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BOARD REVIEW > PATHOLOGY > Flashcards

PATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of cellular injury

A

Hypoxia

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2
Q

The irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis

A

Pyknosis or karyopyknosis

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3
Q

Fragmentation of nucleus

A

Karyorrhexis

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4
Q

Disintegration and dissolution of a cell nucleus when a cell dies

A

Karyolysis

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5
Q

Refers to conditions caused by exposure to chemical or physical agents in the ambient workplace and personal environment, including diseases of nutritional origin

A

Environmental disease

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6
Q

Studies the distribution, effects and mechanisms of action of toxic agents

A

Toxicology

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7
Q

Exogenous chemicals in the environment in air, water, food and soil that may be absorbed into the body through inhalation, ingestion and skin contact

A

Xenobiotics

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8
Q

Xenobiotics can be metabolized to non toxic metabolites and eliminated from the body

A

Detoxification

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9
Q

Cherry red color of mucosa
Bitter almond odor

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

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10
Q

Carbon monoxide + hemoglobin = ?

Irreversible

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

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11
Q

Child ingesting flakes of paint

A

Lead poisoning

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12
Q

Severe abdominal pain not compatible with physical exam. Diagnosis?

A

Mesenteric ischemia

MC location: Griffith’s point (splenic flexure)

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13
Q

DOC for acute management of lead poisoning

A

EDTA +/- Dimercaprol

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14
Q

Toxicity due to contaminated fish, dental amalgams and gold mining l

A

Mercury poisoning

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15
Q

Mercury poisoning with cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness and mental retardation

A

Minamata disease

Due to Methylmercury

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16
Q

Main protective mechanism againts mercury poison

A

Intracellular glutathione

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17
Q

Poison of kings and the king of poisons

Sources: pesticides, agricultural products and burning of coal

A

Arsenic poisoning

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18
Q

Toxicity manifested as milk and roses complexion, hyperkeratosis, diarrhea, transverse bands in nails (Mee’s lines) and convulsions

A

Arsenic poisoning

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19
Q

What organ in the GI tract does not have a serosa?

A

Esophagus

  • more prone to infection and cancer
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20
Q

Aschoff bodies
Vegetations

A

Rheumatic fever

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21
Q

Rokitansky aschoff bodies

A

Chronic cholecystitis

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22
Q

Anitschow cells or caterpillar cells
Aschoff bodies

A

Rheumatic fever

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23
Q

Immune response of Rheumatic heart disease

A

Molecular mimicry

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24
Q

Machinery like murmur

A

PDA

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25
Q

Holosystolic murmur with opening snap

A

Severe Mitral Stenosis

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26
Q

Native valve endocarditis (NVE)

A

S. Viridans

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27
Q

Endocarditis in IV drug users

A

S. Aureus

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28
Q

Prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

S. Epidermidis

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29
Q

Uninfected vegetations seen on patients with malignancy and chronic diseases

A

Marantic endocarditis

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30
Q

Dysphagi
Iron deficiency anemia
Esophageal webs

A

Plummer vinson

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31
Q

Excess iodide intake initially increases organification but this is later followed by supression

A

Wolf chaikoff effect

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32
Q

Iodine induced hyperthyroidism

Hyperthyroidism following administration of iodine or iodide either as a dietary supplement or as a contrast medium

A

Jod basedow phenomenon

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33
Q

Thyrotoxicosis
Ophthalmopathy
Dermopathy

A

Graves disease

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34
Q

Most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine sufficient areas of the world

A

Autoimmune hypothyroidism

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35
Q

Chernobyl

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

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36
Q

Thyroid cancer: calcitonin

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

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37
Q

Pathogenesis:
Failure of the mechanisms that maintain self- tolerance

A

SLE

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38
Q

Most common etiology of Hypertension

A

Primary or essential hypertension

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39
Q

Most common etiology of Secondary Hypertension

A

Renovascular hypertension

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40
Q

approximate weight of the heart in the average adult male

A

300 to 360 grams

Female : 250 to 320 grams

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41
Q

A chronic process involving damage to endothelium and the build up of vessel-occluding lesions called plaque

A

Atherosclerosis

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42
Q

Most common cause of myocardial ischemia

A

Coronary artery disease

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43
Q

The earliest detectable feature of myocyte necrosis

A

Sarcolemmal membrane disruption

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44
Q

What is the most important disease affecting the heart?

