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Question 1

Value of metals ions in a eukaryotic chromosome:
a) stabilize frame of a chromosome; b) activate genes; c) are responsible for
DNA replication; d) control density of nucleosomes location in a chromatin
fibrils.

Answer 1

d) control density of nucleosomes location in a chromatin
fibrils.

Question 2

Role of Golgi complex in a cell:
a) participates in uniform movement of chromosomes to cell poles; b)
formation of lysosomes; c) formation of inclusions; d) excretory and secretory
functions.

Answer 2

b) formation of lysosomes; c) formation of inclusions; d) excretory and secretory
functions.

Question 3

Role of centrioles in a cell:
a) formation of the mitotic spindle; b) formation of lysosomes; c) uniform
distribution of chromosomes in a mitosis and a meiosis; d) excretory function.

Answer 3

a) formation of the mitotic spindle
c) uniform
distribution of chromosomes in a mitosis and a meiosis;

Question 4

What is transported to cell poles in an anaphase of a mitosis?
chromosomes; b) chromatids.

Answer 4

b) chromatids.

Question 5

Types of copulation:
a) isogamy; b) anisogamy; c) oogamy; d) schizogony.

Answer 5

a) isogamy; b) anisogamy; c) oogamy;

Question 6

Function of a gene-regulator:
a) increase or decrease the speed of biochemical reactions; b) contains the
information on synthesis t-RNA, r-RNA; c) contains the information of enzyme
structure; d) contains the information on frame of protein-repressor.

Answer 6

d) contains the information on frame of protein-repressor.

Question 7

Function of modifiers genes:
find necessary m-RNA-polymerase; b) passes or quenches transit of the
RNA - polymerase to structural genes; c) increase or decrease the speed of
biochemical reactions; d) suppress transcription.

Answer 7

c) increase or decrease the speed of
biochemical reactions;

Question 8

Function of the gene-operator:
contains the information on structure of protein-repressor; b) passes or
quenches transit m-RNA-polymerase to structural genes; c) finds necessary
m-RNA- polymerase; d) cap-proteins binding.

Answer 8

b) passes or
quenches transit m-RNA-polymerase to structural genes;

Question 9

Holandric attributes of a human:
syndactylia; b) hypertrichosis of ear; c) total color-blindness; d) the
exessive keratinization of a skin (ichtiosis).

Answer 9

a) syndactylia; b) hypertrichosis of ear
d) the exessive keratinization of a skin (ichtiosis).

Question 10

X-linked groups of genes in a human:
daltonism and hemophilia; b) hemophilia and Dushene muscular
dystrophia; c) Dushene muscular dystrophia and daltonism; d) daltonism and
syndactylia.

Answer 10

c) Dushene muscular dystrophia and daltonism; d) daltonism and
syndactylia.

Question 11

Kinds of a gene interaction from different alleles:
a)
codominance; b) dominant and recessive epistasis; c) hypostasis; d)
recession; e) complementarity.

Answer 11

b) dominant and recessive epistasis; c) hypostasis; e) complementarity.

Question 12

Essence of a dominant epistasis:
a) dominant gene suppresses action of recessive gene; b) dominant gene from
one allele suppresses action of dominant gene from other allele; c) dominant
gene from one allele suppresses action of a recessive gene in homozygous from
other allele.

Answer 12

b) dominant gene from
one allele suppresses action of dominant gene from other allele; c) dominant
gene from one allele suppresses action of a recessive gene in homozygous from
other allele.

Question 13

Essence of a recessive epistasis:
recessive gene from one allele suppresses a recessive gene from other
allele;
b)
recessive gene from one allele suppresses a dominant gene from other
allele; c) recessive gene from one allele suppresses action of a dominant gene
from other allele.

Answer 13

recessive gene from one allele suppresses a recessive gene from other
allele;
c) recessive gene from one allele suppresses action of a dominant gene
from other allele.

Question 14

Essence of complementarity:
two dominant genes from one allele determine a new sign; b) the
recessive gene from one allele is suppressed by dominant gene from other
allele; c) genes from different alleles determine a new attribute.

Answer 14

c) genes from different alleles determine a new attribute.

Question 15

Examples of generative mutations at the human:
a)diabetes, galactosemia, fructosuria; b) hemochromatoses; c) malignant
tumours; d) adrenogenital set of symptoms; e) hemophilia.

Answer 15

a)diabetes, galactosemia, fructosuria; b) hemochromatoses;
d) adrenogenital set of symptoms; e) hemophilia.

Question 16

Types of local changes in gene mutations:
a)changing, translocation of nucleotides pair; b) insert or deletion of nucleotides
pair; c) deficiency, deletions.

Answer 16

a)changing, translocation of nucleotides pair; b) insert or deletion of nucleotides
pair;

Question 17

Consequences of a missence mutation:
a)in a polypeptide one amino acid will be replaced; b) one amino acid
corresponds to several codons of mRNA, changes in a polypeptide can not be;
c) are synthesized parts an protein molecule.

