070.01 General Requirements

Question 1

An FDR is required in aeroplanes over (5700/7000/20000)​ kg.

Answer 1

An FDR is required in aeroplanes over (5700) kg.

Question 2

An interphone system is necessary on board of an aeroplane with a crew >(1/2/3) and a MCTOM of >(5.7/15/27)000 kg or MOPSC >(…)​.

Answer 2

An interphone system is necessary on board of an aeroplane with a crew >(1) and a MCTOM of >(15)000 kg or MOPSC >(19).

Question 3

An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least (6/9/12/24)​ months experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate course.

Answer 3

An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least (12) months experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate course.

Question 4

The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is (6/12/18/24)​ months.

Answer 4

The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is (6) months.

Question 5

A turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for (…).

Answer 5

A turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for (30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft AAL in standard conditions).

Question 6

The basic maximum daily FDP can further be extended by a maximum of (…) hour(s).

Answer 6

The basic maximum daily FDP can further be extended by a maximum of (1) hour(s).

Question 7

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least (15/30/60/120)​ minutes.

Answer 7

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least (30) minutes.

Question 8

The total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed:

(1) (…) hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days;
(2) (…) hours of flight time in any calendar year; and
(3) (…) hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.

Answer 8

The total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed:

(1) (100) hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days;
(2) (900) hours of flight time in any calendar year; and
(3) (1000) hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.

Question 9

200 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (…).

Answer 9

200 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (ILS, MLS, SBAS)​.

Question 10

100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than (…)​ ft.

Answer 10

100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than (13000) ft.

Question 11

An airplane with a MOPSC of 0 - 100 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit.

Answer 11

An airplane with a MOPSC of 0 - 100 required a minimum of (1) first-aid kit(s).

Question 12

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding (13/14/15)​000 ft.

Answer 12

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding (14)000 ft.

Question 13

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a circling approach available is (…)​.

Answer 13

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a circling approach available is (circling).

Question 14

In Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex III corresponds to Part-(…) and Annex IV to Part-(…)​.

Answer 14

In Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex III corresponds to Part-(ORO) and Annex IV to Part-(CAT).

Question 15

Considering a wet lease-in, the competent authority of the (lessor/lessee) should approve aircraft entering the EU from third countries.

Answer 15

Considering a wet lease-in, the competent authority of the (lessee) should approve aircraft entering the EU from third countries.

Question 16

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 31 - 60 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 16

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 31 - 60 must be equipped with at least (2) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 17

An airplane with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit(s).

Answer 17

An airplane with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 required a minimum of (3) first-aid kit(s).

Question 18

For a CAT IIIb precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (…) ft with an RVR not less than (…) m for FAIL OP and (…)​ m for FAIL PASS.

Answer 18

For a CAT IIIb precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (nil or >50) ft with an RVR not less than (75 (ICAO SARPS: 50) ) m for FAIL OP and (125) m for FAIL PASS.

Question 19

The minimum RVR value for take-off under the following circumstances is (150/200/250/300) m.

• CAT A aeroplane
• AD equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information
• An accaptable alternate aerodrome is available

Answer 19

The minimum RVR value for take-off under the following circumstances is (150) m.

• CAT A aeroplane
• AD equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information
• An accaptable alternate aerodrome is available

Question 20

Following an accident involved with dangerous goods, an operator must report this to the competent authority within (12/24/48/72)​ hours.

Answer 20

Following an accident involved with dangerous goods, an operator must report this to the competent authority within (72) hours.

Question 21

Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of 19 or less over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in (…) minutes at the OEI cruise speed.

Answer 21

Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of 19 or less over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in (120) minutes at the OEI cruise speed.

Question 22

Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the (left/right) in the Northern Hemisphere.

Answer 22

Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the (right) in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 23

The abbreviation in ‘Part-FCL’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 23

The abbreviation in ‘Part-FCL’ stand for (Flight Crew License).

Question 24

For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of the flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period of in no case less than (…)​.

Answer 24

For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of the flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period of in no case less than (2 hours).

Question 25

The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR shall be (3/5) IFR flights, including (3 instrument approaches / 3 take-offs and 3 landings), carried out during the preceding (…) days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

Answer 25

The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR shall be (5) IFR flights, including (3 instrument approaches), carried out during the preceding (90) days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

Question 26

The abbreviation in ‘Part-SPO’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 26

The abbreviation in ‘Part-SPO’ stand for (Specialised Operations).

