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BOARD REVIEW > MICRO/PARA > Flashcards

MICRO/PARA Flashcards

1
Q

Largest ciliated sidephora

A

Balantidium coli

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2
Q

Only ciliated protozoa that infects humans

A

Balantidium coli

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3
Q

Parasite that causes sexually transmitted disease that has undulating membrane

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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4
Q

Cervix of someone with trichomoniasis

A

Strawberry cervix

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5
Q

Whip worm

A

Trichuris tricuria

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6
Q

With complex life cycle alternating from sexual and asexual reproduction phase

A

Sporozoa

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7
Q

Specific infection by pneumocystis jiroveci caused in patients with HIV /AIDS

A

PCP - Pneumocystis Carini Pmeumonia

> > > BAL
>silver stain
» Trimetoprim sulfamethoxazole

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8
Q

Hematologic picture of a patient with classic manifestation of ascaris infection

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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9
Q

Megaloblastic anemia&raquo_space;» Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Diphylobothrium latum (fish tape worm)

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10
Q

Worms associated with autoinfection (2)

A

Strongyloides stercoralis
Enterobius vermicularis

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11
Q

Hermaphroditic

A

Platyhelminths

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12
Q

Trematode vs nematode

A

Trematode don’t have cuticle

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13
Q

Gram negative rods
Motile with peritrichous flagella or nonmotile
Catalase +, oxidase -

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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14
Q

Metallic sheen on differential media

A

E. Coli

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15
Q

“Swarming” on agar; urea rapidly hydrolized (smell of ammonia)

A

Proteus sp

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16
Q

E. coli virulence factor that impedes phagocytosis, blocks binding of C3b

Causes neonatal sepsis and meningitis

A

K1 antigen

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17
Q

E. Coli virulence factor that allows bacteria to bind to P blood group antigen on urinary tract cells

A

P-pili

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18
Q

Most common cause of UTI in young sexually active females

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

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19
Q

Encodes genetic material

A

Plasmid

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20
Q

Montezuma’s revenge

A

ETEC

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21
Q

Most common cause of infantile diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

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22
Q

With motile rods (peritrichous flagella), ferment glucose and mannose without producing gas, but no lactose or sucrose

A

Salmonellae

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23
Q

Fever (stepladder/picket fence pattern)
Abdominal pain
“Rose spits”
Bradycardia

A

Salmonella– typhoid fever

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24
Q

Laboratory diagnostics of typhoid fever

A

Blood - 1st week
Urine - 2nd week
Stool - 3rd week

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25
Q

DOC of typhoid fever

A

Ceftriaxone 2g/d (IV) for 2 weeks

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26
Q

Treponema pallidum - primary syphilis?

A

Chancre

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27
Q

Treponema pallidum - secondary syphilis

A

Condyloma lata

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28
Q

Treponema pallidum - tertiary syphillis

A

Gumma

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29
Q

Saber shin
Saddle nose
CN VIII deafness
Hutchinson’s teeth
Mulberry molars

A

Congenital syphilis

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30
Q

Aerobic and non-motile, rod shaped, (+) mycolic acid in cell

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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31
Q

Paul Bunnel test

A

Epstein Barr Virus

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32
Q

Owls eye inclusion bodies

A

Cytomegalovirus

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33
Q

Organism associated with hospital acquired and ventilator associated pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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34
Q

Malarial pigment

A

Hematin (hemozoin)

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35
Q

Maurer’s

A

P. Falciparum

(Ferdinand Marcos)

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36
Q

Zieman’s

A

P. Malariae

(Manila Zoo)

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37
Q

James dots

A

P. Ovale

(OJ)

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38
Q

Schuffner’s dots

A

P. Vivax

(Vilma Santos)

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39
Q

EBV associated tumor found at the fossa of Rosenmuller

A

Nasopharyngeal CA

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40
Q

African decent
Translocation of t8,14
Biopsy- sheets of lymphocyte with “starry sky appearance”
C-myc

A

Burkitt lymphoma

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41
Q

Reed sternberg cell
MC type is nodular sclerosing

A

Hodgkins disease

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42
Q

Cause of hererophil + infective mononucleosis

A

Ebstein Barr Virus (EBV)
Kissing disease

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43
Q

Most common cause of heterophil (-) infectious mononucleosis

A

CMV

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44
Q

Most common cause of heterophil (+) infectious mononucleosis

A

EBV

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45
Q

Mode of transmission of EBV

A

Kissing or water bottle sharing
(Sexual intercourse and oral secretions)

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46
Q

Ebstein barr virus receptor

A

Compliment receptor type 2 (CR2)
aka CD3 receptor

B CELLS in tonsilar crypts

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47
Q

Generalized LAD
Splenomegaly
Hepatomagaly

Pharyngitis
Low grade fever

ATYPICAL LYMPHOCYTOSIS
Paul bunnel antibody positive
Dx?