Answer 17

a)in a polypeptide one amino acid will be replaced; b) one amino acid
corresponds to several codons of mRNA, changes in a polypeptide can not be;

Question 18

Mechanisms of appearance of chromosome aberrations:
a)destruction of telomere on the ends of chromosomes; b) breaking of process
of a crossingover; c) breaking of divergence of chromosomes at mitosis and
meiosis.

Answer 18

a)destruction of telomere on the ends of chromosomes;

Question 19

Dermatoglific parameters in Down desease:
a)predominance of ulnar loops; b) an angle atd = 80° - 81°; c) four-digital
sulcus; d) predominance of arches; e) angle atd = 100° -105°.

Answer 19

a)predominance of ulnar loops; b) an angle atd = 80° - 81°; c) four-digital
sulcus;

Question 20

Dermatoglific parameters in Turner syndrome:
a)four-digital sulcus; b) increase of frequency of lines on hypotenor; c) increase
of number of whorls and papillary lines set; d) radial loops on 4lfi and
5Шfingers; e) angle atd = 60° - 61°.

Answer 20

b) increase of frequency of lines on hypotenor; c) increase
of number of whorls and papillary lines set; d) radial loops on 4lfi and
5Шfingers; e) angle atd = 60° - 61°.

Question 21

Dermatogliphical parameters of Klinefelter’s syndrome:
a)low papillary lines set, big distance between lines; b) predominance of ulnar
loops; c) predominance of arches; d) a four-digital sulcus; e) angle atd = 40° -
42°.

Answer 21

a)low papillary lines set, big distance between lines
c) predominance of arches
e) angle atd = 40° - 42°.

Question 21

Opportunities of a cytogenetic method:
a)allows to establish hereditary diseases linked to change of chromosomes
number and structure, a translocation; b) to define phylum and variant of
inheritance; c) to define hereditary diseases of a metabolism.

Answer 21

a)allows to establish hereditary diseases linked to change of chromosomes
number and structure, a translocation

Question 21

The X-chromatin is absent:
a)at person of a female; b) at person of a male; c) at Pattaw’s syndrome; d) at
Turner’s syndrome; e) at Kleinefelter’s syndrome.

Answer 21

b) at person of a male;
d) at
Turner’s syndrome

Question 22

Opportunities of genetics method of somatic cells:
a)get genes in a pure state; b) getting cells-hybrids; c) carrying out analysis of
coupling and localizations genes; d) studying mechanisms of gene interaction
and a regulation of gene activity; e) studying of gene mutations.

Answer 22

a)get genes in a pure state; b) getting cells-hybrids; c) carrying out analysis of
coupling and localizations genes; d) studying mechanisms of gene interaction
and a regulation of gene activity; e) studying of gene mutations.

Question 23

The basic etiological factor of hemophilia B: a)defect of the factor VIII (antihemophilic globulin); b) defect of the factor VII (proconvertin); c) defect of the factor IX (Kristmas factor).

Answer 23

c) defect of the factor IX (Kristmas factor)

Question 24

The basic etiological factor of Willebrand disease: a)defect of the factor VIII (antihemophilic globulin); b) defect of the factor VII; c) defect of the factor IX (Kristmas factor).

Answer 24

a)defect of the factor VIII (antihemophilic globulin) c) defect of the factor IX (Kristmas factor).

Question 25

The mechanism of development of the hereditary diseases caused by change of chromosome number: a)destruction telomere on the ends of chromosomes; b) breaking of a crossingover in a gametogenesis; c) breaking of apostatis of chromosomes in a meiosis at a gametogenesis.

Answer 25

c) breaking of apostatis of chromosomes in a meiosis at a gametogenesis.

Question 26

Types and kinds of an ontogenesis: a) indirect (with a complete and incomplete metamorphosis); b) nonlarval (with a complete metamorphosis); c) direct (nonlarval and intrauterine); d) larval (without metamorphosis).

Answer 26

a) indirect (with a complete and incomplete metamorphosis); c) direct (nonlarval and intrauterine)

Question 27

Characteristics of indirect development: a) low rate of yolk; b) after exit from egg covers specie passes through some stages of development and has some provisional organs; c) high rate of yolk.

Answer 27

a) low rate of yolk; b) after exit from egg covers specie passes through some stages of development and has some provisional organs;

Question 28

Characteristics of direct development: a) character for telo- and isolecithal eggs; b) after exit from egg covers specie do not passes through some stages of development and has no provisional organs; c) after exit from egg covers specie differ from parents and has smaller sizes and undevelopment organs systems.

Answer 28

a) character for telo- and isolecithal eggs; b) after exit from egg covers specie do not passes through some stages of development and has no provisional organs; c) after exit from egg covers specie differ from parents and has smaller sizes and undevelopment organs systems.

Question 29

Type and kind of human zygote cleavage: a) holoblastic symmetrical; b) holoblastic asymmetrical; c) meroblastic superficial.

Answer 29

b) holoblastic asymmetrical;

Question 30

Types of a gastrulation: a) invagination, delamination; b) discoidal; c) immigration, epibolia; d) immigration of an ectoderm cells.

