xx Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Describe the difference in onset of pre-eclampsia versus HTN of pregnancy

A

HTN presents in the first 20 weeks mother often will have history of (essential) HTN

Pre-eclampsia: de novo HTN and develops after 20 weeks (although occurs due to remodelling of spiral arteries which starts at the beginning of pregnancy)

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2
Q
A

Spiral arteries don’t dilate - causes maternal blood to enter

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3
Q

What is labelled A

Chlamdyia infection
Endometriosis
Fibroids
Gonorrhea infection
Polycysitc ovary syndrome

A

What is labelled A

Chlamdyia infection
Endometriosis
Fibroids
Gonorrhea infection
Polycysitc ovary syndrome

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4
Q

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

A

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

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5
Q

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

A

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

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6
Q

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

A

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

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7
Q

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

A

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

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8
Q

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

A

What is this image

Herpes Simplex 1
Herpes Simplex 2
HPV 6
HPV 16
HPV 18

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9
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 16

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10
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis - penile chancre
HPV 16

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11
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis - Congenital syphilis exhibiting classic skin rash
HPV 16

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12
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 16

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13
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 16

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14
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 16

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15
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 16

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16
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 16

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17
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis - Congenital syphilis - Hutchinson’s teeth
HPV 16

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18
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia - LGV lymphadenopathy
Syphilis
HPV 16

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19
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

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20
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

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21
Q

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

A

What is this image

Gonorrhoea
Herpes simplex 2
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HPV 6

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22
Q

What is the causative agent of this CSF infection? [1]

A

Group B streptococcus

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23
Q

What is the most likely cause of this neonatal pathology? [1]

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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24
Q

A child presents to A&E and becomes siginifcantly unwell and dies. The biopsy reveals viral antigens.

What is the most likely cause of their death? [1]

A histological biopsy from their lung is shown below.