Question 27

‘ORO’ in ‘Part-ORO’ stands for (…)​.

Answer 27

‘ORO’ in ‘Part-ORO’ stands for (Organisation Requirements of Air Operations).

Question 28

When having to deviate 10 NM or more from your OTS track due to bad weather, you have to (climb/descent) (…) ft when deviating to the north and (climb/descent) (…) ​ft when deviating to the south.

Answer 28

When having to deviate 10 NM or more from your OTS track due to bad weather, you have to (descent) (300) ft when deviating to the north and (climb) (300) ft when deviating to the south.

Question 29

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than 1.(80/83/86/89)​ m.

Answer 29

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than 1.(83) m.

Question 30

Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in (…) minutes at the OEI cruise speed.

Answer 30

Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in (60) minutes at the OEI cruise speed.

Question 31

The (controller/commander/operator/competent authority) is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.

Answer 31

The (operator) is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.

Question 32

For aircraft certified before 31 March 2000, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than (6/8) ft, aeroplane on the ground, (landing gear extended/one or more legs of the landing gear collapsed)​.

Answer 32

For aircraft certified before 31 March 2000, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than (6) ft, aeroplane on the ground, (landing gear extended).

Question 33

In unforseen circumstances, one cabin crew member for every (…) passenger seats (installed/occupied) on the same deck is required.

Answer 33

In unforseen circumstances, one cabin crew member for every (50) passenger seats (occupied) on the same deck is required.

Question 34

Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least (one/two) (Initial Navigation System/Long Range Navigation System)​.

Answer 34

Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least (one) (Long Range Navigation System).

Question 35

The abbreviation in ‘Part-NCO’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 35

The abbreviation in ‘Part-NCO’ stand for (Non-Commercial Air Operations with Other-Than Complex Motor-Powered Aircraft).

Question 36

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 36

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 must be equipped with at least (6) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 37

The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least (5/10/30)​ minutes.

Answer 37

The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least (10) minutes.

Question 38

An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least (3/12/24/36)​ months.

Answer 38

An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least (3) months.

Question 39

The validity period of a day-time (eastbound/westbound) organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between (…) UTC and (…) UTC.

Answer 39

The validity period of a day-time (westbound) organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between (1130) UTC and (1900) UTC.

Question 40

• Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than (5700/20000) kg or with an MOPSC of more than (9/19) shall be equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located in the flight crew compartment.
• In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than (…), an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be installed in or near the rearmost galley area.

Answer 40

• Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than (5700) kg or with an MOPSC of more than (9) shall be equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located in the flight crew compartment.
• In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than (200), an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be installed in or near the rearmost galley area.

Question 41

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available is (…)​.

Answer 41

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available is (NPA RVR/Vis, Ceiling shall be at or above MDH).

Question 42

For a Category B aircraft circling, the MDH is (…) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (…) m.

Answer 42

For a Category B aircraft circling, the MDH is (500) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (1600) ​m.

Question 43

Life rafts equipped with a survivor locator light sufficient to carry all persons on board and at least to survival ELTs shall be carried on aeroplanes operated over water at a distance away from land suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:

(1) (…) minutes at cruising speed or (…) NM, whichever is the (greater/lesser), in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
(2) for all other aeroplanes, (…) minutes at cruising speed or (…) NM, whichever is the (greater/lesser).

Answer 43

Life rafts equipped with a survivor locator light sufficient to carry all persons plus one spare on board and at least to survival ELTs shall be carried on aeroplanes operated over water at a distance away from land suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:

(1) (120) minutes at cruising speed or (400) NM, whichever is the (lesser), in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
(2) for all other aeroplanes, (30) minutes at cruising speed or (100) NM, whichever is the (lesser).

Question 44

The maximum extension of the flight duty period in unforseen circumstances in flight ops, commander’s discretion, augmented flight crew is (…) hour(s).

Answer 44

The maximum extension of the flight duty period in unforseen circumstances in flight ops, commander’s discretion, augmented flight crew is (3) hour(s).

Question 45

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 7 - 30 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 45

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 7 - 30 must be equipped with at least (1) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 46

It is recommended that pilots should request their Oceanic Clearance at least (…) minutes prior to the Oceanic entry point ETA.

