Year 4 Neuro document Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

Exposure to which chemicals is associated with Parkinson’s disease

A

Pesticide

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2
Q

Which lifestyle habit is thought to be protective for Parkinson’s

A

Smoking??

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3
Q

Which neurones degenerate in Parkinsons disease

A

Dopaminergic neurones of the pars compacta substantia nigra

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4
Q

Is an idiopathic Parkinsons tremor typically symmetrical or asymmetrical

A

Asymmetrical

Suspect drug-induced parkinsonism if bilateral tremor

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5
Q

What is an expression to describe the facial expression of someone with Parkinsons disease

A

Mask-like face

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6
Q

What kind of sleep disorders are seen in Parksinson’s

A

REM sleep disorders

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7
Q

Which reduced special sense can be an early sign of Parkinson’s

A

Hyposmia

Reduced sense of smell

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8
Q

What is the Glabella tap and how will it present in Parkinson’s

A

Tapping on the forehead makes people stop blinking. Blinking will persist in Parkinson’s - Myerson’s sign of frontal release

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9
Q

What is the gold standard treatment of Parkinson’s

A

Levodopa + Carbidopa

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10
Q

Why might different classes of drugs be used in Parkinson’s

A

To delay the use of Levodopa until significant disability

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11
Q

What type of drug is Rasagiline

A

MAO-B inhibitor

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12
Q

What drug should you give for Levodopa associated nausea and why not use metoclopramide

A

Domperidone
Selective to peripheral dopamine receptors so wont prevent activity of levodopa in the brain (metoclopramide isn’t selective)

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13
Q

Which Parkinsons Plus Syndrome has a lack of a tremor and how does it present

A
Progressive supranuclear palsy
Vertical gaze palsy.
Early postural instability and falls. 
Speech and swallowing problems. 
Symmetrical trunkal rigidity
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14
Q

What is the triad of Multi-System Atrophy

A

Parkinsonism
Autonomic Dysfunction
Cerebellar Dysfunction

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15
Q

What sign is seen on MRI in Multi-System Atrophy

A

Hot Cross Bun sign

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16
Q

Which disease affects the Nucleus Basilis of Meynert

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

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17
Q

Which genetic disease increases your chances of developing Alzheimer’s in the future

A

Down’s Syndrome

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18
Q

Hemiballism as a symptom suggests a lesion where in the brain

A

Subthalamic lesion

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19
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug can cause hyponatraemia

A

Carbamazepine

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20
Q

Which drug can be given for treatment of fatigue in MS

A

Amantidine

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21
Q

A defect in which artery will cause full paralysis except blinking and eye movement

A

Basilar artery

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22
Q

Anti-Musk and Anti-AchR antibodies are associated with which condition

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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23
Q

Which disease can present with renal and hepatic failure as well as Parkinsonism

A

Wilson’s Disease

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24
Q

How is a postural tremor different from a resting tremor

A

postural tremor is a tremor that is absent at rest, present on maintained posture such as holding arms out