A

Coronary Heart Disease

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45
Q

The most abundant form of lactate dehydrogenase in the heart is:

A

LD1

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46
Q

Most cardio-specific troponin?

A

Trop I

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47
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macrophages that are telltale signs of previous episodes of pulmonary edema

A

Heart failure cells

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48
Q

Macrophages seen in placenta

A

Hofbauer cells

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49
Q

Histopathologic finding in interstitial lung disease suggestive of significant asbestos exposure (asbestosis)

A

Ferruginous bodies

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50
Q

The most common congenital cardiac malformation

A

Ventricular septal defect

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51
Q

The most common genetic cause of CHD

A

Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)

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52
Q

The most likely gene defect in DiGeorge Syndrome

A

TBX1

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53
Q

Most common location of atrial septal defect

A

Near the center of the atrial septum

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54
Q

Most common type of Atrial Septal Defect

A

Ostium secundum

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55
Q

Most common cardiac anomaly seen in an infant presenting with mental retardation, brushfield spots and a simian crease

A

Endocardial cushion defect

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56
Q

Most common cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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57
Q

The most common manifestation in Rheumatic Fever

A

Migratory Arthritis

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58
Q

The antecedent infection associated with the molecular mimicry seen in Rheumatic Fever

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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59
Q

Libman-sacks disease refers to

A

Endocarditis of systemic lupus erythematosus

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60
Q

The most common etiology of Myocarditis

A

Coxsackie B virus

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61
Q

Infective endocarditis associated with virulent organisms; affects previously normal valves; highly destructive; bulkier vegetations; valve perforation common

A

acute IE

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62
Q

Known as Apical ballooning syndrome, Stress cardiomyopathy or “Broken-hearted” syndrome

A

Takotsubo Syndrome

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63
Q

Peripheral manifestations of infective endocarditis

A

Roth’s spots
Janeway lesions
Osler’s nodes

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64
Q

Drug of choice for the prophylaxis of Rheumatic Fever

A

benzathine Penicillin

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65
Q

Most common location of Ventricular septal defect

A

Membranous interventricular septum

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66
Q

Oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes of Papillary Thyroid CA

A

RET

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67
Q

Most common alteration in Papillary Thyroid CA

A

BRAF

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68
Q

Oncogene and tumor suppressor gene for follicular thyroid CA

A

PAX8-PPARy1

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69
Q

Oncogene and tumor suppressor genes for Anaplastic Thyroid CA

A

p53
TERT, BRAF and CTNNB1

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70
Q

Guardian of the genome

A

p53

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71
Q

BRAF mutation

A
  • loss of iodine uptake by tumor cells
  • increase recurrence rate
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72
Q

Most common type of thyroid CA

Well differentiated thyroid malignancy

Orphan Annie eyes/ clear cell nuclei

A

Papillary thyroid CA

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73
Q

Most common thyroid cancer seen in iodine deficient regions

Capsular and or vascular invasion

Hurtle cell histology

A

Follicular thyroid Ca

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74
Q

Hallmark of intestinal metaplasia

A

+ of goblet cell

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75
Q

Drug that causes gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin

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76
Q

Most common cause of death of young athletes

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

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77
Q

Acute cause of Right Ventricular Hypertrophy

A

Pulmonary embolism

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78
Q

First sign of puberty in girls

A

Thelarch/ breast bud
8 yr/old

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79
Q

Virchow’s triad?

A

Stasis
Increased vascular permeability
Hypercoaguability

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80
Q

Earliest manifestatiob of almost all forms of injury to cell

A

Cellular swelling

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81
Q

Pro-apoptotic proteins

A

Bax
Bad
Bak

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82
Q

Anti-apoptotic

A

Bcl-2

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83
Q

Necrosis in solid parenchymal organs like heart and kidney that preserves architecture and with ghost cells

A

Coagulative

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84
Q

Necrosis in brain (acute cerebral infarct) abscess and pleural effusion

A

Liquefactive

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85
Q

Necrosis in TB granuloma with lysed cells surrounded by inflammatory cells

A

Caseation

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86
Q

Necrosis in pancreas and adipose tissues

A

Fat necrosis

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87
Q

Necrosis in arteries

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

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88
Q

Necrosis in DM foot

A

Gangrenous necrosis

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89
Q

A genetically controlled form of cell death that resembles necrosis morphologically but like apoptosis genetically.