Answer 46

It is recommended that pilots should request their Oceanic Clearance at least (40) minutes prior to the Oceanic entry point ETA.

Question 47

Each flight crew member shall complete a recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which he/she operates, including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried. Such training has to be performed every (6/12/18/24)​ months.

Answer 47

Each flight crew member shall complete a recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which he/she operates, including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried. Such training has to be performed every (12) months.

Question 48

The abbreviation HMU means (…)​.

Answer 48

The abbreviation HMU means (Height Monitoring Unit).

Question 49

For a CAT IIIc precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (…) ft with an RVR not less than (…) m.

Answer 49

For a CAT IIIc precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (nil) ft with an RVR not less than (nil) m.

Question 50

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 601 or more must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 50

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 601 or more must be equipped with at least (8) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 51

PART-(25/66/145) prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations.

Answer 51

PART-(145) prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations.

Question 52

The term ‘night duty’ means a duty period encroaching any portion of the period between (…) and (…) in the time zone to which the crew (is acclimatised/has arrived)​.

Answer 52

The term ‘night duty’ means a duty period encroaching any portion of the period between (02:00) and (04:59) in the time zone to which the crew (is acclimatised).

Question 53

Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for an NPA or circling approach is DA/H + (…) ft, RMR/VIS + (…) ​ft.

Answer 53

Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for an NPA or circling approach is DA/H + (400) ft, RMR/VIS + (1500) ft.

Question 54

For turbo-propeller aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of (…)​.

Answer 54

For turbo-propeller aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of (0.7).

Question 55

On an IFR flight, before dispatch the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are to be at or above the (aerodrome/planning) minima (at the ETA/during a period from 1h before to 1h after the ETA)​.

Answer 55

On an IFR flight, before dispatch the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are to be at or above the (planning) minima (during a period from 1h before to 1h after the ETA).

Question 56

For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within (1/2) hour flight time at (OEI/all-engines) cruising speed.

Answer 56

For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within (1) hour flight time at (OEI) cruising speed.

Question 57

350 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (…).

Answer 57

350 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (SRA 2, NDB, VDF (50 ft less if they have DME) )​.

Question 58

The abbreviation in ‘Part-NCC’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 58

The abbreviation in ‘Part-NCC’ stand for (Non-Commercial Air Operations with Complex Motor-Powered Aircraft).

Question 59

The pilot must turn on the navigation lights (…)​.

Answer 59

The pilot must turn on the navigation lights (only at night).

Question 60

(Differences/Familiarisation) training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

Answer 60

(Familiarisation) training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

Question 61

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 501 - 600 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 61

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 501 - 600 must be equipped with at least (7) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 62

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with both aircraft flying the same speed, the longitudinal separation must nog be below (…) minutes.

Answer 62

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with both aircraft flying the same​ speed, the longitudinal separation must nog be below (10) minutes.

Question 63

RVSM In-flight procedure - cross-checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. These primary altimeters shall agree within (50/100/150/200)​ ft.

Answer 63

RVSM In-flight procedure - cross-checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. These primary altimeters shall agree within (200) ft.

Question 64

An airplane with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit(s).

Answer 64

An airplane with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 required a minimum of (4) first-aid kit(s).

Question 65

An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for (12/15/18/24) months.

Answer 65

An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for (24) months.

Question 66

The abbreviation MASPS stands for (…).

Answer 66

The abbreviation MASPS stands for (Minimum Aviation System Performance Standards)​.

Question 67

The MNPS airspace extends from (27/30)° North to (70/90)°​ North.

Answer 67

The MNPS airspace extends from (27)° North to (90)° North.

Question 68

A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for (one/two) passenger(s) calculated for the entire flight time which, following de-pressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than (…) ft.

Answer 68

A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for (one) passenger calculated for the entire flight time which, following de-pressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than (8000) ft.

Question 69

In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by (…)​ minutes or more.

Answer 69

In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by (3) minutes or more. (boundary window)

Question 70

For two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in (60/120) minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or (200/300) nautical miles, whichever is less.

Answer 70

For two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in (120) minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or (300) nautical miles, whichever is less.

Question 71

A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 100 or more carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least (…) megaphone(s)​.

Answer 71

A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 100 or more carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least (2) megaphone(s).

