin into the blood D) Decrease in urine production
C) Release of renin into the blood Rationale: Beta 1 receptors in the kidneys stimulate the release of renin, which is involved in regulating blood pressure through vasoconstriction.
50
Which physiological effect is associated with Beta 1 receptor activation in the kidneys? A) Decreased blood pressure due to increased blood flow B) Increased blood pressure due to vasoconstriction C) Enhanced filtration rate in the nephron D) Inhibition of aldosterone secretion
Answer: B) Increased blood pressure due to vasoconstriction Rationale: The release of renin from the kidneys leads to vasoconstriction, which helps increase blood pressure.
51
Where are Beta 2 receptors primarily located? A) Heart and kidneys B) Lungs, uterus, arterioles of heart/lung/skeletal muscles, and liver C) Gastrointestinal tract and pancreas D) Brain and spinal cord
Answer: B) Lungs, uterus, arterioles of heart/lung/skeletal muscles, and liver Rationale: Beta 2 receptors are predominantly found in these areas, where they exert significant physiological effects.
52
What effect do Beta 2 receptors have on the lungs? A) Bronchial constriction B) Bronchial dilation C) Increased mucus secretion D) Decreased respiratory rate
Answer: B) Bronchial dilation Rationale: Activation of Beta 2 receptors in the lungs leads to bronchial dilation, improving airflow and oxygen delivery.
53
Which of the following is a function of Beta 2 receptors in the uterus? A) Contraction of uterine smooth muscle B) Relaxation of uterine smooth muscle C) Increased uterine blood flow D) Stimulation of labor
Answer: B) Relaxation of uterine smooth muscle Rationale: Beta 2 receptor activation in the uterus promotes relaxation of smooth muscle, which can help delay premature labor.
54
What physiological response occurs when Beta 2 receptors are activated in arterioles? A) Vasoconstriction B) Vasodilation C) Increased blood flow to the brain D) Decreased blood flow to the muscles
Answer: B) Vasodilation Rationale: Activation of Beta 2 receptors in arterioles leads to vasodilation, which reduces resistance and increases blood flow to the tissues.
55
Which metabolic effect is associated with Beta 2 receptor activation in the liver and skeletal muscle? A) Glycogenesis B) Lipolysis C) Glycogenolysis D) Protein synthesis
Answer: C) Glycogenolysis Rationale: Beta 2 receptor activation stimulates glycogenolysis, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose, which increases energy availability during stress or exercise.
56
How do Beta 2 receptors affect skeletal muscle? A) They cause muscle relaxation. B) They promote muscle contraction. C) They inhibit muscle activity. D) They have no effect on skeletal muscle.
Answer: B) They promote muscle contraction. Rationale: Beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle facilitate contraction, contributing to enhanced muscle performance.
57
What is the primary function of Dopamine in the kidneys? A) Constrict renal blood vessels to decrease perfusion B) Dilate renal blood vessels to increase perfusion C) Promote urine production D) Inhibit renin release
Answer: B) Dilate renal blood vessels to increase perfusion Rationale: Dopamine causes dilation of renal blood vessels, which increases blood flow (perfusion) to the kidneys, enhancing their function.
58
How does Dopamine affect renal blood flow? A) Decreases renal blood flow through vasoconstriction B) Increases renal blood flow through vasodilation C) Has no significant effect on renal blood flow D) Alters renal blood flow only during exercise
Answer: B) Increases renal blood flow through vasodilation Rationale: Dopamine acts on renal blood vessels to promote vasodilation, thereby increasing blood flow to the kidneys.
59
Which of the following effects does Dopamine NOT have on the kidneys? A) Promoting renal perfusion B) Stimulating urine production C) Constricting renal blood vessels D) Enhancing glomerular filtration rate
Answer: C) Constricting renal blood vessels Rationale: Dopamine does not cause constriction of renal blood vessels; instead, it dilates them to enhance blood flow.
60
What is the definition of an agonist? A) A drug that blocks receptor activity B) A drug that binds to a receptor and causes a reaction similar to the normal transmitter C) A substance that enhances the breakdown of neurotransmitters D) A drug that has no effect on receptor function
Answer: B) A drug that binds to a receptor and causes a reaction similar to the normal transmitter Rationale: An agonist mimics the action of the natural transmitter by binding to the same receptor and triggering a similar response.
61
Which of the following best describes the action of an agonist? A) Inhibits the receptor's function B) Binds to the receptor but produces no effect C) Binds to the receptor and activates it D) Decreases the concentration of neurotransmitters
Answer: C) Binds to the receptor and activates it Rationale: Agonists activate receptors, leading to physiological responses similar to those produced by the natural neurotransmitter.
