1. Anemias and WBC Disorders Flashcards
(242 cards)
1
Q
Formula for the corrected reticulocyte count (CRC) is _________.
A
(% observed reticulocyte)(patient hct) / 45
2
Q
Formula for the reticulocute production index (RPI) is _________.
A
CRC * (1/CF)
3
Q
An RPI of < ___ indicates failure of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
A
2
4
Q
________ must be specifically stained for their RNA in order to actually see them on a blood smear.
A
Reticulocytes
5
Q
The _______ ________ _____ count is the laboratory test that is done to determine bone marrow production.
A
Corrected reticulocyte count
6
Q
_____ cells are usually an artifact on a blood smear.
A
Burr
7
Q
_______ ______ are multiple blue dots seen in a red blood cell and they are associated with lead poisoning.
A
Basophilic stippling
8
Q
Basophilic stippling are multiple blue dots seen in a red blood cell and they are associated with _______ ________.
A
Lead poisoning
9
Q
_____ ____ in a red blood cell is associated with a post-splenectomy.
A
Cabot’s ring
10
Q
Cabot’s ring in a red blood cell is associated with a ___________.
A
Post-splenectomy
11
Q
______ bodies are associated with paraproteinemias due to neoplastic change in white blood cells.
A
Rouleaux
12
Q
Acanthocytes or _____ cells are associated with liver disease.
A
Spur
13
Q
_________ is a red blood cell morphology associated with liver disease.
A
Acanthocytes
14
Q
_______ disease is most associated with the acanthocyte (spur) red blood cell morphology.
A
Liver
15
Q
A smooth tongue is a physical sign seen in ______ _____ ______ anemia.
A
Severe Fe deficiency
16
Q
The _______ _____ reflex is diminished in patients with hypothyroidism.
A
Achilles tendon
17
Q
Free erythrocyte _______ is a good way to distinguish between Fe deficiency and thalassemia minor.
A
Protoporphyrin
18
Q
Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is a good way to distinguish between Fe deficiency and ________ ______.`
A
Thalassemia minor
19
Q
In anemia of chronic disease, the bone marrow storage iron is (increased/decreased?).
A
Increased
Fe is being made and there’s just an interference in it being absorbed so it’s building up in the bone marrow.
20
Q
Microcytosis and a High RDW is a characterisitic pattern of ______ _______.
A
Fe deficiency
21
Q
_______ and a High RDW is a characteristic pattern of Fe deficiency.
A
Microcytosis
22
Q
Normocytosis and a normal RDW is a characteristic pattern of _____________.
A
Anemia of chronic disease
23
Q
Normocytosis and a _______ RDW is a characteristic pattern of anemia of chronic disease.
A
Normal
24
Q
Microcytosis and a normal RDW is characteristic of __________.
A
Thalassemia
25
Microcytosis and a _______ RDW is characteristic of thalassemia.
Normal
26
Aplastic anemia presents with a ______ and a normal RDW.
Macrocytosis
27
______ anemia presents with a macrocytosis and a normal RDW.
Aplastic
28
Hemolysis or RBC breakdown requires a sweep of studies and laboratory tests including haptoglobin, ______, and LDH.
Bilirubin
29
Hemolysis or RBC breakdown requires a sweep of studies and laboratory tests including haptoglobin, bilirubin, and _____.
LDH
30
_______ ______ _____ is a value that is high in Fe deficiency because tissues are looking for it to take it in.
Soluble transferrin receptors
31
On hemoglobin electrophoresis for Sickle cell disease, Hgb __ will not be present.
A
32
On hemoglobin electrophoresis for _____ ____ disease, HgbA will not be present.
Sickle cell
33
_____ _____ and SLE are two chronic inflammatory diseases associated with anemia of chronic disease.
Rheumatoid arthritis
34
Rheumatoid arthritis and ____ are two chronic inflammatory diseases associated with anemia of chronic disease.
SLE
35
Rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are two chronic inflammatory diseases associated with ______ _____ ______.
Anemia of Chronic Disease
36
A positive ______ test is a diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
Coomb's
37
A positive Coomb's test is a diagnosis of _____ ______ anemia.