Question 72

For a CAT II precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (…) ft with an RVR not less than (…) m.

Answer 72

For a CAT II precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (100) ft with an RVR not less than (300) m.

Question 73

The (operator/commander/authority/controller) is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.

Answer 73

The (operator) is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.

Question 74

RVSM Pre-Flight procedure - the flight crew shall verify the altimeter accuracy by setting the QNH or QFE. The reading should then agree with the altitude of the apron or the zero height indication within (25/30/75/150)​ ft.

Answer 74

RVSM Pre-Flight procedure - the flight crew shall verify the altimeter accuracy by setting the QNH or QFE. The reading should then agree with the altitude of the apron or the zero height indication within (75) ft.

Question 75

The abbreviation in ‘Part-ARA’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 75

The abbreviation in ‘Part-ARA’ stand for (Authority Requirements for Air crew).

Question 76

Consider a flight within an airspace with reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM). The upper limit of the threshold for altitude deviation alerting equipment is +/-(…)​ ft.

Answer 76

Consider a flight within an airspace with reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM). The upper limit of the threshold for altitude deviation alerting equipment is +/-(300) ft.

Question 77

The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed:

(1) (…) duty hours in any 7 consecutive days;
(2) (…) duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and
(3) (…) duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout that period.

Answer 77

The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed:

(1) (60) duty hours in any 7 consecutive days;
(2) (110) duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and
(3) (190) duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout that period.

Question 78

250 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (…).

Answer 78

250 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (SRA 1/2, RNAV, LOC)​.

Question 79

For turbojet aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of (…)​.

Answer 79

For turbojet aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of (0.6).

Question 80

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of (1/3/6/12)​ months.

Answer 80

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of (3) months.

Question 81

The period of validity of a line check is (6/12/18/24)​ months.

Answer 81

The period of validity of a line check is (12) months.

Question 82

For a Category D aircraft circling, the MDH is (…) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (…) m.

Answer 82

For a Category D aircraft circling, the MDH is (700) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (3600) ​m.

Question 83

Planning minima for a destination alternate with an NPA approach available is (…)​.

Answer 83

Planning minima for a destination alternate with an NPA approach available is (NPA RVR/Vis + 1000 m, Ceiling shall be at or above MDH + 200 ft).

Question 84

For three- or four-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within (1/2) hour flight time at (OEI/all-engines) cruising speed.

Answer 84

For three- or four-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within (2) hour flight time at (OEI) cruising speed.

Question 85

The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts away from the cremember’s home base shall be (…)​ hours.

Answer 85

The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts away from the cremember’s home base shall be (10) hours.

Question 86

The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than (5700/10000/27000)​ kg.

Answer 86

The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than (27000) kg.

Question 87

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than (30/60/90/120) minutes at cruising speed.

Answer 87

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than (90) minutes at cruising speed.

Question 88

Seats should be allocated for each person on board who is ages (6/12/24)​ months or more.

Answer 88

Seats should be allocated for each person on board who is ages (24) months or more.

Question 89

According to North Atlantic MNPS Operations Manual, transponder code (…) should be set 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace.

Answer 89

According to North Atlantic MNPS Operations Manual, transponder code (2000) should be set 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace.

Question 90

RVSM In-Flight procedure - when changing levels, the aircraft shall not overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level by more than (50/100/150/200)​ ft.

Answer 90

RVSM In-Flight procedure - when changing levels, the aircraft shall not overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level by more than (150) ft.

Question 91

A low visibility take-off is a take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than (…)​ m.

Answer 91

A low visibility take-off is a take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than (400) m.

Question 92

When conducting a Special VFR flight, the follwoing conditions shall apply:

• (…)
• (…)
• (…)

Answer 92

When conducting a Special VFR flight, the follwoing conditions shall apply:

• (clear of cloud and with surface in sight)
• (visibility not less than 1500 m)
• (speed of 140 kt or less)

Question 93

The abbreviation in ‘Part-MED’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 93

The abbreviation in ‘Part-MED’ stand for (Medical).

Question 94

An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for at least (12/15/18/24)​ months.

Answer 94

An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for at least (24) months.

Question 95

On an IFR flight, a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the (aerodrome/planning) minima (at the ETA/during a period from 1h before to 1h after the ETA)​.

Answer 95

On an IFR flight, a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the (planning) minima (at the ETA).