A

EBV

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48
Q

Pharyngitis
Atypical lymphocytosis

DOWNY TYPE 2 CELLS
Dx?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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49
Q

Malignancies associated with EBV

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal CA

Hodgkins disease

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50
Q

Virus has tropism for erythroid cells

A

Parvovirus B19

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51
Q

Slapped cheek appearance
Lacy appearing rash

Dx?

A

Erythema infectiosum
5th disease
Parvovirus B19

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52
Q

Butterfly rash on face

A

SLE

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53
Q

Heliotrope rash on eyelid

A

Dermatomyositis

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54
Q

Heliotrope rash on eyelid

A

Dermatomyositis

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55
Q

Rash presents as splitting of the skin

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

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56
Q

Hydrops fetalis

A

Erythema infectiosum

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57
Q

Erythema infectiosum
Transient aplastic anemia
Pure red cell aplasia
Hydrops fetalis

A

Parvovirus
Erythema infectiosum

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58
Q

Nagayama spots

A

Roseola infantum
6th disease
Exanthem subitum

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59
Q

Koplik’s spots

A

Measles

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60
Q

6 month old child
Rash appeared after fever
Ulcer in uvulopaloglossal junction (nagayama spot)

Dx?

A

Roseola infantum
6th disease
Exanthem subitum

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61
Q

Difference of gram positive and gram negative

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer of gram positive

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62
Q

Test to differentiate staphylococcus from streptococcus

A

Catalase test

Staph - (+) - clusters
Strep - (-) - chain

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63
Q

Test to differentiate other staph organisms

A

Coagulase test

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64
Q

Only coagulase positive stapylococcus organism

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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65
Q

Habitat of staphylococcus aureus

A

Nares

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66
Q

Golden yellow colonies of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Staphyloxanthin

Gold = AU —-aureus

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67
Q

Gram + cocci in grape like cluster
Catalase +
Coagulase +
Beta hemolytic
Salt tolerant on Mannitol salt agar (MSA)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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68
Q

Preformed HEAT STABLE ENTEROTOXIN

Mayonnaise
Potato salad
Custard

Starts quickly and ends quickly

Gastroenteritis caused by?

A

Enterotoxin A - E
Staphylococcus aureus

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69
Q

Tampon
Strawberry tongue
Desquamating rash (palms and soles)

A

Toxic shock syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) superantigen
Staph aureus

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70
Q

Exfoliatin cleaves Desmoglein in desmosomes resulting to separation of epidermis at the Stratum Granulosum

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)
Staph aureus

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71
Q

Toxic shock syndrome

A

Superantigen-mediated cytokine storm and M proteib -mediated neutrophil activation

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72
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in general population

A

Staph aureus

BRODIE ABSCESS

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73
Q

Pneumonia
Post influenza
X-ray: pneumatocoele

Caused by what organism?

A

Staph aureus

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74
Q

Substance responsible for x-ray finding (Pneumatocoele) in staph aureus infection

A

Panton Valentin Leukocidin (PVL)

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75
Q

Tricuspid valve endocarditis in IV drug users

A

Staph aureus

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76
Q

Cystic fibrosis patient may die due to what organisms?

A

Pseudomonnas and staph aureus

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77
Q

Acute endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

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78
Q

Subacute endocarditis

A

S. Viridans

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79
Q

Endocarditis due to prosthetic valves

A

S. Epidermidis

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80
Q

Habitat of S. Epidermidis

A

Skin

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81
Q

Osteomyelitis in sexually active

A

N. Gonorrheae

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82
Q

Osteomyelitis in drug users

A

P. Auruginosa

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83
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia

A

Salmonella sp.

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84
Q

Most common cause of spinal epidural abscess and suppurative intracranial phlebitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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85
Q

Meningitis cuased by a ventriculo peritoneal shunt

A

Staph epidermidis

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86
Q

Splitting of the skin

A

SSSS
Exfoliatin

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87
Q

Most severe form of SSSS

A

Ritter’s disease

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88
Q

Acute mastitis

A

S. Aureus

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89
Q

MRSA DOC?