Ligation of TNFRI

A

Necroptosis

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90
Q

This occurs in cells infected by microbes and involves activation of caspase-I, whick cleaves the precursor form of IL-1 to generate biochemically active IL-1

A

Pyroptosis

91
Q

An iron dependent pathway of cell death induced by lipid peroxidation

A

Ferroptosis

92
Q

Most common cause of fatty change in adults

A

Alcohol

93
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles

A

Alzheimer’s disease

94
Q

Russel bodies

A

Multiple myeloma

95
Q

PSaMMoma bodies

A

Papillary thyroid
Serous ovarian carcinoma
Meningioma
Mesothelioma

96
Q

Most reactive oxygen-derived free radical

A

Hydroxyl radical

97
Q

Pathogenesis:
Loss of CFTR leads to defects in chloride transport

A

Cystic fibrosis

98
Q

Pathogenesis:
Loss of LDL receptor leads to hypercholesterolimia

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia

99
Q

Pathogenesis:
Lack of lysosomal enzyme leads to storage of GM2 gangliosides i neurons

Hexosaminidase B subunit

A

Tay sachs disease

100
Q

Abnormal folding of PrPsc causes neuronal cell death

Prion

A

Creutzfeldt-jacob disease

101
Q

Abnormal folding of AB peptides causes aggregation within neurons and apoptosis

AB Peptide

A

Alzheimers disease

102
Q

Wernicke’s triad

A

Ophthalmoplegia
Ataxia
Altered mental status

103
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstone

104
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcoholism

105
Q

Most common hyperthermic syndrome

A

Heat exhaustion

106
Q

Nitrosylation of ryanodine receptor type 1 (RYR 1)

A

Malignant hyperthermia

107
Q

Drugs that can cause malignant hyperthermia

A

Succinylcholine and Halothane

108
Q

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

109
Q

Most dangerous type of electrical current

A

AC

Produces tetanic contractions

DC produces single shock

110
Q

Most common form of PEM

A

Kwashiorkor

111
Q

Loss of body fat and atrophy of muscles
“Broomstick extremities”
Bone marrow hypoplasia

A

Marasmus

112
Q

Russel’s sign
Calluses on back of hands

A

Bulimia nervosa

113
Q

Nyctalopia
Xerophthalmia
Bitot spot
Keratomalacia

A

Vitamin A disorder

114
Q

Earliest manifestation of Vitamin A deficiency

A

Nyctalopia or night blindedness

115
Q

Pathologic fractures
Bow legs (genu varum)
Tetany
Craniotabes
Rachitic rosary
Pigeon breast deformity
Osteomalacia

Dx?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

116
Q

Perifollicular hemorrhage
Hemarthrosis
Bleeding gums
Loosened teeth
Glossitis
Poor wound healing

Dx?

A

Scurvy
Vitamin C deficiency

117
Q

Vitamin A toxicity

A

Papilledema
Pseudotumor cerebri
Hepatitis
Seizure bone pains

118
Q

Acrodermatitis enterohepatica
Anorexia and diarrhea
Growth retardation
Depressed wound healing

Dx?

A

Zinc deficiency

119
Q

Hypochromic microcytic anemia

Dx?

