5. Bone, Muscle, Soft tissue pathology Flashcards
(155 cards)
1
Q
[…] is a developmental disorder that causes soft/hypoplastic nails and it can lead to the major concern which is progressive nephropathy.
A
Nail-patella syndrome
2
Q
Nail-patella syndrome is a developmental disorder that causes […] and it can lead to the major concern which is progressive nephropathy.
A
soft/hypoplastic nails
3
Q
Nail-patella syndrome is a developmental disorder that causes soft/hypoplastic nails and it can lead to the major concern which is […].
A
progressive nephropathy
4
Q
[…] presents with bone fragility, hearing loss, and blue sclera.
A
Osteogenesis imperfecta
5
Q
Osteogenesis imperfecta presents with bone fragility, hearing loss, and […].
A
blue sclera
6
Q
Osteogenesis imperfecta in caused by defects in the […] and […] genes.
A
COL1A1, COL1A2
7
Q
[…] syndrome is a severe disorder of bone associated with hearing loss and retinal dettachment which can lead to blindness.
A
Stickler
8
Q
Stickler syndrome is a severe disorder of bone associated with hearing loss and […] which can lead to blindness.
A
retinal dettachment
9
Q
[…] is associated with a widened pelvic area known as coxa vara.
A
Schmid metaphyseal chondrodysplasia
10
Q
Schmid metaphyseal chondrodysplasia is associated with a widened pelvic area known as […].
A
coxa vara
11
Q
[…] is a defect in the FGFR3 receptor leading to the abnormal proliferation of chondrocytes and osteblasts causing a frontal bossing appearance.
A
Achondroplasia
12
Q
Achondroplasia is a defect in the […] receptor leading to the abnormal proliferation of chondrocytes and osteblasts causing a frontal bossing appearance.
A
FGFR3
13
Q
Achondroplasia is a defect in the FGFR3 receptor leading to the abnormal proliferation of chondrocytes and osteblasts causing a […] appearance.
A
frontal bossing
14
Q
[…] is a paramyxovirus infection of bone leading to easily fractured sclerotic bone.
A
Paget’s disease of bone
15
Q
Paget’s disease of bone is a paramyxovirus infection of bone leading to easily fractured […] bone.
A
sclerotic
hat changing size is a common statement
16
Q
One of the severe complications of paget’s disease is […].
A
high output cardiac failure
17
Q
[…] is hardening of the bone due to a genetic disorder leading to reduced osteoclast functioning.
A
Osteopetrosis
18
Q
Osteopetrosis is hardening of the bone due to a genetic disorder leading to reduced […] functioning.
A
osteoclast
19
Q
The […] form of osteopetrosis leads to renal tubular acidosis.
A
carbonic anhydrase II
20
Q
The carbonic anhydrase II form of osteopetrosis leads to […].
A
renal tubular acidosis
21
Q
[…] can lead to the development of osteitis fibrosa cystica which presents with a spearhead arrangement of osteoclasts in the center of the trabeculum.
A
Hyperparathyroidism
22
Q
Hyperparathyroidism can lead to the development of […] which presents with a spearhead arrangement of osteoclasts in the center of the trabeculum.
A
osteitis fibrosa cystica
23
Q
Hyperparathyroidism can lead to the development of osteitis fibrosa cystica which presents with a […] of osteoclasts in the center of the trabeculum.
A
spearhead arrangement (dissecting osteitis)
24
Q
The healing response that occurs in […] is called creeping substitution however, the bone usually collapses anyway as this process is too slow.
A
avascular necrosis
25
The healing response that occurs in avascular necrosis is called [...] however, the bone usually collapses anyway as this process is too slow.
creeping substitution
26
[...] and [...] are seen on histiological sections of syphilis induced osteomyelitis.
Gummata, plasma cells
27
Osteomyelitis commonly occurs in the [...] and [...].
long bones, vertebral bodies
28
If the host response to osteomyelitis is to wall of the affected area, this is known as [...].
brodie abscess
29
Ocassionally, the host response to [...] is to form extensive amounts of new bone in the jaw and this is called sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre.
osteomyelitis
30
Ocassionally, the host response to osteomyelitis is to form extensive amounts of new bone in the jaw and this is called [...].
sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre
31
The [...] is the most important prognostic feature of a bone sarcoma.
histiologic grade
32
The histiologic grade is the most important prognostic feature of a [...].
bone sarcoma
33
Osteosarcomas are most commonly found in the [...] area around the knee.
metaphyseal
34
Osteosarcomas are most commonly found in the metaphyseal area around the [...].
knee
35
[...] are painful bone lesions in adolescents that are found in the diaphyseal area.
