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Year 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

mild COPD

A

> 80 predicted

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2
Q

moderate COPD

A

30-49 predicted

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3
Q

severe COPD

A

<30 predicted

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4
Q

CURB65 criteria

A 
confusion 
urea >7 
RR >30 
BP 90/60 
65 yo
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5
Q

CAP: curb score 0-2

A

amoxicillin/doxycyclin

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6
Q

CAP: curb score 3-5

A

co-amox + clarithromycin/doxy, step down to doxy

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7
Q

HAP; non severe treatment

A

amoxicillin and metronidazole

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8
Q

HAP: serve

A

IV amox, met and gent, step down to coamoxiclav

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9
Q

tapping apex, mid diastolic rumble

A

mitral stenosis

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10
Q

describe aortic regurgitation

A

displaced apex, louder at LL edge on expiration and leaning forward

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11
Q

heaving apex, ejection systolic, radiates to axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

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12
Q

describe aortic stenosis

A

heavy apex, ejection systolic, radiates to carotids

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13
Q

pan systolic murmur, v waves

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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14
Q

inferior MI leads

A

2, 3, aVF

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15
Q

anteroseptal MI leads

A

V1-V4

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16
Q

anterolateral MI leads

A

1, aVL, V4-v6

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17
Q

lateral MI leads

A

1, aVL, V5-V6

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18
Q

heave, pulmonary mid-diastolic murmur

A

atrial septal defect

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19
Q

left to right shunt, loud pan systolic

A

ventricular septal defect

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20
Q

left to right shunt, machine like murmur

A

patent ductus arteriosus

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21
Q

decreased LL pulses

A

coarction of aorta

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22
Q

right to left shunt, boot shaped heart

A

tetralogy of fallot

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23
Q

baby born cyanosed, egg shaped ventricles

A

transposition of great vessels

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24
Q

most common food poisoning

A

campylobacter

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25
bugs that cause outbreaks
e.coli, salmonella
26
viral diarrhoea in children
rotavirus
27
short incubation period
s.aureus, b.cereus
28
medium incubation period
salmonella, c.perfringerens
29
long incubation period
campylobacter, e.coli
30
bloody diarrhoea
shigella, campylobacter, e.coli
31
treatment of IBD
``` 5-ASA steroids immunocompression Anti-TNF surgery ```
32
chrons disease
mouth to anus, skip lesions, fissures, TH1 mediated
33
UC disease
no skip lesions, crypt accesses, TH1 and TH2 mediated
34
albumin assesses what
synthetic function
35
what LFT assesses liver damage directly
AST/ALT
36
what hepatitis infection is DNA based
B
37
STEMI criteria
``` 1mm elevation in 2 limb leads OR 2mm in 2 continuous chest leads OR new onset LBBB ```
38
treat an NSTEMI
aspirin 300 nitrates/morphine clopidogrel 300 (continue for 12 months) Fondaparinux
39
treat a STEMI
``` Fibrinolysis within 120 mins PCI within 12 hours of symptoms O2 if sats below 94 GTN IV Morphine metoclopramide aspirin 300mg ```
40
If patient receives fibrinolysis, do they need PCI?
if after 90 mins and ECG shows less than 50% ST resolution
41
describe a patient who has pericarditis
pleuritic chest pain, relieved by sitting forward, non productive cough
42
ECG changes in pericarditis
saddle shaped ST elevation
43
Angina treatment ladder
aspirin, statin, GTN PRN 1. b blocker + Ca channel blocker if b blocker is contraindicated use Ca blocker as mono therapy. 2. still symptomatic add verapamil or diltiazem 3. add long acting nitrate (Ivabradine or nicorandil)
44
define recurrent AF
2 or more episodes paroxysmal = self terminating, less than 7 days persistent = more than 7 days
45
describe rate control in AF, when is rate control 1st treatment option
b-blocker, diltiazem, combination therapy, digoxin | rate first if over 65 or IHD history
46
drugs used for rhythm control in AF, when is rhythm control first line
amiodarone flecanide (if no HD) rhythm control first in under 65 years, 1st presentation of AF
47
describe Heart block type 1
pr interval longer than 0.2secs
48
describe Heart block type 2 (both types
Mobitz 1 - progressive elongation until a QRS drop | Mobitz 2 - PR interval unaffected, QRS does not always follow p wave
49
describe 3rd degree heart block
no association between p waves + QRS complex
50
define hypertension
140/90
51
stage 1 HTN
140/90 or ABPM 135/85
52
treatment of stage 1 HTN
advise lifestyle alteration | treat if end organ damage
53
Stage 2 HTN | Stage 3 HTN
stage 2: 160/100 or ABPM 150/95 | stage 3: systolic 180 or diastolic 110
54
HTN treatment ladder
1. under 55 = acei, over 55/black = C 2. A+C 3. A+C+D resistant HTN: add alpha/b-blocker if K<4.5 = spironolactone K>4.5 = increase diuretic dose
55
what is malignant HTN? | describe management
medical emergency BP >200/130 | M: atenolol oral, labetalol/nitropruside IV
56
most common cause of death post MI
ventricular fibrillation
57
what complication of MI is indicated by persistent ST elevation and LVF
left ventricular aneurysm
58
treatment of acute HF
Loop diuretic, morphine, nitrates, oxygen, posture
59
investigation of chronic HF
BNP measurement less than 100 = HF unlikely more than 100 = ECHO
60
Heart failure treatment
1. ACEi + B-blocker 2. spironolactone, ARB, OR hydralazine + nitrate 3. digoxin or cardiac resynchronisation
61
management of tachycardia and adverse features
DC cardio version
62
management of broad complex tachycardia
regular - amiodarone | irregular - seek help
63
management of narrow complex tachycardia
regular - 1. vagal manoeuvres, 2. adenosine; 6, 12,12 | irregular - AF (B-blocker, diltiazem)
64
management of bradycardia and adverse features
atropine 500mcg
65
what is Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome?
congenital accessory pathway between atria and ventricles leading to AV reentry tachycardia
66
what are the most common infective organisms in endocarditis
staph aureus is most common | s. epidermis in prosthetic valves
67
treatment of endocarditis
subacute native valve: amox + gent IV severe native valve: flucloxacillin prosthetic valve: vancomycin IV, rifampicin PO, gentamicin IV

Finals (11 decks)

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