A

Vancomycin

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90
Q

Vancomycin-resistant SA (VRSA)
DOC?

A

Linezolid

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91
Q

Gram + cocci in cluster
Catalase +
Coagulase (-)
Novobiocin sensitive

A

Staph epidermidis

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92
Q

Gram + cocci in cluster
Catalase +
Coagulase (-)
Novobiocin resistant

A

S. Saphrophyticus

NO StR ES
NOvobiocin
Saphrophyticus - Resistant
Epidermidis - Susceptible

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93
Q

Polysaccharide capsule for adhesion of S. Epidermidis

A

Biofilm

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94
Q

Separation of the epidermis at the dermo-epidermal junction

A

(TEN) Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis or Lylle Disease

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95
Q

Impetigo contagiosa, furuncles, folliculitus, hidradenitis suppurativa, mastitis

A

Staph aureus

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96
Q

Main reason why MRSA strains are resistant to oxacillin, methicillin and nafcillin

A

Altered penicillin-binding proteins that have reduced binding of antibiotics

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97
Q

2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually active women

A

Staph saprophyticus

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98
Q

Merhod of grouping catalase negative, coagulase negative bacteria based on CARBOHYDRATE COMPOSITION of bacterial antigens found in their cell wall

A

Lancefield group

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99
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Beta hemolytic
Catalase negative
Bacitracin sensitive
Lancefield group A
Positive PYR test

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

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100
Q

Most common bacterial cause of sore throat

Beefy red pharynx

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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101
Q

Fever
Straberry tongue
Centrifugal, sandpaper-like rash
Pastia’s line

Dx?

A

Scarlet fever

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102
Q

Susceptibility testing for scarlet fever

A

Dick’s test

Inject 0.1cc of erythrogenic toxin -> (+) reddening of skin (>10mm) within 24hrs

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103
Q

Recognizable site of pyogenic inflammation due to PYOGENIC EXOTOXIN A

A

Streptococcal Toxic shock-like syndrome

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104
Q

Production of antibodies directed againts a stretococcal cell wall M protein that cross reacts with myocardial tissue

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever
Strep pyogenes

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105
Q

Deposition of circulating streptococcal -antistreptococcal immune complexes in the glomeruli -> subsequent activation of complement

A

Post streptococcal GN
Strep pyogenes

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106
Q

Deposition of circulating streptococcal -antistreptococcal immune complexes in the glomeruli -> subsequent activation of complement

A

Post streptococcal GN

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107
Q

DOC of strel pyogenes

A

Penicillin G

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108
Q

Gram + cocci in chains
Beta hemolytic
Catalase negative
Bacitracin resistant
Hydrolyze hippurate
CAMP - test positive
Lancefield group B

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

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109
Q

Most common cause of neonatal pneymonia, sepsis and meningitis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

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110
Q

Habitat of streptococcus agalactiae

A

Vagina

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111
Q

Marker of group B streptococcal vaginal carriage

A

GBS isolation from URINE at. 35-37 weeks AOG

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112
Q

Gram positive
Lancet shaped diplococci or shoer chains
Alpha hemolytic
Catalase negative
Bile soluble
Optochin - sensitive
Prominent polysaccharide capsule
Positive quellung reaction

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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113
Q

Habitat of strep pnaumoniae

A

Upper respiratory tract

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114
Q

Aspiration of oral secretions containing normal flora

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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115
Q

Major virulence factor of streptococcus pneumonia which retards the phagocytosis

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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116
Q

Most common cause of CAP

A

Strep pneumonia

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117
Q

Most common cause of otitis media, sinusitis, bacteria meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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118
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains
Alpha hemolytic
Catalase negative
Bile insoluble and optochin resistant
Do not grow in 6.5% NaCl

A

Viridans streptococci

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119
Q

Most common viridans streptococci responsible for liver, spleen and brain abscess.

Most susceptible to antibiotics than other strains of viridans streptococci

Caramel odor

A

Milleri streptococci complex

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120
Q

Habitat of viridans group

A

Oropharynx
Enter during dental procedures

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121
Q

Glycocalyx enhances adhesion to damaged heart valves and protected from host defenses within vegetations

A

Viridans streptococci

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122
Q

Most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis

A

S sanguis
Viridans strep

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123
Q

Bile esculin +
PyR test +
Growth in 6.5% NaCl +

Organism?