A

RSV - most likely cause of viral pneumonia in neonates

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25
Which SIDS pathology is depicted in this histopathological slide? [1]
Persistent haemopoiesis in the liver
26
What is likely to be the cause of death from this infant? [1]
Unknown - lung petechiae are suggestive of SIDS
27
What is this patient presenting with, based off the ECG? Hypokalaemia Hyperkalaemia Hypothermia Hypocalcaemia Hypercalcaemia
What is this patient presenting with, based off the ECG? Hypokalaemia **Hyperkalaemia** - tall tented T waves Hypothermia Hypocalcaemia Hypercalcaemia
28
Surina Folkes, 22, has a history of Crohn's disease. She presents to her GP with fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion in addition to pins and needles in her fingers. On examination, she is noticed to have pale conjunctiva and atrophic glossitis. As part of her work-up, you send off a set of bloods which reveal the following results: Hb 80 (g/l) MCV 120 (82-100 fl) Ferritin 100 (20-230 ng/ml) What is the most likely diagnosis? Vitamin B12 deficiency Iron deficiency anaemia Anaemia of chronic disease Sideroblastic anaemia Folate deficiency
Surina Folkes, 22, has a history of Crohn's disease. She presents to her GP with fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion in addition to pins and needles in her fingers. On examination, she is noticed to have pale conjunctiva and atrophic glossitis. As part of her work-up, you send off a set of bloods which reveal the following results: Hb 80 (g/l) MCV 120 (82-100 fl) Ferritin 100 (20-230 ng/ml) What is the most likely diagnosis? **Vitamin B12 deficiency** Crohn's disease often affects the terminal ileum where vitamin B12 is absorbed. It may, therefore, cause a deficiency which presents with macrocytic anaemia. Notably, B12 is also important in maintaining the nervous system so a deficiency may present with neurological symptoms. Iron deficiency anaemia Anaemia of chronic disease Sideroblastic anaemia Folate deficiency
29
A 32-year-old lady consults her GP because she is worried that her periods have been very heavy and painful recently. She has a past medical history of type 1 diabetes. She also states that her mood has been low recently and she has put on some weight. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be low? T4 Total iron binding capacity Testosterone TSH Folate
A 32-year-old lady consults her GP because she is worried that her periods have been very heavy and painful recently. She has a past medical history of type 1 diabetes. She also states that her mood has been low recently and she has put on some weight. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be low? **T4** Hypothyroidism is a recognised cause of menorrhagia or abnormally heavy bleeding during menstruation. There is an association between autoimmune hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's thyroiditis) and other autoimmune diseases, such as this lady's Diabetes Type 1. She also has signs suggesting hypothyroidism such as low mood and weight gain. The correct answer is, therefore, T4, which would be low in hypothyroidism. Total iron binding capacity Testosterone TSH Folate
30
This 50-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. Abdominal x-ray shows small bowel dilatation. Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. What is the most likely diagnosis? Amyand hernia De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
This 50-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. Abdominal x-ray shows small bowel dilatation. Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. What is the most likely diagnosis? Amyand hernia De Garengeot hernia **femoral hernia** direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
31
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. What is the most likely diagnosis? Amyand hernia De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
This 50-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. Abdominal x-ray shows small bowel dilatation. Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. What is the most likely diagnosis? Amyand hernia De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia **indirect inguinal hernia** obturator hernia
32
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. The arrow suggests a hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. The arrow suggests a hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia **indirect inguinal hernia** Inferior epigastric vessels medial to hernial neck (arrowhead) are visible obturator hernia
33
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. The arrow suggests a hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. The arrow suggests a hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia **direct inguinal hernia** anguinal hernia (arrow), which passes medially to inferior epigastric ar tery and vein (arrowhead) indirect inguinal herni obturator hernia
34
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. The arrow suggests a hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
Contrast-enhanced CT is performed with selected images shown. The arrow suggests a hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia **direct inguinal hernia** T image shows par t of bladder (arrow) is contained within direct lef t inguinal hernia medial to inferior epigastric neurovascular bundle (arrowhead) indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
35
What type of hernia would it be if came out at the *? De Garengeot hernia femoral hernia direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
What type of hernia would it be if came out at the *? De Garengeot hernia **femoral hernia** direct inguinal hernia indirect inguinal hernia obturator hernia