Osteoid osteomas
36
Osteoid osteomas are painful bone lesions in adolescents that are found in the [...] area.
diaphyseal
37
[...] are painful bone lesions that are suddenly relieved by NSAIDs.
Osteoid osteomas
38
Osteoid osteomas are painful bone lesions that are suddenly relieved by [...].
NSAIDs
39
[...] is also known as Albright syndrome.
Fibrous dysplasia
40
Fibrous dysplasia is also known as [...].
Albright syndrome
41
[...] are usually benign solitary lesions that are seen in the skull. When they appear in multiples, this is associated with Gardner syndrome.
Osteomas
42
Osteomas are usually benign solitary lesions that are seen in the skull. When they appear in multiples, this is associated with [...].
Gardner syndrome
43
Osteoid osteomas appear [...] on bone scan.
hot
44
[...] and [...] osteosarcomas are two subtypes of osteosarcoma with good prognoses.
Periosteal, parosteal (juxtacortical)
45
[...] osteosarcoma has a characteristic lifting of the periosteum on xray known as Codman's triangle.
Periosteal
46
Periosteal osteosarcoma has a characteristic lifting of the periosteum on xray known as [...].
Codman's triangle
47
A [...] translocation is common to Ewing's/PNET sarcoma which both arise in the diaphyseal area.
t(11,22)
48
A t(11,22) translocation is common to [...] sarcoma which both arise in the diaphyseal area.
Ewing's/PNET
49
A t(11,22) translocation is common to Ewing's/PNET sarcoma which both arise in the [...] area.
diaphyseal
50
[...] sarcoma has an onion-skinning appearance on xray.
Ewing's/PNET
51
Ewing's/PNET sarcoma has an [...] appearance on xray.
onion-skinning
52
[...] are benign cartilage forming tumors that develop in bones of endochondral origin.
Osteochondromas
53
Osteochondromas are benign cartilage forming tumors that develop in bones of [...] origin.
endochondral
54
[...] are usually solitary lesions that favor the short tubular bones of the hands and feet.
Enchondromas
55
Enchondromas are usually solitary lesions that favor the [...] bones of the hands and feet.
short tubular
56
[...] disease is a skeletal disorder that presents with multiple enchondromas.
Ollier
57
Ollier disease is a skeletal disorder that presents with multiple [...].
enchondromas
58
[...] is an enchondromatosis associated with soft tissue hemangiomas and patients are further at risk for ovarian carcinoma and brain gliomas.
Maffuci syndrome
59
Maffuci syndrome is an enchondromatosis associated with [...] and patients are further at risk for ovarian carcinoma and brain gliomas.
soft tissue hemangiomas
60
Maffuci syndrome is an enchondromatosis associated with soft tissue hemangiomas and patients are further at risk for ovarian carcinoma and [...].
brain gliomas
61
[...] are begin tumors with a "chicken-wire" appearance that usually affects young patients and cause pain due to their proximity to the joints.
Chondroblastomas
62
Chondroblastomas are begin tumors with a [...] appearance that usually affects young patients and cause pain due to their proximity to the joints.
"chicken-wire"
63
Chondroblastomas are S100 [...] on histological stain.
positive
64
[...] are the 2nd most common primary malignancy of bone and they most often arise in the pelvis.
Chondrosarcomas
65
Chondrosarcomas are the 2nd most common primary malignancy of bone and they most often arise in the [...].
pelvis
66
[...] present with a "snow storm" appearance on xray.
Chondrosarcomas
67
Chondrosarcomas present with a [...] appearance on xray.
"snow storm"
68
Chondrosarcomas are S100 [...] on histological stain.
positive
69
The [...] form of fibrous dysplasia is seen in Mc-Cune albright syndrome and it's due to a somatic mutation of the c-fos oncogene.
polyostotic
70
The polyostotic form of fibrous dysplasia is seen in [...] syndrome and it's due to a somatic mutation of the c-fos oncogene.