Question 96

An airplane with a MOPSC of 501 or more required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit(s).

Answer 96

An airplane with a MOPSC of 501 or more required a minimum of (6) first-aid kit(s).

Question 97

The battery in a portable emergency locater transmitter (ELT) which is usedafter an emergency landing or ditching should last for (12/24/48/72) hours.

Answer 97

The battery in a portable emergency locater transmitter (ELT) which is usedafter an emergency landing or ditching should last for (48) hours.

Question 98

For aircraft certified after 31 March 2000, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than (6/8) ft, aeroplane on the ground, (landing gear extended/one or more legs of the landing gear collapsed)​.

Answer 98

For aircraft certified after 31 March 2000, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than (6) ft, aeroplane on the ground, (one or more legs of the landing gear collapsed).

Question 99

During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold elevation and not to the aerodrome elevation if the runway threshold is at more than (2 m (7 ft) / 4 m (14 ft) ) (above/below)​ the aerodrome elevation.

Answer 99

During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold elevation and not to the aerodrome elevation if the runway threshold is at more than (2 m (7 ft) ) (below) the aerodrome elevation.

Question 100

For a Category A aircraft circling, the MDH is (…) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (…) m.

Answer 100

For a Category A aircraft circling, the MDH is (400) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (1500) ​m.

Question 101

The minimum flight crew for operations under IFR or at night is 2 pilots for all turbo-prop aeroplanes with a MOPSC of more than (…) and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes.

Answer 101

The minimum flight crew for operations under IFR or at night is 2 pilots for all turbo-prop aeroplanes with a MOPSC of more than (9) and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes.

Question 102

A two-engine aeroplane has an ETOPS approval for 180 minutes. Those 180 minutes are based on the one engine inoperative speed. The departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take-off alternate because of meteorological conditions. There are no MEL restrictions. The maximum allowed flight time to the take-off alternate is (60/90/120/180)​ minutes.

Answer 102

A two-engine aeroplane has an ETOPS approval for 180 minutes. Those 180 minutes are based on the one engine inoperative speed. The departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take-off alternate because of meteorological conditions. There are no MEL restrictions. The maximum allowed flight time to the take-off alternate is (120) minutes.

Question 103

All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than (…) ft.

Answer 103

All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than (10000) ft.

Question 104

The maximum duration of the basic flight duty period, excluding any extensions, if a crew memeber is acclimatised to the tome zone and if a CAT operation has to be considered is (…) hours.

Answer 104

The maximum duration of the basic flight duty period, excluding any extensions, if a crew memeber is acclimatised to the tome zone and if a CAT operation has to be considered is (13) hours.

Question 105

After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of (30/45/60/90)​ days.

Answer 105

After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of (60) days.

Question 106

Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for a precision approach is DA/H + (…) ft, RMR/VIS + (…) ft.

Answer 106

Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for a precision approach is DA/H + (200) ft, RMR/VIS + (800) ft.

Question 107

Regulations require that a supply of undiluted oxygen is carried on board pressurized aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25000 ft. This first-aid oxygen equipment shall be capable of generating a mass flow to each user of at least (1/2/3/4) litres STPD per minute.

Answer 107

Regulations require that a supply of undiluted oxygen is carried on board pressurized aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25000 ft. This first-aid oxygen equipment shall be capable of generating a mass flow to each user of at least (4) litres STPD per minute.

Question 108

For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than (…)​.

Answer 108

For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than (2 hours).

Question 109

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that does not exceed the equivalent of (one/two) hour of flight at cruising speed, with (OEI/all engines operating)​.

Answer 109

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that does not exceed the equivalent of (one) hour of flight at cruising speed, with (OEI).

Question 110

RVR is reported when it falls below (…) m.

Answer 110

RVR is reported when it falls below (1500) m.

Question 111

A Flight Data Recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the preceding (…)​ hours.

Answer 111

A Flight Data Recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the preceding (25) hours.

Question 112

An operator has to keep records on crew member recent experience for (12/15/18/24) months.

Answer 112

An operator has to keep records on crew member recent experience for (15) months.

Question 113

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than (9/19), and when carrying (one/five) or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included.

Answer 113

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than (19), and when carrying (one) or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included.

Question 114

The correct action in case an aircraft is exposed to wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft while flying in the MNPS region is to (…)​.