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25
What diseases can cause an intention tremor
``` Cerebellar disease (MS, stroke, hemorrhage) Wilsons disease ```
26
What is dystonia
Involuntary, sustained muscle spasms that result in abnormal posturing and repetitive movements in the context of an associated tremor
27
What is chorea
Non rhythmical irregular purposeless movements that flit and flow from one body part to another
28
Huntington's disease shows acceleration- what does this mean
Gets worse as it is passed down though the generations
29
Syndeman's chorea can develop after what
Rheumatic fever | Strep throat infection
30
What is Myoclonus
Sudden, involuntary focal or generalised muscle jerks. | Myoclonus can be normal, with abnormal being defined by over 5 of these jerky movements
31
What is the median age of onset of MND
60
32
Which form of dementia does MND have a link to
Frontotemporal Dementia
33
How can the presentation of MND be differentiated from Myasthenia gravis
Doesn't affect the eyes | Cogan Lid Twitch
34
What is the mechanism of action of Riluzole
Blocks glutamatergic neurotransmission in the CNS
35
Which connective tissue disease is Myasthenia associated with
SLE
36
Which common cardioprotective drug can worsen Myasthenia symptoms
Beta-Blockers
37
What is the mainstay of treatment for Myasthenia Gravis
Pyridostigmine | Anti-Cholinesterase
38
What is the mainstay of treatment for Lambert Eaton syndrome
3,4 - diaminopyridine
39
What is a Stokes Adams Attack
Transient arrhythmias causing reduced cardiac output and loss of consciousness.
40
What is a Jacksonian march
A frontal lobe seizure only occurs on one side of the body; it progresses in a predictable pattern from twitching or a tingling sensation or weakness in a finger, a big toe or the corner of the mouth, then marches over a few seconds to the entire hand, foot or facial muscles
41
A spike and wave pattern at 3HZ on an EEG suggest which type of seizure
Absence seizure
42
Name a newer anti-convulsant which has the adverse effects of mood swings and depression
Levetiracetam
43
Which anti-epileptic drug can cause Leucopenia
Carbamazepine
44
What is non-epileptic attack disorder
Functional seizures that are largely mediated at the subconscious level and have a strong association with past trauma
45
What is an unusual part of the MS epidemiology
More common in locations which are higher above sea level
46
What is the diagnostic criteria for MS
Two episodes of symptoms suggestive of MS that last at least 1 hour and are at least 30 days apart as this shows dissemination in time and place
47
Name 3 disease modifying drugs used 1st line for MS
Beta-interferon Techfidera Copaxone
48
What is Mononeuritis Multiplex
When two mononeuropathies in distinct locations develop at the same time
49
Which type of fungal meningitis is seen in HIV patients
Cryptococcal
50
What is Kernig's sign
Pain and resistance on passive extension of the knee with a flexed hip
51
Which cells will be seen in CSF in Viral, Bacterial and Tb meningitis respectively
Viral and TB - Lymphocytes | Bacterial - Neutrophils
52
What is the contact prophylaxis regime for meningitis
Rifampicin 4 doses | Ciprofloxacin 1 dose
53
Bilateral temporal lobe oedema or bilateral temporal focal enhancement on MRI suggests what
Herpes Simplex encephalitis
54
What causes Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
JC virus infection
55
The use of which drug increases risk of JC virus activation
Tysabari (MS 2nd line)
56
What is the mechanism of action of triptans
5HT (serotonin) agonists
57
How many times should triptan use be limited to, per week, and why
Shouldn’t be taken more than twice a week as patient can become dependent and experience rebound headaches.
58
Which gender is Trigeminal Neuralgia more common in and what is the 1st line treatment
More common in Men | Carbamazepine
59
What are the two peak ages on onset of Narcolepsy
15 and 36??
60
Which arteries are affected in Total Anterior Circulation Syndrome
Blockage of both anterior and middle cerebral arteries
61
Which arteries are affected in Partial Anterior Circulation Syndrome
Blockage of one of anterior or middle cerebral arteries
62
Which arteries are affected in Posterior Circulation Syndrome
Posterior circulation stroke involving vertebral basilar arteries
63
Which arteries are affected in Lacunar Stroke
Multiple small vessel infarcts in basal ganglia and thalamus.
64
What is the timescale within which you can offer thrombolysis to a stroke patient
<4.5 hours
65
What should you do if someone presents with a stroke after 4.5hours of onset
300mg aspirin | continued for at least 14 days
66
What is the most common cause of Sub-Arachnoid Hemorrhage
Rupture of berry aneurysms
67
When do berry aneurysms rupture
When they grow greater than 6mm
68
Which 3 disease are associated with the development of berry aneurysms
Polycystic Kidney Disease Coarction of aorta Ehlers Danlos syndrome
69
What are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms
Micro-aneursyms associated with chronic hypertension | Most commonly occur within basal ganglia
70
Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms leads to what
Intracerebral haemorrhage
71
Which chemical imbalance can occur after a sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
Hyponatraemia
72
Which drug is given to patients following a sub-arachnoid haemorrhage to prevent Delayed Ischaemic Neurological Deficits
Nimodipine
73
What type of haemorrhage is associated with fluctuating consciousness and insidious mental/physical slowing
Subdural
74
What type of haemorrhage is associated with a head injury followed by a lucid period
Extradural
75
What is the most common cause of an extradural haemorrhage
Temporal bone fracture
76
What is the most common type of primary brain tumour
Astrocytoma (glioma)
77
What is another name for a grade 4 astrocytoma
Glioblastoma Multiforme
78
Which tumour is described as having a toothpaste-like morphology
Oligodendroma
79
Which malignant tumour of the cerebellum is almost exclusively seen in children
Medulloblastoma
80
Which therapy are oligodendromas very sensitive to
Chemotherapy
81
Glioblastoma multiforme is sensitive to which drug
Temozolomide
82
How is cerebral perfusion pressure calculated
MAP - ICP
83
Which type of herniation will present as lower limb weakness
Subfalcine | frontal lobe under falx cerebri
84
Which type of herniation will present as ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy
Uncal | Temporal lobe under tentorium cerebelli
85
What is the most common cause of painful 3rd nerve palsy
Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
86
Which type of herniation will present as ataxia, 6th nerve palsy and UMN sign
Tonsillar | Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum
87
What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus
Ataxia Dementia Urinary incontinence
88
Which spinal tracts are affected in Central Cord Syndrome
Corticospinal --> as it lies medially | Spinothalamic --> as the fibres have to cross the ischaemic zone
89
Which gene is associated with MS
HLA-DR2
90
How does internuclear ophthalmoplegia present
Failure to adduct with nystagmus in other eye
91
Which neural cells undergo gliosis
Astrocytes | hyperplasia and hypertrophy
92
What colour are acute MS plaques
Yellow/brown
93
What colour are chronic inactive MS plaques
Grey
94
What are the two ages in which incidences of Myasthenia Gravis peak
Females in the 3rd decade | Males in the 6/7th decade
95
Alzeheimer's disease causes a loss of cholinergic neurons where in the brain in particular
Nucleus basalis of Meynert
96
Which two proteins make up Lewy bodies and which one can be detected by immunochemical staining
Alpha- synuclein | Ubiquitin (staining)
97
What is the greatest risk factor for Parkinson's
Age
98
Which drug treatment for Parkinon's can cause pathological gambling and hyper-sexuality
Dopamine Agonists
99
Which chromosome has the abnormality leading to Huntington's
Chromosome 4
100
Which basal ganglion atrophies in Huntington's
Caudate Nucleus
101
What causes xanthochromia in the context of sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
Yellow discolouration of CSF indicating presence of bilirubin breakdown
102
Asides from giving Nimodipine, how else can you prevent Delayed Ischaemic Deficit following sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
triple H therapy – hypervolaemia, hypertension, haemodilution