A

Group D Streptococcus
Enterococci faecalis

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124
Q

Bile esculin +
PyR test -
Growth in 6.5% NaCl -

Organism?

A

Group D Streptococcus
Streptococcus Bovis

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125
Q

Associated with malignancies of the GI tract

A

Streptococcus bovis

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126
Q

Marantic Endocarditis

A

Non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis caused by streptococcus bovis

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127
Q

Species NOT HIGHLY PATHOGENIC but may still cause UTI in hospitalized persons

A

Enterococci sp (Group D)

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128
Q

Cause UTI in people with indwelling urinary catheters

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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129
Q

May cause endocarditis in patient who underwent GIT surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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130
Q

DOC of Enterococcus faecalis

A

Penicillin + Gentamycin

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131
Q

Gram +
Catalase - coccus that grow in small clusters or TETRADS

A

Aerococcus

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132
Q

Aerobic
Non-motile curved
chinese characters

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

133
Q

Aerobic
Curved
Tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

134
Q

Aerobic
Spore forming
Gram + rod
Non-motile
Box-car shaped

A

Bacillus anthracis

135
Q

Spore forming
Gram + rods
Aerobic
Motile
Reheated fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus

136
Q

Spore forming
Gram +rods
Anearobic
Tennis racket-like

A

Clostridium tetani

137
Q

Spore forming
Gram +rods
Anearobic
Bulging cans

A

Clostridium botulinum

138
Q

Spore forming
Gram +rods
Anearobic
Lecithinase
Gas-forming
Egg yolk agar (EYA)

A

Closridium perfringens

139
Q

Spore forming
Gram +rods
Anearobic
Pseudomembranes

A

Clostridium difficile

140
Q

Metachromatic granules

A

Babes-ernst granules
Volutin granules

Corynebacrerium diptheria

141
Q

Pseudomembrane in the mouth

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

142
Q

Elek test

A

Immuno diffusion technique
Used to test for toxigenicity of C. diptheriae

143
Q

Arcanobacterium hemolyticum produces what

A

Phospholipase D
Responsible for the reverse CAMP reaction with S. Aureus

144
Q

Only species of Listeria that is pathogenic for humans

A

Listeria monocytogenes

145
Q

Nonbranching
Non sporeforming
Gram + rods

A

Listeria

146
Q

Only species of Listeria that is pathogenic for animals

A

Listeria ivanovii

147
Q

Unpasteurized milk products

A

Listeria monocytogenes

148
Q

Transmission of listeria?

A

Placenta or by contact during delivery
Unpasteurized milk product

149
Q

Skin lesion in neonatal listeriosis

A

Granulomatosis infantisepticum

150
Q

Catalase -
Non spore forming
Non-motile
Facultative anaerobic
Gram + bacillus

A

Erysipelothrix

151
Q

Causes erysipeloid and recognized pathogen in humans

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

152
Q

Butchers
Abattoir workers
Fishermen
Fish handlers
Poultry processors
Veterinarians

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

153
Q

Most common form of erysipeloid

A

Local cutaneous infection
Violaceous zones

154
Q

Pipe cleaner pattern of growth in gelatin stab cultures

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

155
Q

Umbrella like pattern in semisolid medium

A

Listeria monocytogenes

156
Q

Most reliable diagnostic characteristic of Bacillus

A

Spore formation

157
Q

All bacillus sp are motile except?

A

Bacillus anthracis

158
Q

Medusa head morphology

A

Bacillus anthracis

159
Q

Woolsorter’s disease

A

Bacillus anthracis

160
Q

Category A pathogens
Bioterrorism

A

Bacillus anthracis

161
Q

Virulence factor of b. anthracis

A

Poly-D glutamate
- inhibit phagocytosis

162
Q

Black eschar / malignant pustule

A

Cutaneous anthrax

163
Q

Protease that cleaves protein involved in the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in spinal cord

A

Tetanospasmin
Tetanus toxin

164
Q

Spastic paralysis, tetany
Trismus
Risus sardonicus
Opisthotonos
Respiratory failure