Autoimmune hemolytic
38
Macrocytic anemia without a proper upregulation of the ________ response means that ancillary tests should be ordered.
reticulocyte
(do a thyroid function test, cytogenetic analysis w/ Fe stores analysis)
(drug test, malabsorption studies, Schilling test)
39
When an anemia is both normocytic and normochromic and there is no reticulocyte response, you should suspect _______.
malignancy
40
An ______ _______ test should be done when spherocytes are seen on a blood smear.
osmotic fragility
41
An osmotic fragility test should be done when ________are seen on a blood smear.
spherocytes
42
Hemoglobin H disease can be stained for with _____ ______ _____` stain which represents unstable Hgb.
brilliant cresyl blue
43
________ ___ disease can be stained for with brilliant cresyl blue stain which represents unstable Hgb.
Hemoglobin H
44
_________ disease is mental retardation with an accompanying anemia.
Fanconi's
45
The presence of _____ cells and rouleaux cells indicate that you should examine the bone marrow.
teardrop
46
The presence of teardrop cells and _______ cells indicate that you should examine the bone marrow.
rouleaux
47
A decrease in serum ______ is the earliest indication of iron deficiency when inflammation is absent.
ferritin
48
_________ is an Fe overload diasease wherein serum Fe is incredibly high.
Hemocromatosis
49
Hemocromatosis is an Fe overload diasease wherein serum _____ is incredibly high.
Fe
50
What are the normal blood cell counts for red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, in that order?
5-15-45
51
[...] is the average amount of hemoglobin in a given red blood cell.
Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)
52
[...] is the average amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of blood.
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
53
An MCHC < [...] is indicative of a hypochromic condition.
32
54
An MCHC < 32 is indicative of a [...] condition.
hypochromic
55
The formula for MCV is [...].
10(Hct/RBC)
56
The normal range for the [...] is 10.2 - 14.5 %.
RDW
57
The normal range for the RDW is [...] %.
10.2 - 14.5
58
[...] anemia has characteristic oval-shaped cells.
Megaloblastic
59
Megaloblastic anemia has characteristic [...]-shaped cells.
oval
60
[...] anemia has characterisitic round-shaped cells.
Non-megaloblastic
61
Non-megaloblastic anemia has characterisitic [...]-shaped cells.
round
62
An [...] reticulocyte count means that the bone marrow is producing a lot of blood cells so hemolysis is happening and it's important to know if it is intravascular or extravascular.
elevated
63
An elevated reticulocyte count means that the bone marrow is producing a lot of blood cells so hemolysis is happening and it's important to know if it is [...] or [...].
intravascular, extravascular
64
Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria is a differential for [...] hemolysis in a normocytic anemia.
intrinsic
65
Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria is a differential for intrinsic hemolysis in a [...] anemia.
normocytic
66
A chronic blood loss of >[...] week is indicative of an extravascular hemolysis.
1
67
A chronic blood loss of >1 week is indicative of an [...] hemolysis.
extravascular
68
Malaria is a cause of [...] hemolysis in normocytic anemia.
extravascular
69
The major symptom in [...] hemolysis is hemoglobinuria.
intravascular
70
The major symptom in intravascular hemolysis is [...].
hemoglobinuria
71
Aside from Fe deficiency, [...] anemia can also be caused by defects in hemoglobin synthesis known as thalassemia.
microcytic
72
Aside from Fe deficiency, microcytic anemia can also be caused by defects in hemoglobin synthesis known as [...].
thalassemia
73
Serum levels of Fe are proportional to storage Fe in the bone marrow at a value of [...].
1:8
74
Excess Fe storage in the bone marrow is a cause of [...] anemia.
sideroblastic
75
A bone marrow biopsy is not helpful in diagnosing [...] because it is a peripheral smear diagnosis.
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
76
A [...] is not helpful in diagnosing chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) because it is a peripheral smear diagnosis.
bone marrow biopsy
77
Bone marrow biopsies are not helpful in diagnosing hemolytic anemias without evidence of [...] or [...].
leukemia or lymphoma
78
[...] are not helpful in diagnosing hemolytic anemias without evidence of leukemia or lymphoma.