A

Iron deficiency

120
Q

Goiter and hypothyroidism

A

Iodine deficiency

121
Q

Muscle weakness
Neuro defect
Abnormal collagen cross-linking

A

Copper deficiency

122
Q

Squamous metaplasia of lactiferousducts
Periductal mastitis/abscess

A

Zuska disease
KERATINIZING SQ METAPLASIA OF THE NIPPLE DUCTS

Subareolar mass with nipple retraction (not breast CA)
Smokers and vitA deficiency

123
Q

Inflammation and dilation of the subareolar ducts
Multifarious post menopausal women
(-) sq metaplasia

A

Mammary duct ecstasies

124
Q

Most common change in premenopausal women (25-45y.o)

Unopposed estrogen stimulation

A

Fibrocystic change

125
Q

Gross appearance of fibrocystic change of the breast

A

Blue dome appearance

126
Q

Bloody nipple discharge in a premenopausal women

Fibrovascular core lined with epithelial and myoepithelial cells

A

Intraductal papilloma

127
Q

Bloody nipple discharge in a postmenopausal women

(-) myoepithelial cells

A

Papillary carcinoma

128
Q

Most common benign neoplasm of the breast

A

Fibroadenoma

Premenopausal in 20’s and 30’s
Marble-like mass
Estrogen sensitive

129
Q

Fibroadenoma-liketumor with overgrowth of fibrous component

Leaf-like projection

A

Phyllodes tumor

Postmenopausal women
Can be Malignant

130
Q

Most common carcinoma by incidence

2nd most common by mortality

A

Breast cancer

131
Q

Mammographic signs of CA

A

Densities and calcifications

132
Q

(+) calcifications on mammogram
No invasion of basement membrane
Malignant proliferation of cells in ducts

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

133
Q

Other Conditions which may cause calcification on mammography

A

Fat necrosis
Sclerosing adenosis

134
Q

Nipple ulceration and skin erythema

DCIS that extends up to the skin of the nipple

Associated with CA

Microscope: RETE PEGS

A

Pagets disease

135
Q

Most common type of invasive carcinoma

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

136
Q

Palpable mass
(+) calcifications on mammography
(+) skin dimpling
(+) nipple retraction

Biopsy: duct like structures in a DESMOPLASTIC STROMA

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

137
Q

Breast:
Swollen
Erythematous
Peau d’Orange
Mistaken for mastitis

A

Inflammatory Breast cancer (IBC)

138
Q

Malignant proliferation of cells in lobules
No invasion of basement membrane
Incidental finding in premenopausal women

DYSCOHESIVE CELLS LACKING E-CADHERIN

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

139
Q

Indian file configuration(single file pattern)
No duct formation due to loss of e-cadherin

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma

140
Q

ER and PR predict response to antiestrogenic agent such as ______

A

Tamoxifen

141
Q

HER2-NEU amplification is associated with response to ______

A

Trastuzumab

142
Q

Triple negative ER, PR, HER2NEU
Prognosis?

A

Poor prognosis
Triple negative breast carcinoma

143
Q

Single gene mutation associated with Breast and Ovarian

A

BRCA1

144
Q

Single gene mutation associated with Breast CA in males

A

BRCA 2

145
Q

Most common malformation of the urethral groove and canal

A

HypOspadia

Ventral surface
Chordee (hook shaped)
Inguinal hernia
Cryptoorchidism

146
Q

Defect of Genital tubercle

A

Epispadia

Dorsal surface
Bladder entropy
Female: bifid clitoris

147
Q

Small orifice of prepuce preventing normal retraction

A

Phimosis

Tx: circumcision

148
Q

Infection of glans and prepuce

A

Balanoposthitis

Candida albicans/ gardnerella
Accumulation of smegma

149
Q

Fibromatosis of the Buck’s fascia

Painful contractures/ curvature of the penis and pain during intercourse

A

Peyronie disease

Causes infertility

150
Q

Persistent painful erection

A

Priapism

Sickle cell disease
Penile trauma

151
Q

Benign genital warts caused by low oncogenic virus

A

HPV 6 and 11

152
Q

Hyperkeratosis (acanthosis)
Parakeratosis
Cytoplasmic vacuolization of the squamous cells (Koilocytes)
Fibrovascular cores

A

Condyloma acuminata
HPV 6 and 11

153
Q

Men >35yo involving skin of shaft and scrotum

Solitary, thickened gray-white; opaque plaque; as single or multiple shiny red, velvet plaques

A

Bowen disease

Erythroplasia of Queyrat

(Precursor of Invasive SCCA)