Mc-Cune albright
71
The polyostotic form of fibrous dysplasia is seen in Mc-Cune albright syndrome and it's due to a somatic mutation of the [...] oncogene.
c-fos
72
[...] cysts are associated with IGF-1.
Aneurysmal bone
73
Aneurysmal bone cysts are associated with [...].
IGF-1 (Insulin-like Growth Factor 1)
74
[...] of long bones is one of the few bone tumors that involves the lymph nodes.
Adamantinomas
75
Adamantinomas of long bones is one of the few bone tumors that involves the [...].
lymph nodes
76
[...] stain positive for keratin 14 and 19.
Adamantinomas
77
Adamantinomas stain positive for keratin [...] and [...].
14,19
78
[...] are commonly seen in tuberculous infectious arthritis of the joints.
'Rice bodies'
79
'Rice bodies' are commonly seen in [...] infectious arthritis of the joints.
tuberculous
80
A [...] lesion of the skull is characteristic of multiple myeloma.
punctate moth-eaten
81
A punctate moth-eaten lesion of the skull is characteristic of [...].
multiple myeloma
82
Multiple myelomas are [...] on bone scan.
cold
83
Ewings sarcoma is identified by [...] stain on histological section.
PAS (stains the glycogen)
84
[...] cysts present with a pathognomonic 'fallen leaf' sign on x-ray in children.
Simple bone
85
Simple bone cysts present with a pathognomonic [...] sign on x-ray in children.
'fallen leaf'
86
[...] is the formation of bone where it doesn't belong and it is unknown why this occurs.
Myositis ossificans
| accident and burn victims tend to develop this
87
A [...] tumor is a characteristically painful soft tissue tumor that usually appears as a subungual mass.
glomus
88
A glomus tumor is a characteristically painful soft tissue tumor that usually appears as a [...] mass.
subungual
89
[...] presents as a superficial forearm mass with a storiform pattern and abundant stromal mucin.
Nodular fasciitis
90
Nodular fasciitis presents as a superficial forearm mass with a [...] pattern and abundant stromal mucin.
storiform
91
Nodular fasciitis presents as a superficial forearm mass with a storiform pattern and abundant stromal [...].
mucin
92
A [...] is a benign tumor of middle-aged adults and multiples can be seen in Mazabraud syndrome.
myxoma
93
A myxoma is a benign tumor of middle-aged adults and multiples can be seen in [...] syndrome.
Mazabraud
94
A [...] tumor is a deep form of fibromatosis and it stains positive for CD117.
desmoid
95
A desmoid tumor is a deep form of fibromatosis and it stains positive for [...].
CD117
96
[...] tumors are soft tissue tumors associated with Gardner syndrome and APC/B catenin gene mutations.
Desmoid
97
Desmoid tumors are soft tissue tumors associated with [...] and APC/B catenin gene mutations.
Gardner syndrome
98
Desmoid tumors are soft tissue tumors associated with Gardner syndrome and [...] gene mutations.
APC/B catenin
99
[...] have a herringbone growth pattern and they are S100 negative.
Fibrosarcomas
100
Fibrosarcomas have a [...] growth pattern and they are S100 negative.
herringbone
101
Fibrosarcomas have a herringbone growth pattern and they are S100 [...].
negative
102
[...] soft tissue tumors stain with factor XIIIa on immunohistochemistry.
Fibrohistiocytic lesion
103
Fibrohistiocytic lesion soft tissue tumors stain with [...] on immunohistochemistry.
factor XIIIa
104
[...] stains positive for CD34 which differentiates it from dermatofibroma.
Dermatofibrosarcoma
105
Dermatofibrosarcoma stains positive for [...] which differentiates it from dermatofibroma.
CD34
106
[...] has a Grenz zone which forms due to sparring of the overlying dermis.
Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
107
A [...] tumor is the melanin pigment form of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.
bednar
108
A bednar tumor is the melanin pigment form of [...].
dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
109
Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans has a [...] which forms due to sparring of the overlying dermis.