Answer 114

The correct action in case an aircraft is exposed to wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft while flying in the MNPS region is to (fly offset to the right).

Question 115

Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of (…) degrees of longitude north of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.

Answer 115

Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of (20) degrees of longitude north of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.

Question 116

Personnel records about crew member recent experience shall be stored for a period of (15/18/24/36)​ months.

Answer 116

Personnel records about crew member recent experience shall be stored for a period of (15) months.

Question 117

In the case of aeroplanes, pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than (15/21/30/60) ​days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator. The content of such training shall be described in the operations manual.

Answer 117

In the case of aeroplanes, pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than (21) days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator. The content of such training shall be described in the operations manual.

Question 118

The abbreviation in ‘Part-SPA’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 118

The abbreviation in ‘Part-SPA’ stand for (Specific Approvals).

Question 119

In normal circumstances, one cabin crew member for every (…) passenger seats (installed/occupied) on the same deck is required.

Answer 119

In normal circumstances, one cabin crew member for every (50) passenger seats (installed) on the same deck is required.

Question 120

V_AT is (V_SO/V_S1G) • (…).

Answer 120

V_AT is (V_SO) • (1.3).

Question 121

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must nog be below (…) minutes.

Answer 121

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must nog be below (5) minutes.

Question 122

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than (30/60/90/120) minutes at cruising speed.

Answer 122

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than (90) minutes at cruising speed.

Question 123

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 123

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 must be equipped with at least (4) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 124

(Differences/Familarisation) training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft.

Answer 124

(Differences) training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft.

Question 125

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the Gyro North with respect to the (True/Grid) North for (any/a given)​ chart.

Answer 125

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the Gyro North with respect to the (Grid) North for (a given) chart.

Question 126

ICAO Annex 6 defines ‘flight time’ for aeroplanes as (…)​.

Answer 126

ICAO Annex 6 defines ‘flight time’ for aeroplanes as (block to block).

- chocks off chocks on -

Question 127

The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least (5/10/20)% of the number of fuses of each rating, or (1/2/3) ​of each rating, whichever is greater.

Answer 127

The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least (10)% of the number of fuses of each rating, or (3) of each rating, whichever is greater.

Question 128

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding (13/14/15)​000 ft.

Answer 128

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding (13)000 ft.

Question 129

The abbreviation in ‘Part-CC’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 129

The abbreviation in ‘Part-CC’ stand for (Cabin Crew).

Question 130

Dry lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the (lessor/lessee)​.

Answer 130

Dry lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the (lessee).

Question 131

When approaching a cleared flight level in RVSM airspace, the vertical speed should not exceed (350/750/1500/2000)​ ft/min.

Answer 131

When approaching a cleared flight level in RVSM airspace, the vertical speed should not exceed (1500) ft/min.

Question 132

Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the (left/right) in the Southern Hemisphere.

Answer 132

Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the (left) in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 133

(The) (ICAO/EASA/operator/member state)​ should conduct investigations, including ramp inspections, to prevent the continuation of infringements, for example after an aircraft has parked overnight and should be used of a flight.

Answer 133

The (member state) should conduct investigations, including ramp inspections, to prevent the continuation of infringements, for example after an aircraft has parked overnight and should be used of a flight.

Question 134

The abbreviation in ‘Part-ORA’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 134

The abbreviation in ‘Part-ORA’ stand for (Organisation Requirements for Air crew).

Question 135

For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes less than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than (…)​.

Answer 135

For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes less than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than (30 minutes).

Question 136

For a Category C aircraft circling, the MDH is (…) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (…) m.

Answer 136

For a Category C aircraft circling, the MDH is (600) ft and the minimum meteorological visibility (2400) ​m.

Question 137

If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by the abbreviation (NAT/OTS) followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

Answer 137

If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by the abbreviation (NAT) followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

Question 138

The abbreviation OTS means (…)​.

Answer 138

The abbreviation OTS means (Organised Track System).

Question 139

For a CAT I precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (…) ft with either a visibility not less than (…) m or an RVR not less than (…) m, (…) for helicopters.

Answer 139

For a CAT I precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (200) ft with either a visibility not less than (800) m or an RVR not less than (550) m, (500)​ for helicopters.

Question 140

Wet lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the (lessor/lessee)​.

Answer 140

Wet lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the (lessor).