154
Q

Younger, sexually active males involving skin of shaft and scrotum

Multiple reddish brown popular lesions

May regress

A

Bowenoid papulosis

155
Q

Most common carcinoma of penis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis

156
Q

High risk HPV infections in Squamous cell carcinoma of penis

A

HPV 16 (MC)
HPV 18 (2nd MC)

157
Q

Keratin pearls
Intercellular bridges

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

158
Q

Common etiologic agents in inflammation of Epididymis

A

<35yo - Chlamydia trachomatis and neissreia gonorrhea

> 35yo - E. Coli and pseudomonas aeroginosa

159
Q

Common etiologic agents of orchitis

A

Autoimmune granulomatous
Gonorrhea
Mumps
TB
Syphillis

160
Q

Sudden testicular pain

Bell clapper abnormality

Only urogenital emergency should be untwist within 6hrs

A

Testicular torsion

Congestion, extravasating of blood
Testicular infarction

161
Q

Most common testicular tumor in 15 to 34 yo males

A

Germ cell tumors

Factors:
KIT & BAK Genes
Testicular dysgenesis syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome

162
Q

Germ cell tumors originate from GCNIS (Germ Cell Neoplasia In Situ) except:

A

Pediatric yolk sac tumor
Teratoma
Adult spermatic tumor

163
Q

Most common type of germ cell tumor in males

A

Seminoma (50%)

Dysgerminoma in females

164
Q

Most common tumor in infants and children up to 3years of age (very good prognosis)

Schiller ducal bodies
Hyaline globules: AFP & a1-antitrypsin

A

Yolk sac tumor/ endodermal sinus tumor

165
Q

Helter smelter collection

(Collection of differentiated cells or organoid structures)

A

Teratoma

166
Q

Serous fluid collection in the scrotum

A

Hydrocele

167
Q

Inflammation of testis

A

Orchitis

168
Q

Dilatation of veins of spermatic cord

Bag of worms

A

Varicocele

169
Q

Most common germ cell tumor of the testis

A

Seminoma

170
Q

Most common tumor of testis during infancy and early childhood

A

Yolk sac tumor

171
Q

Major growth factor for prostatic tissue

A

DHT

172
Q

Major cause of Vulvovaginitis

A

Candida albicans

173
Q

PainFUL genital ulcer caused by?

A

ChancROID!
Hemophylus ducreyi

174
Q

Causes genital Vesicular lesion

A

HSV type 2

175
Q

Most common cause of vaginal discharge

Thin and hemogenous discharge

+10% KOH = fishy amine odor

“Clue cells”

A

Bacterial vaginosis
Gardrinella vaginalis

176
Q

Common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

177
Q

Another cause of vaginosis
Wet mount - flagellated motile organisms

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

178
Q

Common benign tumor of vulva presenting as nodule that may ulcerate and bleed

A

Papillary hidradenoma

179
Q

In utero exposure to DES causes?

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

180
Q

Indicates HPV infected epithelial cells

A

Koilocytes

181
Q

Macrophage stuffed with numerous C. Granulomatis organism

A

Donovan bodies

182
Q

Large cells surrounded by clear halo-like area

A

Paget cell

183
Q

Most common benign tumor of female reproductive tract

A

Fibroids

184
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy

A

Endometrial cancer

Prolonged bad unopposed exposure to estrogen

Obesity, diabetes, nulliparylity and hypertension

185
Q

Early sexual activity with multiple partners is associated with ?

A

Cervical cancer

186
Q

Stein-Leventhal syndrome aka

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome

187
Q

A mass resembling a bunch of grapes projecting into the vagina

A

Sarcoma botryoides

188
Q

Islands of endometrium in myometrium

A

Adenomyosis

189
Q

Presents with signs and symptoms of excess estrogen production

A

Granulosa cell tumor

190
Q

Rare histo resembles transitional epithelium of bladder

A

Brenner tumor

191
Q

A monodermal teratoma composed of functional ectopic thyroid tissue

A

Struma ovarii

192
Q

Young patient
Precocious puberty
Ovarian mass

A

Granulosa cell tumor

193
Q

Small follicles filled with eosinophilic secretions found in granulosa cell tumor