62
What is the primary effect of an agonist on a receptor? A) It inhibits the receptor activity. B) It prevents the natural ligand from binding. C) It mimics the natural ligand's effect. D) It competes with other agonists for receptor binding.
Answer: C) It mimics the natural ligand's effect. Rationale: Agonists mimic the effects of the natural ligand by activating the receptor, producing a similar biological response.
63
What is the definition of an antagonist? A) A drug that mimics the action of the normal transmitter B) A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents the normal transmitter's action C) A substance that increases neurotransmitter release D) A drug that enhances receptor activation
Answer: B) A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents the normal transmitter's action Rationale: Antagonists block the action of the normal transmitter by binding to the receptor and preventing its activation.
64
Which of the following would be considered an antagonist? A) A medication that increases blood pressure B) A drug that blocks histamine receptors to reduce allergic reactions C) A compound that enhances neurotransmitter effects D) A drug that stimulates pain relief
Answer: B) A drug that blocks histamine receptors to reduce allergic reactions Rationale: Antihistamines act as antagonists by binding to histamine receptors and preventing histamine from exerting its effects.
65
What is the primary mechanism of action of Bethanechol? A) Binds irreversibly to nicotinic receptors B) Inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors C) Binds reversibly to muscarinic cholinergic receptors and activates them D) Blocks adrenergic receptors
Answer: C) Binds reversibly to muscarinic cholinergic receptors and activates them Rationale: Bethanechol acts as a muscarinic agonist, activating muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
66
Which of the following pharmacologic effects is NOT associated with Bethanechol? A) Contraction of the detrusor muscle B) Bronchodilation C) Miosis (pupil constriction) D) Increased salivation
Answer: B) Bronchodilation Rationale: Bethanechol can cause bronchoconstriction, not bronchodilation, due to its action on muscarinic receptors in the lungs.
67
What is the duration of action for Bethanechol when taken orally? A) Approximately 15-30 minutes B) Approximately 30-60 minutes C) Approximately 1-2 hours D) Approximately 2-4 hours
Answer: B) Approximately 30-60 minutes Rationale: The duration of action for orally administered Bethanechol is about 1 hour.
68
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Bethanechol? A) Urinary retention B) Bladder obstruction C) Gastroesophageal reflux D) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B) Bladder obstruction Rationale: Bethanechol is contraindicated in patients with bladder obstruction because it may worsen the condition by increasing voiding pressure.
69
Which adverse effect is associated with Bethanechol? A) Tachycardia B) Hypotension C) Urinary retention D) Decreased salivation
Answer: B) Hypotension Rationale: Bethanechol can cause hypotension as an adverse effect, along with bradycardia and other gastrointestinal effects.
70
Which effect does Bethanechol have on the heart? A) Increases heart rate B) Causes arrhythmias C) Decreases heart rate (bradycardia) D) Causes hypertension
Answer: C) Decreases heart rate (bradycardia) Rationale: Bethanechol can lead to bradycardia as it stimulates muscarinic receptors in the heart.
71
Bethanechol is used to counteract which of the following conditions? A) Constipation B) Urinary retention C) Hypertension D) Asthma
Answer: B) Urinary retention Rationale: Bethanechol increases voiding pressure, making it useful in treating urinary retention.
72
What is the primary mechanism of action of Bethanechol? A) Inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors B) Binds reversibly to muscarinic cholinergic receptors and activates them C) Blocks nicotinic receptors D) Increases adrenergic receptor activity
Answer: B) Binds reversibly to muscarinic cholinergic receptors and activates them Rationale: Bethanechol acts as a muscarinic agonist, meaning it activates muscarinic receptors.
73
What effect does Bethanechol have on the bladder? A) Inhibits detrusor muscle contraction B) Relaxes the detrusor muscle and contracts the sphincter C) Contracts the detrusor muscle and relaxes the trigone and sphincter D) Contracts both the detrusor muscle and the trigone
Answer: C) Contracts the detrusor muscle and relaxes the trigone and sphincter. Rationale: Bethanechol stimulates muscarinic receptors in the bladder, causing detrusor muscle contraction and sphincter relaxation, promoting urination.
74
Bethanechol has the following cardiovascular effect: A) Hypertension B) Tachycardia C) Bradycardia D) Arrhythmias
Answer: C) Bradycardia Rationale: By stimulating muscarinic receptors in the heart, Bethanechol can slow down heart rate, leading to bradycardia.
75
Which of the following gastrointestinal side effects is associated with Bethanechol? A) Constipation B) Diarrhea and cramping C) Decreased salivation D) Gastrointestinal bleeding
Answer: B) Diarrhea and cramping Rationale: Bethanechol increases gastrointestinal motility, leading to side effects like cramping and diarrhea. It also increases salivation.