Bone marrow biopsies
79
Bone marrow biopsies can be used to evaluate bone metastasis in certain malignancies such as [...].
oat cell carcinomas
80
Bone marrow biopsies can be used to evaluate bone [...] in certain malignancies such as oat cell carcinomas.
metastasis
81
[...] or unexplained cytopenia are indications for a bone marrow biopsy.
FUO
82
FUO or unexplained [...] are indications for a bone marrow biopsy.
cytopenia
83
The [...] is the preferred site for a bone biopsy.
PSIS
84
The normal value for the M/E ratio is [...].
3:1
85
An [...] M/E ratio is indicative of either CML, and infection, or erythroid hypoplasia.
elevated
86
An elevated M/E ratio is indicative of either [...], an infection, or erythroid hypoplasia.
CML
87
An elevated M/E ratio is indicative of either CML, an [...], or erythroid hypoplasia.
infection
88
In a bone marrow biopsy, most hematopoietic elements can be found near the [...] save for the lymphoid aggregates.
bony spicules
89
In a bone marrow biopsy, most hematopoietic elements can be found near the bony spicules save for the [...].
lymphoid aggregates
90
[...] are the 30-40% of normoblasts that contain ferritin granules.
Sideroblasts
91
Sideroblasts are the [...]% of normoblasts that contain ferritin granules.
30-40
92
More than [...] ferritin granules in a sideroblast is indicative of a malignancy.
1-2
93
[...] hypertension is one of the non-specific symptoms associated with anemia.
Postural
94
Postural hypertension is one of the non-specific symptoms associated with [...].
anemia
95
Anemia presents with a [...]-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve leading to increased 2,3-DPG.
right
96
Anemia presents with a right-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve leading to [increased/decreased] 2,3-DPG.
increased
97
[...] anemia is a secondary anemia due to chronic atrophic gastritis leading to lack of IF.
Pernicious
98
Pernicious anemia is a secondary anemia due to [...] leading to lack of IF.
chronic atrophic gastritis
99
[...], and parietal canalicular antibodies are the three antibodies that are seen in pernicious anemia.
IF blocking/IF binding
100
IF blocking/IF binding, and [...] antibodies are the three antibodies that are seen in pernicious anemia.
parietal canalicular
101
IF blocking/IF binding, and parietal canalicular antibodies are the three antibodies that are seen in [...] anemia.
pernicious
102
[...] syndrome presents with spoon-shaped nails, esophageal webs, pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an atrophic tongue.
Plummer vinson
103
Plummer vinson syndrome presents with [...] nails, esophageal webs, pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an atrophic tongue.
spoon-shaped
104
Plummer vinson syndrome presents with spoon-shaped nails, [...] , pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an atrophic tongue.
esophageal webs
105
Plummer vinson syndrome presents with spoon-shaped nails, esophageal webs, pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an [...].
atrophic tongue
106
[...] anemias present with hypersegmented neutrophils on the peripheral blood smear.
Macrocytic
107
Macrocytic anemias present with [...] neutrophils on the peripheral blood smear.
hypersegmented
108
The neurological problems in vitamin B12 deficiency can be attributed to either increases in the enzyme [...] or in propionate.
methylmalonate
109
The neurological problems in vitamin B12 deficiency can be attributed to either increases in the enzyme methylmalonate or in [...].
propionate
110
[...] bodies are see in the spleen in patients with sickle cell disease.
Gandy-gamna
111
Gandy-gamna bodies are see in the [...] in patients with sickle cell disease.
spleen
112
Gandy-gamna bodies are see in the spleen in patients with [...] disease.
sickle cell
113
[...] anemia is due to red blood cell damage caused by abnormally narrow blood vessels.
Microangiopathic hemolytic
114
[...] is caused by a deficit in the PIG-A protein.
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
115
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is caused by a deficit in the [...] protein.
PIG-A
116
[...] anemia is a pure red cell aplasia.
Diamond blackfan
117
Diamond blackfan anemia is a pure [...] aplasia.
red cell
118
Hypersegmented PMNs are characterized as having greater than [...] segments.
5-7
119
[...] anemia presents with an increase in the LDH enzyme due to the intramedullary destruction of precursor cells.