A

Clostridium tetani

165
Q

DOC of tetanus

A
  1. Debridement
  2. Metronidazole

*** Penicillin inhibits glycine activity and hence should NOT be used

  1. Anti tetanus vaccine
    - given in children after 10years thereafter
166
Q

Honey

A

Clostridium botulinum

167
Q

Most common immunologic types of toxin in clostridium botulinum in humans

A

Types A, B and E

168
Q

Triad of botulism

A

Symmetric descending flaccid paralysis
No fever
Intact sensorium

169
Q

Floppy baby syndrome

A

Infant botulism

170
Q

Double zone of hemolysis on blood agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

171
Q

Gram + rods
Anaerobic
Spore forming
Egg yolk agar (EYA) +

A

Clostridium perfringens

172
Q

Prolonged used of antibiotics
Flare ups of ulcerative colitis

A

Clostridium deficile

173
Q

Nonbloody diarrhea associated with colonic pseudomembranes

A

Clostridium difficile

174
Q

Primary host factor associated with increased risk of nocardiosis

A

Cellular immune dysfunction

175
Q

Eczematous dermatitis of the breast

A

Staph aureus

176
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa

A

Proteus vulgaris

177
Q

Anterior horn cells

A

Polio
ALS

178
Q

Trigeminal root ganglion

A

HSV1

179
Q

Sacral nerve ganglia

A

HSV2

180
Q

Dorsal root ganglia

A

VZV

181
Q

B lymphocytes

A

EBV

182
Q

Fibroblasts

A

CMV

183
Q

Cancers associated with EBV (4)

A

Burkitts lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal CA
B-cell lymphoma
Hairy leukoplakia in AIDS

184
Q

Cancer associated with Chronic HBV

A

Primary Hepatocellular CA

185
Q

Cancer associated with Chronic HCV

A

Primary Hepatocellular CA

186
Q

Cancers associated with HPV

A

Cervical CA
Vulvar CA
Vaginal CA
Penile CA
Anogenital CA

187
Q

Cancer associated with HTLV-1

A

CD4 T cell Leukemia/ lymphoma

188
Q

Cancer associated with HHV 8

A

Kaposi sarcoma

189
Q

2 major antigens of Influenza virus

A

Hemagglutinin (H) and Neuramidase (N)

190
Q

Avian flu subtype

A

H5N1

191
Q

Swine flu subtype

A

H1N1

192
Q

Major change
Iccurs in subtype A only
Pandemic

Drift or shift?

A

Shift

193
Q

Virus causes hemorrhagic fever

A

Dengue
Ebola
Marburg

194
Q

Filovirus causes hemorrhagic fever

A

Ebola
Marburg

195
Q

Most virulent subtype of Polio

A

Serotype 1

Difference in capsid proteins

196
Q

Live attenuated polio vaccine

A

SABIN
Oral

Risk of post-polio syndrome

197
Q

Dead polio vaccine

A

SALK
Injection

198
Q

Coxsackie A virus causes…

A

Herpangina
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

199
Q

Coxsackie B causes

A

Pleurodynia (Bornholm disease)
Myocarditis
Pericarditis

200
Q

Most common cause of severe chikdhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

201
Q

2nd most common cause of pediatric diarrhea

A

Adenovirus

202
Q

Diarrhea
Party salad

A

Staph aureus

203
Q

Diarrhea
Raw seafood
(-) cellulitis

A

Vibrio parahemolyticus

204
Q

Diarrhea
Raw seafood
(+) cellulitis

A

Vibrio vulnificus

205
Q

Diarrhea
China town
Fried rice

A

B. Cereus

206
Q

Group of rotavirus that causes human disease

A

Group A rotavirus

207
Q

Primary target of Parvovirus B19

A

Erythroid cell (RBC)
——> transient arrest of erythropoiesis

208
Q

Slapped cheek
Lace like appearance f rash
Palms and soles are spared
Rash - no desquamation but wax and wanes

A

Erythema infectiosum
5th disease

209
Q

Erythema infectiosum
Transient aplastic crisis
Pure red cell aplasia
Hydrops fetalis

A

Parvoviridae

210
Q

HHV 6 (can supress all cellular lineages within the bone marrow)
Sixth disease - exanthem subitum
6 moths and 2 years

A

Roseola

211
Q

Entire multiplication cycle takes place in the CYTOPLASM of infected cells unlike othe DNA viruses that usually occurs in the nucleus

A

POXVIRUS

212
Q

More virulent poxvirus infections in humans

A

Variola

Vaccinia is less virulent

213
Q

Umbilicated, pearly white papule in the face, arms, back and buttocks

Benign epiderma tumor that occurs only in humans

A

Molluscum contangiosum

214
Q

Mosquit borne viral diseases

A

Malaria
Dengue
Chikungunya (Togaviridae)

215
Q

Abrupt onset of fever in early morning and late afternoon
Joint pain that is very debilitating
Flu like symptoms
High IgM

Dx?