76
Which of the following is NOT a pharmacologic effect of Bethanechol? A) Bronchial dilation B) Increased salivation C) Miosis (pupil constriction) D) Contraction of bladder muscles
Answer: A) Bronchial dilation Rationale: Bethanechol can cause bronchoconstriction, not dilation, due to its action on muscarinic receptors in the lungs.
77
What ocular effect does Bethanechol have? A) Pupil dilation (mydriasis) B) Pupil constriction (miosis) C) Loss of near vision D) Decreased tear production
Answer: B) Pupil constriction (miosis) Rationale: Bethanechol causes miosis by stimulating muscarinic receptors in the eye, which results in pupil constriction and improved near vision.
78
Bethanechol is contraindicated in which of the following conditions? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Asthma C) Bladder obstruction D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above Rationale: Bethanechol is contraindicated in patients with bladder obstruction (due to increased voiding pressure), asthma (because of potential bronchoconstriction), and hyperthyroidism (can lead to arrhythmias).
79
What are the adverse cardiovascular effects associated with Bethanechol? A) Bradycardia and hypotension B) Hypertension and tachycardia C) Palpitations and angina D) Arrhythmias and hypertension
Answer: A) Bradycardia and hypotension Rationale: Bethanechol can cause a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) and a drop in blood pressure (hypotension) due to its action on the parasympathetic nervous system.
80
Bethanechol is used to counteract which type of side effects commonly caused by certain drugs, such as antidepressants? A) Anticholinergic B) Adrenergic C) Dopaminergic D) Serotonergic
Answer: A) Anticholinergic Rationale: Bethanechol can be used to counteract the anticholinergic side effects of certain drugs like antidepressants, which may include dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation.
81
Why is Bethanechol contraindicated in patients with asthma? A) It causes vasoconstriction. B) It stimulates bronchial dilation. C) It can cause bronchoconstriction. D) It increases heart rate, worsening asthma symptoms
Answer: C) It can cause bronchoconstriction. Rationale: Bethanechol stimulates muscarinic receptors in the lungs, which can cause bronchoconstriction, making asthma symptoms worse.
82
Which of the following best describes the absorption and onset of action of Bethanechol? A) Rapid absorption with systemic distribution B) Minimal systemic absorption with a 30-60 minute onset C) Slow absorption with a 2-3 hour onset D) No oral absorption, given only intravenously
Answer: B) Minimal systemic absorption with a 30-60 minute onset Rationale: Bethanechol is taken orally, has a 30-60 minute onset, and is minimally absorbed systemically, leading to localized effects.
83
Bethanechol can be used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by: A) Stimulating gastric acid secretion B) Increasing the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter C) Reducing gastrointestinal motility D) Relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter
Answer: B) Increasing the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter Rationale: Bethanechol helps treat GERD by increasing the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter, reducing reflux of gastric contents.
84
Which of the following is a potential side effect of Bethanechol in patients with hyperthyroidism? A) Increased sweating B) Bronchoconstriction C) Tachycardia and arrhythmia D) Increased salivation
Answer: C) Tachycardia and arrhythmia Rationale: In hyperthyroid patients, Bethanechol can increase heart rate, leading to a higher risk of arrhythmias.
85
What effect does Atropine have on the heart? A) It causes bradycardia B) It causes tachycardia C) It has no effect on the heart D) It decreases heart contractility
Answer: B) It causes tachycardia Rationale: Atropine blocks parasympathetic effects on the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (tachycardia). Treats bradycardia.
86
How does Atropine affect the eyes? A) It constricts the pupils, causing miosis B) It relaxes the ciliary muscle, improving near vision C) It causes blurred vision and photophobia D) It increases intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
Answer: C) It causes blurred vision and photophobia Rationale: Atropine blocks muscarinic receptors in the ciliary muscle, impairing near vision and preventing pupil constriction, leading to blurred vision and sensitivity to light (photophobia).
87
Which of the following patients should avoid the use of Atropine? A) A patient with glaucoma B) A patient with bradycardia C) A patient with biliary colic D) A patient with GI hypermotility
Answer: A) A patient with glaucoma Rationale: Atropine can increase intraocular pressure by preventing the drainage of aqueous humor, worsening glaucoma.
88
What is Atropine's effect on the respiratory system? A) It causes bronchoconstriction B) It causes bronchodilation but thickens secretions C) It increases mucus production and bronchodilation D) It has no significant effect on the lungs
Answer: B) It causes bronchodilation but thickens secretions Rationale: Atropine relaxes smooth muscle in the airways (causing bronchodilation), which is beneficial in asthma, but it can also thicken respiratory secretions, which may complicate respiratory conditions.
89
For what reason is Atropine used during eye exams? A) To increase tear production B) To dilate pupils for better examination of the retina C) To reduce intraocular pressure D) To prevent eye infections
Answer: B) To dilate pupils for better examination of the retina Rationale: Atropine is used to dilate the pupils (mydriasis), allowing for better visualization of the retina during an eye exam.