Megaloblastic
120
Megaloblastic anemia presents with an increase in the [...] enzyme due to the intramedullary destruction of precursor cells.
LDH
121
[...] and OCPs are two medications that inhibit the absorption of vitamin B12.
Diphenylhydantoin
122
Diphenylhydantoin and [...] are two medications that inhibit the absorption of vitamin B12.
OCPs
123
[...] hemolysis is usually hereditary while [...] hemolysis is always acquired.
Intracorpuscular, extracorpuscular
124
[...] hemoglobinuria is caused by a defect in the C5-C9 complement proteins.
Paroxysmal cold
125
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is caused by a defect in the [...] complement proteins.
C5-C9
126
Defected [...] antibodies can be a cause of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.
Donath-Landsteiner
127
Defected Donath-Landsteiner antibodies can be a cause of [...].
paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
128
[...] AIHA is induced by IgG which binds to the Fc receptors on splenic macrophages causing spherocytosis.
Warm antibody
129
Warm antibody AIHA is induced by [...] which binds to the Fc receptors on splenic macrophages causing spherocytosis.
IgG
130
Warm antibody AIHA is induced by IgG which binds to the Fc receptors on splenic macrophages causing [...].
spherocytosis
131
[...] AIHA is induced by IgM which further produces anti-IgI and anti-Igi.
Cold antibody
132
Cold antibody AIHA is induced by [...] which further produces anti-IgI and anti-Igi.
IgM
133
[...] in cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-mycoplasma infection.
anti-I
134
anti-I in cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-[...] infection.
mycoplasma
135
[...] cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-mononucleosis infection.
anti-i
136
anti-i cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-[...] infection.
mononucleosis
137
Hereditary [...] is caused by a defect in protein 4.1 which prevents spectrin from binding to actin.
spherocytosis
138
Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by a defect in [...] which prevents spectrin from binding to actin.
protein 4.1
139
A high MCHC > [...] is characterisitic of hereditary spherocytosis and requires a splenectomy.
36
140
A high MCHC > 36 is characterisitic of hereditary [...] and requires a splenectomy.
spherocytosis
141
[...] globin genes are encoded on chromosome 16 and there are 4 of them.
alpha
142
alpha globin genes are encoded on chromosome [...] and there are 4 of them.
16
143
A knockout of [...] alpha genes leads to a patient with thalassemia trait.
2
144
A knockout of 2 alpha genes leads to a patient with [...].
thalassemia trait
145
[...] disease is caused by a knockout of 3 alpha genes leading to the formation of beta blobin tetramers.
Hemoglobin H
146
Hemoglobin H disease is caused by a knockout of [...] alpha genes leading to the formation of beta globin tetramers.
3
147
Hemoglobin H disease is caused by a knockout of 3 alpha genes leading to the formation of [...].
beta globin tetramers
148
alpha thalassemia trait can either be cis- as seen in [...] or trans- as seen in [...].
asians, africans
149
[...] is caused by splicing mutations in the genes of the same name located on chromosome 11.
Beta thalassemia
150
Beta thalassemia is caused by splicing mutations in the genes of the same name located on chromosome [...].
11
151
Knockout of both beta genes is known as [...] or Cooley's anemia.
beta thalassemia major
152
Knockout of both beta genes is known as beta thalassemia major or [...].
Cooley's anemia
153
In beta thalassemia major, patients produce hemoglobin types [...] and [...].
F, A2
| since there's no beta anymore
154
[...] presents with a 'crew cut' appearance of the skull on x-ray.
Cooley's anemia
155
Cooley's anemia presents with a [...] appearance of the skull on x-ray.
'crew cut'
156
White blood cell counts are based on the [...] pool granulocyte pool.
circulating
157
The normal range for the WBC count is [...]/uL.
4.5-11 *10e3
158
[...] is a marker for CALLA as well as for ovarian stroma.
CD10
159
CD10 is a marker for [...] as well as for ovarian stroma.
CALLA
160
CD10 is a marker for CALLA as well as for [...].
ovarian stroma
161
CD45 is a [...] marker.
leukocyte
162
The [...] pattern of lymph node hyperplasia involves all three cell types (B cells, T cells, histiocytes) and is associated with severe viral infections.
diffuse
163
The diffuse pattern of lymph node hyperplasia involves all three cell types (B cells, T cells, histiocytes) and is associated with severe [...] infections.
viral
164
[...] disease is the forme fruste for SLE.