A

Call exner bodies

194
Q

Bilateral metastatic involvement of the ovaries by a Signet Ring Carcinoma arising in stomach

A

Krukenberg tumor

195
Q

Sudden peripartal respiratory difficulty progressing to shock and often to death

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

196
Q

Obstetric blood loss with resultant pituitary ischemia leading to postpartal hypopituitarysm

A

Sheehan syndrome

197
Q

Pruritic, planar, polygonal, and purple papules often with retucular white lines on their surface (WICKHAM STRIAE) commonly involve wrist, elbow and oral mucosa

A

Lichen planus

198
Q

Inflammation of the dermal-epidermal junction with a SAW-TOOTH appearance

A

Lichen planus

199
Q

Well circumscribed, salmon colored plaques with SILVER SCALE, usually on extensor surface and scalp

A

Psoriasis

200
Q

+ munro microabcess
+ auspitz sign

A

Psoriasis

Munro - collection of neutrophil in S. Corneum

Auspitz sign - bleed when scale is picked off

201
Q

Autoimmune destruction of desmosomes between keratinocytes

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

202
Q

Autoimmune destruction of hemidesmosomes between basal cells and the underlying basement membrane

A

Bullous pemphigoid

203
Q

Due to IgG antibody againts basement membrane collagen

Tense bullae do not rupture easily

A

Bullous pemphigoid

204
Q

Autoimmune deposition of IgA at the tips of dermal papillae

Pruritic vesivles and bullae that are grouped (herpetiform)

A

Dermatitis Herpetiformis

205
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction characterized by TARGELOID RASH (central epidermal necrosis surrounded by erythema) and bullae

A

Erythema multiforme

206
Q

Severe form of SJS characterized by diffuse sloughting of skin, resembling a large burn; most often due to adverse drug reaction

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

207
Q

Raised, discolored plaques on the extremities or face; often has a COIN-LIKE waxy stuck on appearance

A

Seborrheic keratosis

208
Q

Sudden onset of multiple seborrheic keratoses and suggests underlying GI CARCINOMA

A

Leser-Trelat sign

209
Q

Epidermal hyperplasia with darkening of the skin (velvet like skin) often involes the axilla or groin

A

Acanthosis nigricans

210
Q

Most common cutaneous malignancy

A

Basal cell carcinoma

211
Q

Elevated nodule with central, ulcerated crated surrounded by dilated (telangiectatic) vessels

“Pink, pearl-like papule” — UPPER LIP

Basal cells with peripheral PALISADING

A

Basal cell carcinoma

212
Q

Ulcerated, nodular mass, usually on the face — LOWER LIP

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

213
Q

Precursor lesion of squamous cell carcinoma and presents as a hyperkeratotic, scaly plaque, often on the face, back or neck

A

Actinic keratosis

214
Q

A well-differntiated squamous cell carcinoma that develops rapidly and regress spontaneously; presents as a cup-shaped tumor filled with keratin debris

A

Keratoacanthoma

215
Q

Most common mole in children

Begins as nests of melanocytes at the dermal-epidermal junction

A

Junctional nevus

216
Q

Most common mole in adults

A

Intradermal nevus

217
Q

Nevus precursor to melanoma

A

Dysplastic nevus

218
Q

Most common cause of death from skin cancer

A

Melanoma

219
Q

Most important prognostic factor in predicting metastasis

A

Depth of extension

(According to Breslow thickness)

220
Q

Erythematous macules that progress to pustules, usually on the face; rupture of pustules results in erosion and dry, crusted, honey-colored serum

A

Impetigo

221
Q

Red, tender, swollen rash with fever

Due to S. Aureus or S. Pyogenes

A

Cellulitis

222
Q

Sloughing of skin with erythematous rash and fever leads to significant skin loss

Due to S. Aureus infection, Exfoliative A and B toxins results in epidermolysis of stratum granulosum

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

223
Q

Flesh colored papules with rough surface due to HPV infection of keratinocytes — KOILOCYTIC CHANGE

A

Verruca (Wart)

224
Q

Firm, pink, UMBILICATED papules due to Pox virus

Cytoplasmic inclusions

A

Molluscum contangiosum

BOARD REVIEW (19 decks)

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