Answer 30

a) invagination, delamination; c) immigration, epibolia;

Question 31

Ectoderm derivatives: a) nervous system, sensitive organs receptors, epidermis and its derivatives, dermal glands; b) the reproductive and urinary systems; c) an epithelium of a foregut and hindgut; d) connective tissue.

Answer 31

a) nervous system, sensitive organs receptors, epidermis and its derivatives, dermal glands; c) an epithelium of a foregut and hindgut

Question 32

Mesoderm derivatives: a) the musculoskeletal system, all kinds of a connective tissue; b) circulatory and lymphatic systems; c) sensitive organs; d) the reproductive and urinary systems.

Answer 32

a) the musculoskeletal system, all kinds of a connective tissue; b) circulatory and lymphatic systems d) the reproductive and urinary systems.

Question 33

Entoderm derivatives: a) epithelium of a foregut and hindgut; b) epithelium of an middle gut; c) epithelium of the respiratory system; d) digestive glands.

Answer 33

b) epithelium of an middle gut; c) epithelium of the respiratory system; d) digestive glands.

Question 33

Role of yolk sac in a human embryo development: a) there is practically no value; b) it is reduced and included in umbilical cord; c) it carryes out tpophic function; d) it carries out hemopoietic function while late stages of embriogenesis.

Answer 33

a)there is practically no value; b) it is reduced and included in umbilical cord;

Question 34

Role of allantois in a human embryo development: a) role of accumulation kidney; b) it is component of umbilical cord; c) it contains umbilical vessels; d) it carries out hemopoietic function.

Answer 34

b) it is component of umbilical cord; c) it contains umbilical vessels;

Question 35

Role of chorion in a human embryo development: a) specific barrier to microorganisms and number of harmful substances; b) it derivates a chorion-allantois fulfilling the respiratory function; c) it enters into structure of placenta; d) it enters into structure of umbilical cord.

Answer 35

a) specific barrier to microorganisms and number of harmful substances; b) it derivates a chorion-allantois fulfilling the respiratory function; c) it enters into structure of placenta;

Question 36

Role of amnion and amniotic fluid in a human embryo development: a) it provides embryogenesis in the water environment; b) it protects a fetus from mechanical damage; c) it takes part in placenta formation; d) it provides mobility of a fetus.

Answer 36

a) it provides embryogenesis in the water environment; b) it protects a fetus from mechanical damage; d) it provides mobility of a fetus.

Question 37

Changes in cells on spermatogenesis stages; a) accumulation of all types of RNA; b) ooplasmic segregation; c) repression of genes.

Answer 37

c) repression of genes.

Question 38

On what stage of embryonic development a genome of ovum begins to work? a) on 2-4 blastomers stage; b) on 64 blastomers stage; c) on blaslula stage.

Answer 38

a) on 2-4 blastomers stage

Question 39

On what stage of embryonic development a genome of sperm begins to work? a) on 2-4 blastomers stage; b) on blastula stage; c) on gastrula stage.

Answer 39

b) on blastula stage

Question 40

Stages of basic ontogenetic processes which are character for all multicellular organisms: a) genome correlations; b) expression of genes; c) information for expression of genes from genes and polypeptides.

Answer 40

c) information for expression of genes from genes and polypeptides.

Question 41

Causes of level increase of newborn children with hereditary diseases: a) smoking, drinking, drugging of parents; b) mother age younger 18 years or older than 35 years; c) influence of mutagens; d) endocrine diseases of parents.

Answer 41

a) smoking, drinking, drugging of parents; b) mother age younger 18 years or older than 35 years; c) influence of mutagens; d) endocrine diseases of parents.

Question 42

Stages of postnatal ontogenesis: a) prozygote, zygote, cleavage, gastrulation, histogeny, organogenesis; b) prereproductive, reproductive, postreproductive; c) juvenile, reproductive, aging.

Answer 42

b) prereproductive, reproductive, postreproductive; c) juvenile, reproductive, aging.

Question 43

Hypothesis of acceleration: a) enough noutrishment; b) influence of earth magnetic field; c) high action of electromagnet rays by TV and radio; d) appearance of heterosis.

Answer 43

a) enough noutrishment; b) influence of earth magnetic field; c) high action of electromagnet rays by TV and radio; d) appearance of heterosis.

Question 44

Characteristics of clinical death: a) failure of heart beating; b) absence of breathing; c) absence of reflex reactions; d) cells of all organs are alive; e) process of cells metabolism is not disordered.

Answer 44

a) failure of heart beating; b) absence of breathing; c) absence of reflex reactions; d) cells of all organs are alive; e) process of cells metabolism is not disordered.

Question 45

Characteristics of biological death: a) cells of all organs are alive; b) brain cortex cells start to die; c) process of cells metabolism is not disordered.

Answer 45

b) brain cortex cells start to die

Question 46

Active euthanasia: a) biological death; b) voluntarily leaving from life at sleep with doctor help; c) death in result of medical help stop to patient.

Answer 46

b) voluntarily leaving from life at sleep with doctor help;

Question 47

Passive euthanasia: a) clinical death; b) biological death; c) death in result of medical help stop to patient.

Answer 47

c) death in result of medical help stop to patient.