Kikuchi's
165
[...] or azurophilic granules contain bacteria permeability increasing (BPI) enzymes and myelperoxidase, amother other enzymes.
Primary
166
Primary or azurophilic granules contain [...] enzymes and myelperoxidase, among other other enzymes.
bacteria permeability increasing (BPI)
167
Primary or azurophilic granules contain bacteria permeability increasing (BPI) enzymes and [...], among other other enzymes.
myeloperoxidase
168
The [...] pattern of lymph node hyperplasia is seen in chronic diseases and involves B cells and histiocytes.
mixed
169
The mixed pattern of lymph node hyperplasia is seen in [...] diseases and involves B cells and histiocytes.
chronic
170
[...] have a characteristic crystalline core seen on electron microscopy called major basic protein (MBP).
Eosinophils
171
Eosinophils have a characteristic crystalline core seen on electron microscopy called [...].
major basic protein (MBP)
172
[...] are seen in the eosinophils of patients with asthma.
Charcot-Leyden crystals
173
Charcot-Leyden crystals are seen in the eosinophils of patients with [...].
asthma
174
[...] is a benign defect of WBCs where the PMNs are bilobed but otherwise function normally.
Pelget Huet anomaly
175
Pelget Huet anomaly is a benign defect of WBCs where the PMNs are [...] but otherwise function normally.
bilobed
176
[...] is caused by a defect in mucopolysaccharides and it presents as gargoylism in affected patients.
Alder-Reilly anomaly
177
Alder-Reilly anomaly is caused by a defect in [...] and it presents as gargoylism in affected patients.
mucopolysaccharides
178
Alder-Reilly anomaly is caused by a defect in mucopolysaccharides and it presents as [...] in affected patients.
gargoylism
179
[...] are remnants of rER from earlier maturation stages that can be seen in the case of toxic granulation.
Dohle bodies
180
Dohle bodies are remnants of rER from earlier maturation stages that can be seen in the case of [...].
toxic granulation
181
[...] is a disease confined to the lymph nodes while [...] is a disease that begins in the blood.
Lymphoma, leukemia
182
[...] is a lung disease associated with Beer-Beck granules.
Histiocytosis X
183
Histiocytosis X is a lung disease associated with [...] granules.
Beer-Beck
184
[...] leukemia is associated with hypersensitivity to GM-CSF due to a monosomy on chromosome 7.
Juvenile myelomonocytic
185
Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia is associated with hypersensitivity to GM-CSF due to a monosomy on chromosome [...].
7
186
[...] is caused by stem cell disorders with peripheral blood cytopenia and hematopoietic dysplasia.
Myelodysplastic syndrome
187
1/3rd of patients with myelodysplasic syndrome acquire refractory [...] which presents with <5% blasts.
AML
188
1/3rd of patients with myelodysplasic syndrome acquire refractory AML which presents with
5
189
Myelodysplastic syndrome with an isolated [...] abnormality has the best prognosis of all the chromosomal abnormalities.
del 5q
190
[...] present in children and are usually of the B cell category.
Acute lymphoblastic leukemias
191
[...] leukemias are caused by an arrestation of colonal cells in early stages of differentiation in chronic leukemias, cells can still differentiate.
Acute
192
Acute leukemias are caused by an arrestation of colonal cells in early stages of differentiation in [...] leukemias, cells can still differentiate.
chronic
193
[...] presents in adults and has characteristic auer rods on histological section.
Acute myelocytic leukemia
194
Acute myelocytic leukemia presents in adults and has characteristic [...] on histological section.
auer rods
195
[...] is a genetic variation of acute myelocytic leukemia that an ve treated with trans-retinoic acid.
AML(APL) t(15;17)(q22;11-12)
196
AML(APL) t(15;17)(q22;11-12) is a genetic variation of acute myelocytic leukemia that an ve treated with [...].
trans-retinoic acid
197
[...] with a t(8;21) translocation or an abnormality on chromosome 16 has a good prognosis.