90
Atropine is contraindicated in patients with which of the following conditions due to its effect on smooth muscle? A) Gallstones B) Biliary colic C) Urinary retention D) Constipation
Answer: C) Urinary retention Rationale: Atropine can cause the detrusor muscle in the bladder to relax, leading to urinary retention, making it contraindicated in patients with existing urinary problems.
91
Which of the following adverse effects is caused by Atropine's inhibition of exocrine glands? A) Increased sweating B) Dry mouth C) Increased salivation D) Excessive tear production
Answer: B) Dry mouth Rationale: Atropine inhibits the secretion of exocrine glands, leading to a common side effect of dry mouth (xerostomia).
92
Why should caution be used when administering Atropine to patients taking other anticholinergic medications such as antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants? A) They may reduce Atropine's effectiveness B) They may enhance Atropine's antimuscarinic effects C) They may increase the risk of hypotension D) They may cause an allergic reaction
Answer: B) They may enhance Atropine's antimuscarinic effects Rationale: Other medications with anticholinergic properties can enhance the effects of Atropine, increasing the risk of excessive antimuscarinic side effects like dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention.
93
What is the main mechanism of action of Atropine? A) It activates muscarinic receptors B) It prevents the activation of muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine C) It stimulates adrenergic receptors D) It blocks the release of norepinephrine
Answer: B) It prevents the activation of muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine Rationale: Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist, meaning it blocks acetylcholine from binding to muscarinic receptors, thus preventing parasympathetic effects.
94
In what situation is Atropine used as an antidote? A) For beta-blocker overdose B) For muscarinic agonist poisoning C) For opiate overdose D) For insulin overdose
Answer: B) For muscarinic agonist poisoning Rationale: Atropine is used as an antidote in cases of muscarinic agonist poisoning, as it blocks the effects of excess acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors.
95
How does Scopolamine differ from Atropine in its effect on the central nervous system (CNS)? A) Scopolamine causes CNS excitation, while Atropine causes sedation B) Scopolamine increases CNS sedation more than Atropine C) Scopolamine causes hallucinations at lower doses than Atropine D) Scopolamine has no effect on the CNS
Answer: B) Scopolamine increases CNS sedation more than Atropine Rationale: Scopolamine has a greater sedative effect on the CNS compared to Atropine.
96
What is one of the primary uses of Scopolamine? A) Treatment of bradycardia B) Treatment of asthma C) Prevention of motion sickness D) Relief of urinary retention
Answer: C) Prevention of motion sickness Rationale: Scopolamine is commonly used to suppress nausea and is effective in preventing motion sickness.
97
n which of the following settings is Scopolamine commonly used? A) Emergency treatment for allergic reactions B) Palliative care for symptom relief C) Treating glaucoma D) Treating hypertension
Answer: B) Palliative care for symptom relief Rationale: Scopolamine is often used in palliative care to manage symptoms like nausea and sedation.
98
What additional therapeutic effect does Scopolamine have compared to Atropine? A) It increases heart rate B) It suppresses nausea and vomiting C) It dilates the pupils D) It improves digestion
Answer: B) It suppresses nausea and vomiting Rationale: Scopolamine is effective in preventing and treating nausea, especially in the context of motion sickness.
99
For which of the following conditions is Ipratropium Bromide commonly prescribed? A) Hypertension B) Asthma and COPD C) Diabetes D) Glaucoma
Answer: B) Asthma and COPD Rationale: Ipratropium Bromide is used via inhalation to manage respiratory conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
99
What is the primary method of administration for Ipratropium Bromide (Atrovent)? A) Oral B) Intravenous C) Inhalation D) Subcutaneous
Answer: C) Inhalation Rationale: Ipratropium Bromide is primarily administered via inhalation for the treatment of asthma and COPD.
100
How does Ipratropium Bromide (Atrovent) minimize systemic side effects? A) It is broken down by the liver before it can reach the bloodstream B) It is poorly absorbed when given orally C) It is minimally absorbed into the bloodstream when given via inhalation D) It blocks systemic absorption when given subcutaneously
Answer: C) It is minimally absorbed into the bloodstream when given via inhalation Rationale: Ipratropium Bromide has minimal systemic absorption when administered through inhalation, leading to fewer side effects.
101
Which additional condition, aside from asthma and COPD, can Ipratropium Bromide treat when given nasally? A) Sinusitis B) Rhinitis C) Bronchitis D) Pneumonia
Answer: B) Rhinitis Rationale: Ipratropium Bromide is also used via nasal inhalation to treat rhinitis.

Nurs 3550 (10 decks)

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