36
What type of hernia is A? [1]
A: direct hernia
37
What of the following depicts the inferior epigastric arteries Solids arrows Open arrows Curved arrows Arrowheads
What of the following depicts the inferior epigastric arteries Solids arrows **Open arrows** Curved arrows Arrowheads
38
What of the following depicts the deep inguinal ring Solids arrows Open arrows Curved arrows Arrowheads
What of the following depicts the deep inguinal ring Solids arrows Open arrows **Curved arrows** Arrowheads
39
What of the following depicts the deep inguinal ring Solids arrows Open arrows Curved arrows Arrowheads
What of the following depicts the deep inguinal ring Solids arrows Open arrows Curved arrows **Arrowheads**
40
What of the following depicts the inguinal ligament Solids arrows Open arrows Curved arrows Arrowheads
What of the following depicts the inguinal ligament **Solids arrows** Open arrows Curved arrows Arrowheads
41
FYI
42
What pathology is indicated by this imaging? [1]
Sigmoid volvulus Grossly-dilated loop of large bowel has a 'coffee-bean shape' and the descending colon tapers in its inferior portion in keeping with a sigmoid volvulus. Air-fluid levels on erect projection.
43
What pathology is indicated by this imaging? [1]
Sigmoid volvulus Grossly-dilated loop of large bowel has a 'coffee-bean shape' and the descending colon tapers in its inferior portion in keeping with a sigmoid volvulus. Air-fluid levels on erect projection.
44
A 64-year-old lady with a BMI of 37 presents to you complaining of incontinence. She has previously had two children, both were delivered vaginally and the first required forceps due to slow progression of the second stage of labour. She takes no regular medication and has no other significant past medical history. Given her risk factors, which type of urinary incontinence is she most likely to suffer from? Overflow incontinence Mixed inctontinence Urge incontinence Stress incontinence
A 64-year-old lady with a BMI of 37 presents to you complaining of incontinence. She has previously had two children, both were delivered vaginally and the first required forceps due to slow progression of the second stage of labour. She takes no regular medication and has no other significant past medical history. Given her risk factors, which type of urinary incontinence is she most likely to suffer from? Overflow incontinence Mixed inctontinence Urge incontinence **Stress incontinence** Due to her previous forceps delivery, she is most likely to be suffering from stress incontinence. Stress incontinence is the loss of urine associated with a rise in intra abdominal pressure such as coughing or sneezing. Risk factors include increasing age, traumatic vaginal delivery, obesity, and previous pelvic surgery.
45
A 76-year-old gentleman with a history of primary hypothyroidism attends his GP for the first time in many years for a routine check-up. He divulges that he has not been complying fully with his levothyroxine therapy as he sometimes cannot make it to a pharmacy to refill his prescription. Which of the values below is most likely to be low in this gentleman? Mean cell volume (MCV) LDL Cholesterol Core temperature TSH Body mass index
A 76-year-old gentleman with a history of primary hypothyroidism attends his GP for the first time in many years for a routine check-up. He divulges that he has not been complying fully with his levothyroxine therapy as he sometimes cannot make it to a pharmacy to refill his prescription. Which of the values below is most likely to be low in this gentleman? Mean cell volume (MCV) LDL Cholesterol **Core temperature** TSH Body mass index
46
Which of these pathologies would cause a high anion gap metabolic acidosis? Diarrhoea Methanol poisoning Emesis Renal tubular acidosis
Which of these pathologies would cause a high anion gap metabolic acidosis? Diarrhoea **Methanol poisoning** Emesis Renal tubular acidosis
47
A 55-year-old overweight man with a background of type 2 diabetes presents to the GP with tiredness. He is otherwise well and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Bloods reveal an elevated ALT and AST. The rest of his blood results are normal. An ultrasound scan of his liver is reported as 'echobright' with no focal areas of abnormality. What is the most likely diagnosis? Hepatocellular carcinoma Pancreatic cancer Gilbert's syndrome Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease Acute viral hepatitis
A 55-year-old overweight man with a background of type 2 diabetes presents to the GP with tiredness. He is otherwise well and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Bloods reveal an elevated ALT and AST. The rest of his blood results are normal. An ultrasound scan of his liver is reported as 'echobright' with no focal areas of abnormality. What is the most likely diagnosis? Hepatocellular carcinoma Pancreatic cancer Gilbert's syndrome **Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease** This patient is middle aged, overweight and has type 2 diabetes. This puts him at risk of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which causes raised liver transaminases (ALT and AST) and otherwise normal bloods. The only way to distinguish this from alcoholic liver disease is the alcohol intake and, as this patient does not drink, it suggests that NAFLD is the diagnosis. Management is through risk factor modification which would include weight loss. If NAFLD is not managed, it leads to a risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. This gentleman's ultrasound, however, only showed the early 'echobright' stage of NAFLD and no evidence of any masses. Acute viral hepatitis