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
198
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) with a [...] translocation or an abnormality on chromosome 16 has a good prognosis.
t(8;21)
199
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) with a t(8;21) translocation or an abnormality on chromosome [...] has a good prognosis.
16
200
[...] is associated with the ZAP-70 protein.
B cell prolymphocytic NHL
201
B cell prolymphocytic NHL is associated with the [...] protein.
ZAP-70
202
[...] NHL is CD5 negative.
Lymphoplasmacytic
203
Lymphoplasmacytic NHL is [...] negative.
CD5
204
[...] NHL is associated with hepatitis C viral infection.
Splenic marginal zone
205
Splenic marginal zone NHL is associated with [...] viral infection.
hepatitis C
206
[...] leukemia is positive for TRAP (tartrate resistance acid phosphatase).
Hairy cell
207
[...] leukemia will present with a 'dry tap' on bone marrow biopsy.
Hairy cell
208
Hairy cell leukemia is positive for [...].
TRAP (tartrate resistance acid phosphatase)
209
Hairy cell leukemia will present with a [...] on bone marrow biopsy.
'dry tap'
210
[...] is positive for the Tdt enzyme.
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
211
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is positive for the [...] enzyme.
Tdt
212
An important [...] NHL phenotype is the formation of IgH on 14q32.
plasma cell myeloma
213
An important plasma cell myeloma NHL phenotype is the formation of [...] on 14q32.
IgH
214
An important plasma cell myeloma NHL phenotype is the formation of IgH on [...].
14q32
215
[...] NHL is CD20 positive and CALLA negative.
Marginal zone lymphoma (MALT)
216
Marginal zone lymphoma (MALT) NHL is CD20 [...] and CALLA [...].
positive, negative
217
[...] has a "starry sky" pattern on histology and its associated with the c-myc protein.
Burkitt's lymphoma
218
Burkitt's lymphoma has a [...] pattern on histology and its associated with the c-myc protein.
"starry sky"
219
Burkitt's lymphoma has a "starry sky" pattern on histology and its associated with the [...] protein.
c-myc
220
[...] is always negative in Burkitt's lymphoma.
Bcl-2
221
Bcl-2 is always [...] in Burkitt's lymphoma.
negative
222
[...] neoplasms are associated with Sezary syndrome in adults.
Mature T cell/NK
223
Mature T cell/NK neoplasms are associated with [...] in adults.
Sezary syndrome`
224
[...] is associated with punched-out lytic lesions on xray and Bence-Jones proteins in the urine.
Plasma cell myeloma
225
Plasma cell myeloma is associated with [...] lesions on xray and Bence-Jones proteins in the urine.
punched-out lytic
226
Plasma cell myeloma is associated with punched-out lytic lesions on xray and [...] proteins in the urine.
Bence-Jones
227
The characteristic cell of [...] is Reed--Sternberg cells.
Hodgkin's lymphoma
228
The characteristic cell of Hodgkin's lymphoma is [...] cells.
Reed--Sternberg
229
[...] are tumors of thymic epithelial cells.
Thymomas
230
[...] is associated with the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene which has a t(9;22)(q34:11.2) translocation
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
231
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is associated with the [...] fusion gene which has a t(9;22)(q34:11.2) translocation
BCR-ABL1
232
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is associated with the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene which has a [...] translocation
t(9;22)(q34:11.2)
233
[...] can progress to diffuse large B cell lymphoma which is known as Richter's transformation syndrome.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
234
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can progress to diffuse large B cell lymphoma which is known as [...] syndrome.
Richter's transformation
235
[...] syndrome is a t(11;14) translocation.
Richter's transformation
236
Richter's transformation syndrome is a [...] translocation.
t(11;14)
237
[...] has characteristic smudge cells on histology.
CLL/SLL
238
CLL/SLL has characteristic [...] cells on histology.
smudge
239
Langerhan's cell histiocytosis is [...] positive.
CD1a
240
[...] lesions are only seen in MZL/MALT lymphomas.
Lymphoepithelial
241
Lymphoepithelial lesions are only seen in [...] lymphomas.
MZL/MALT
242
[...] is the most common type of Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Nodular sclerosis