Grenz zone
110
Dermatofibrosarcoma is associated with [...] as well as chronic arsenic exposure.
acanthosis nigricans
111
[...] cells are the defining cells for malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
Mononuclear
112
Mononuclear cells are the defining cells for [...].
malignant fibrous histiocytoma
113
[...] are the painful variant of lipomas.
Angiomyolipomas
114
Lipomas harden with the application of [...].
ice
115
[...] small round blue cell tumors have a trilineage differentiation and they are seen intraabdominally in young boys.
Desmoplasic
116
Desmoplasic small round blue cell tumors have a trilineage differentiation and they are seen [...] in young boys.
intraabdominally
117
[...] sarcomas are large tumors that are seen in the popliteal fossa.
Synovial
118
Synovial sarcomas are large tumors that are seen in the [...].
popliteal fossa
119
Synovial sarcomas are keratin and [...] positive.
EMA
120
[...] crystals can be seen on electron microscopy in young women with alveolar soft part sarcoma.
Rhomboid
121
Rhomboid crystals can be seen on electron microscopy in young women with [...] sarcoma.
alveolar soft part
122
[...] bodies are common to schwannomas.
Verocay
123
Verocay bodies are common to [...].
schwannomas
124
[...] is associated with psammomatous melanotic schwannoma which is a low grade malignancy that can be metastatic.
Carney syndrome
125
Carney syndrome is associated with [...] schwannoma which is a low grade malignancy that can be metastatic.
psammomatous melanotic
126
Granular cell tumors cause a reaction called a [...] hyperplasia.
pseudoepitheliomatous
127
The [...] is a structure that is commonly involved in granular cell tumors.
larynx
128
The larynx is a structure that is commonly involved in [...] tumors.
granular cell
129
[...] typically present with long, serpentine-shaped cells.
Neurofibromas
130
Neurofibromas typically present with long, [...]-shaped cells.
serpentine
131
[...] corpuscles are seen in the diffuse form of neurofibroma, a soft tissue tumor.
Wagner-meissner
132
Wagner-meissner corpuscles are seen in the [...] form of neurofibroma, a soft tissue tumor.
diffuse
133
Wagner-meissner corpuscles are seen in the diffuse form of [...], a soft tissue tumor.
neurofibroma
134
[...] carcinoma most commonly affects the toes and it is S100 positive.
Clear cell
| aka malignant melanoma of soft parts
135
Clear cell carcinoma most commonly affects the [...] and it is S100 positive.
toes
136
Clear cell carcinoma most commonly affects the toes and it is S100 [...].
positive
137
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is due to a defect in the [...] gene.
Xp21
138
Patients with [...] usually due from respiratory complications.
DMD
139
Patients with DMD usually due from [...].
respiratory complications
140
Patients with [...] usually die from dilated cardiomyopathy.
BMD
141
Patients with BMD usually die from [...].
dilated cardiomyopathy
142
[...] dystrophies usually affect the proximal musculature of the trunk and limbs and they are due to a defect in the caveolin gene.
Limb girdle
143
Limb girdle dystrophies usually affect the [...] musculature of the trunk and limbs and they are due to a defect in the caveolin gene.
proximal
144
Limb girdle dystrophies usually affect the proximal musculature of the trunk and limbs and they are due to a defect in the [...] gene.
caveolin
145
[...] dystrophy is associated with the theory of anticipation.
Myotonic
146
Myotonic dystrophy is associated with the theory of [...].
anticipation
147
The [...] variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CTG trinucleotide expansion in the DMPK gene.
DM1
148
The DM1 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a [...] expansion in the DMPK gene.
CTG trinucleotide
149
The DM1 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CTG trinucleotide expansion in the [...] gene.
DMPK
150
The [...] variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CCTG expansion of the ZNF9 protein on chromosome 3q21.
DM2
151
The DM2 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a [...] of the ZNF9 protein on chromosome 3q21.
CCTG expansion
152
The DM2 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CCTG expansion of the [...] protein on chromosome 3q21.
ZNF9
153
[...] myopathies present with a classic 'ragged red fiber' appearance on frozen sections with Gomori stain.
Mitochondrial
154
Mitochondrial myopathies present with a classic [...] appearance on frozen sections with Gomori stain.
'ragged red fiber'
155
Mitochondrial myopathies present with a classic 'ragged red fiber' appearance on frozen sections with [...] stain.
Gomori