Question 141

An airplane with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit(s).

Answer 141

An airplane with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 required a minimum of (5) first-aid kit(s).

Question 142

The standard lateral seperation minima to be maintained between aircraft flying in NAT MNPS airspace is (…)​ NM.

Answer 142

The standard lateral seperation minima to be maintained between aircraft flying in NAT MNPS airspace is (60) NM.

Question 143

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT III approach available is (…)​.

Answer 143

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT III approach available is (CAT I RVR).

Question 144

Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of > (5700/27000) kg or a MOPSC of > (9/19) are to be equipped with an ACAS.

Answer 144

Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of > (5700) kg or a MOPSC of > (19) are to be equipped with an ACAS.

Question 145

ICAO’s Annex 6, Part I SARPs refer to (Helicopters/CAT - Aeroplanes/General Aviation - Aeroplanes)​.

Answer 145

ICAO’s Annex 6, Part I SARPs refer to (CAT - Aeroplanes).

Question 146

An airplane with a MOPSC of 101 - 200 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit(s).

Answer 146

An airplane with a MOPSC of 101 - 200 required a minimum of (2) first-aid kit(s).

Question 147

On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, a turbojet engined aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including final reserve) sufficient for flying during (…)​.

Answer 147

On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, a turbojet engined aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including final reserve) sufficient for flying during (2 hours with normal cruise consumption).

Question 148

The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts at the crewmember’s home base shall be (…)​ hours.

Answer 148

The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts at the crewmember’s home base shall be (12) hours.

Question 149

A life jacket for each person on board shall be provided for:

(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than (…) NM from the shore or […]; and
(2) seaplanes operated over water.

Answer 149

A life jacket for each person on board shall be provided for:

(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than (50) NM from the shore or […]; and
(2) seaplanes operated over water.

Question 150

The time frame when referring to the Window of Circadion Low (WOCL) is from (…) until (…)​.

Answer 150

The time frame when referring to the Window of Circadion Low (WOCL) is from (02:00) until (05:59).

Question 151

A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 61 to 99 carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least (…) megaphone(s)​.

Answer 151

A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 61 to 99 carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least (1) megaphone(s).

Question 152

Pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than (15/21/30/60) days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator.

Answer 152

Pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than (21) days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator.

Question 153

The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations if all height call-outs below (200/500) ft above the (aerodrome/threshold) elevation are determined by a radio altimeter.

Answer 153

The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations if all height call-outs below (200) ft above the (threshold) elevation are determined by a radio altimeter.

Question 154

The (dispatcher/operator/commander) shall establish minimum flight altitudes for all route segments to be flown.

Answer 154

The (operator) shall establish minimum flight altitudes for all route segments to be flown.

Question 155

A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than (…)​ micro-tesla.

Answer 155

A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than (6) micro-tesla.

Question 156

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 156

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 must be equipped with at least (5) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 157

The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of (3/12/24/36)​ months.

Answer 157

The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of (36) months.

Question 158

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 61 - 200 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Answer 158

An aircraft with a MOPSC of 61 - 200 must be equipped with at least (3) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 159

During a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond (…)​.

Answer 159

During a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond (1000 ft above aerodrome on the final approach segment).

Question 160

For a CAT IIIa precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (…) ft with an RVR not less than (…) m.

Answer 160

For a CAT IIIa precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (100) ft with an RVR not less than (200) m.

Question 161

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with both aircraft flying the same Mach number, the longitudinal separation must nog be below (…) minutes.

Answer 161

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with both aircraft flying the same​ Mach number, the longitudinal separation must nog be below (15) minutes.

Question 162

The validity period of a night-time (eastbound/westbound) organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between (…) UTC and (…) UTC.

Answer 162

The validity period of a night-time (eastbound) organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between (0100) UTC and (0800) UTC.

Question 163

The abbreviation in ‘Part-ARO’ stand for (…)​.

Answer 163

The abbreviation in ‘Part-ARO’ stand for (Authority Requirements for Air Operators).

Question 164

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available is (…)​.

Answer 164

Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available is (CAT I RVR).

Question 165

Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of (…) degrees of longitude south of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.

Answer 165

Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of (10) degrees of longitude south of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.

Question 166

300 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (…).

Answer 166

300 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (SRA 1, VOR (50 ft less if combined with DME) )​.