A

Chikungunya

216
Q

Aedes aegypti

A

Dengue

217
Q

Aedes aegypyti and aede albopiticus

A

Chikungunya

218
Q

Anopheles

A

Malaria

219
Q

Alpha herpesviridae in dorsal root ganglion

A

Varicella zoster virus

220
Q

Beta herpesviridae that remains latent in the kidney

Most common post renal transplant virus

A

CMV

221
Q

Headache
Fever
Seizure
Behavioral changes

Dx?

A

Encephalitis
HSV 1

Trigemina ganglia
Transmission: contact (saliva)

222
Q

10 d.o. neonate
Jaundice
Hepatosplenomegaly
Chorioretinitis

Dx?
Tx?

A

Congenital CMV
“Blueberry muffin baby”

GANCYCLOVIR
***all herpes virus medication is Acyclovir except CMV)

223
Q

Most common intrauterine viral infection

A

CMV

Transmission via body fluids including cervical and vaginal secretions, breast milk

224
Q

Owls eye appearance - large intranuclear inclusions with enlarged epithelial or mesenchymal cells

Heterophil NEGATIVE mononucleosis

A

CMV

225
Q

JC polyomavirus
Demyelination with bizarre giant astrocytes
Viral inclusions in the nucleus of OLIGODENDROCYTES

A

Progressive Multifocal Encephalopathy

226
Q

Vesicular lesion
Intensely pruritic
Lesion first appear on the scalp, face or trunk
Centrifugal rash

A

Varicella
Dew drop on a rose petal appearance

227
Q

Dermatomal distribution

A

Shingles

228
Q

Facial nerve paralysis
Mononuclear infiltration with herpetic intranuclear inclusions

A

Ramsay hunt syndrome

229
Q

Cicatrix - zigzag scarring
Atrophy of infected limb

A

Congenital varicella infected at 6-12 weeks of gestation

16-20weeks of gestation- eye and brain involvement

230
Q

Generalized lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Severe pharyngitis with tonsilar enlargement and petechiae at the junction of hard and soft palate

A

Infectious mononucleosis

231
Q

HHV 8 infects what cells

A

B cells
“Kapos8 sarcoma”
AIDS associated B cell lymphoma

232
Q

Dane particle

A

Hepatitis B virus

233
Q

Koilocytic cells

A

Human papilloma virus

Replicate in EPITHELIAL CELLS of epithelial and mucosal tissue

234
Q

Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells

A

Measles

235
Q

Nagayama spots

A

Roseola
6th disease

236
Q

Fever
Coryza
Cough
Conjunctivitis
Generalized maculopapular rash

Dx?

A

Measles

237
Q

Koplik spot

A

Measles enanthem

238
Q

Deterioration in school performance
Frank dementia
Myoclonic jerks
Cerebellar ataxia
Early measle infection

COWDRY A bodies

Dx?

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

239
Q

Painful enlargement of the parotid gland
>2 days

Dx?

A

Mumps

240
Q

Perivenous demyelination and perivascular mononuclear CUFFING

A

Mumps encephalitis

241
Q

German measles

A

Rubella virus

242
Q

Developmental malformation especially cardiovascular and neurologic

IUGR
Congenital cataract
PDA
SALT AND PEPPER RETINOPATHY
BLUEBERRY MUFFIN skin lesion

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

243
Q

Genus Lyssavirus
Bullet-shaped
Enveloped
Single stranded RNA virus

A

Rabies

244
Q

Negri bodies in pyramidal neurons of hippocampus and purkinje cells of cerebellum

A

Rabies

245
Q

Acute onset
Fever
Sore throat
Hoarseness
Barking cough

A

Epiglottitis

246
Q

Only DNA Hepatitis

A

Hep B

247
Q

Hepatitis with defective RNA

A

Hep D

248
Q

Hepatitis that causes epidemics

A

Hep A and E

249
Q

Ssian genotypes of dengue virus that are frequently associated with severe disease accompanying secndary dengue infections