48
Out of metformin and gliclazide, which causes hypoglycaemia and why? [2]
**gliclazide**: Gliclazide is an insulin secretagogue, increasing the amount of endogenous insulin produced. Sometimes too much Insulin can be secreted, resulting in hypoglycaemia Metformin is an insulin sensitiser and therefore makes the amount of insulin in the body more effective. While metformin reduces average blood sugars it very rarely causes hypoglycaemia. Therefore reducing the offending drug, gliclazide, is the most appropriate management option.
49
IgA nephropathy: - Most patients have a history of an **[]** infection and, either at the onset or within the first 24-48 hours. - There is gross **[]** that lasts for less than three days. The urine is red or brown and there may also be loin pain
Most patients have a history of an **upper respiratory tract infection** and, either at the onset or within the first 24-48 hours, there is **gross haematuria that lasts for less than three days**. The urine is red or brown and there may also be loin pain
50
A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with bilateral flank pain and red coloured urine. Approximately five days ago he experienced a sore throat with nasal discharge. He has no pertinent family medical history and no chronic medical problems. He denies smoking and is an occasional alcohol drinker. Review of systems is unremarkable. His observations are as follows: Blood pressure: 125/65 mmHg Pulse: 88 BPM Temperature: 37.4 °C Respiratory rate: 15 breaths per minute On physical examination, he has bilateral mild flank tenderness but the remainder of the physical examination is normal. Laboratory investigations demonstrate a normal full blood count and chemistry panel. The urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein but shows no signs of white blood cells or nitrites. Further examination of the urine reveals red blood cell casts. A CT KUB scan of the abdomen and pelvis in the emergency department is also normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? IgA nephropathy Alport syndrome Minimal change disease Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis Kidney stones
A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with bilateral flank pain and red coloured urine. Approximately five days ago he experienced a sore throat with nasal discharge. He has no pertinent family medical history and no chronic medical problems. He denies smoking and is an occasional alcohol drinker. Review of systems is unremarkable. His observations are as follows: Blood pressure: 125/65 mmHg Pulse: 88 BPM Temperature: 37.4 °C Respiratory rate: 15 breaths per minute On physical examination, he has bilateral mild flank tenderness but the remainder of the physical examination is normal. Laboratory investigations demonstrate a normal full blood count and chemistry panel. The urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein but shows no signs of white blood cells or nitrites. Further examination of the urine reveals red blood cell casts. A CT KUB scan of the abdomen and pelvis in the emergency department is also normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? **IgA nephropathy** Alport syndrome Minimal change disease Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis Kidney stones
51
A 50-year-old woman undergoing routine health screening is found to have the following liver function results: ALP 210 umol/L ALT 28 iu/L AST 25 iu/L Bilirubin 15 umol/L GGT 110 u/L Albumin 45 g/L She mentions she has been getting increasingly tired over several years but assumed it was due to age and stress. She has no past medical history of note and drinks 6 units of alcohol a week. On examination, there are some excoriations and xanthelasma around her eyes, but nil else of note. What is the most likely diagnosis? Biliary colic Ascending cholangitis Liver cirrhosis Hepatic carcinoma Primary biliary cirrhosis
Biliary colic Ascending cholangitis Liver cirrhosis Hepatic carcinoma **Primary biliary cirrhosis** Ascending cholangitis would typically have fever and pain Malignancy would usually feature weight loss and general malaise Biliary colic would feature pain This leaves two potential diagnoses: primary biliary cirrhosis or liver cirrhosis. There are no risk factors for liver cirrhosis and her LFTs do not show a hepatitic pattern of derangement (AST, ALT, bilirubin, albumin all normal). The raised ALP and GGT suggest a cholestatic picture, making primary biliary cirrhosis (also known as primary biliary cholangitis) the most likely diagnosis
52
What kidney pathology is depicted? [1]
Pancake kidney
53
What kidney pathology is depicted? [1]
Pancake kidney
54
What kidney pathology is depicted? [1]
Horseshoe kidney
55
What kidney pathology is depicted? [1]
Polycystic kidney disease
56
Name the gene that has a defect to cause this pathology [1]
Polycystin gene
57
Abdominal CT showing []
Abdominal CT showing **polycystic kidneys**
58
Label A & B of developing kidneys
A: **mesonephric bud** B: **uteric bud**
59
What type of renal pathology is depicted here? IgA neuropathy Membrane change disease Glomerulonephritis Acute rejection from kidney transplant
What type of renal pathology is depicted here? IgA neuropathy Membrane change disease Glomerulonephritis **Acute rejection from kidney transplant** Focal glomerulitis in active antibody mediated rejection-Banff score g3. Dilated glomerular capillaries are filled with swollen endothelial cells and inflammatory cells (PAS, 200×).
60
Describe what pathology is occuring at the arrow heads in this renal artery
Inflammatory cells (arrows) infiltrate the intima in intimal arteritis, due to **acute cell mediated rejection**