A

DEN-2
DEN-3

250
Q

Pathogenesis of dengue

A

MACROPHAGE/ MONOCYTE INFECTION
Endothelial cell activation mediates plasma leakage

251
Q

Herman’s sign

A

Dengue fever

252
Q

Dengue grade
Fever + herman’s sign

A

Grade I

253
Q

Dengue grade
Herman’s sign + bleeding

A

Grade II

254
Q

Dengue grade
Herman’s sign + bleeding + circulatory collapse

A

Grade III

255
Q

Dengue grade
Herman’s sign + bleeding + circulatory collapse + shock

A

Grade IV

256
Q

Dengue warning signs

A

Abdominal pain
Persistent vomiting
Clinical fluid accumulation
Mucosal bleed
Lethargy, restless
Liver enlargement >2cm
Inc HCT and dec Platelet

257
Q

Skin
Hair
Hair
Organism?

A

TRIchophyton

258
Q

Skin
HAIR
Organism?

A

Microsprora

259
Q

Skin
NAIL
Organism?

A

EPIdermophyton

260
Q

Ringworm of scalp

A

Tinea Capitis

261
Q

Ringworm of bearded region

A

Tinea barbae

262
Q

Ringworm of glabrous skin

A

Tinea corporis

263
Q

Jock itch

A

Tinea cruris

264
Q

Athlete’s foot

A

Tinea pedis

265
Q

Most serious tinea capitis

A

Tinea favosa / favus
- hairloss and permanent scarring

266
Q

Trichophyton schoenleinii

A

Tibea Favus

267
Q

MCC of outbreaks of Tinea capitis in children

A

Trichophyton Tonsurans

268
Q

Main cause of endothrix

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

269
Q

Most prevalent systemic mycosis

A

Candidiasis
Candida albicans

270
Q

Pseudohyphae
Germ tube
Budding yeast
Oral thrush
Curds of milk
Cottage cheese

A

Candida albicans

271
Q

Vaginal pruritus
KOH

A

Candida

272
Q

Vaginal pruritus
Sexually transmitted
Wet mount

A

Trichomonas

273
Q

CD4 count of 200 to 500
Dx?
Tx?

A

PTB
Anti-koch

274
Q

CD4 count of <200
Dx?
Tx?

A

PCP (jirovecii)
TMP-SMX

275
Q

CD4 count of <50
Dx?
Tx?

A

Mycobacterium Avium Cellulare complex (MAC)
Azithromycin or Clarithromycin

276
Q

Pigeon droppings
Eucalyptus tree

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

277
Q

Severe intestinal pneumonia in immunocompromised patients especially AIDS

A

Pneumocystis carinii/ Jiroveci

278
Q

Hallmark:
Hypoxemia
Bilateral infiltrate

B1,3 glycan

Silverstain
BAL (Bronchoalveolar lavage)

A

Pneumocystis carini/ jiroveci

279
Q

Extreme nocturnal itching
Create TUNNELS
@interdigital webs, wrist, axilla etc

A

Sarcopetes scabei
Scabies

280
Q

Extreme nocturnal itching
@ Anus
Pinworm

A

Enterobius vermicularis

281
Q

Rose gardener’s disease
CIGAR shaped budding yeast
Flowerette arrangement

A

Sporothrix schenckii

282
Q

Packs of cigars

A

M. lemprey

283
Q

Dichotomously branching hyphae
Otomycosis
Fungus ball

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

284
Q

Black nasal discharge
Immunocompromised
DKA
Fungal infection

A

Mucormycosis

285
Q

Complete virus particle

A

VirION

***conplete virus particle of Hep B = DANE particle

286
Q

Minor antigenic change

A

Drift

287
Q

Major antigenic change

A

Shift

Epidemic!!

288
Q

Most virulent serotype of polio virus

A

Serotype 1

289
Q

Route of transmission of polio

A

Fecal-oral route

290
Q

Cell affected by polio

A

Anterior Horn cell of spinal cord

291
Q

Coxsackie B virus causes

A

Pleurodynia (Bornholm disease)
Myocarditis
Pericarditis

292
Q

MCC of infantile gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

293
Q

Principal cause of human disease in rotavirus

A

Group A
—LBM in infants

294
Q

Gold standard of Rota virus

A

Viral culture

295
Q

Vesicular lesion
Dew drop on a rose petal
Pruritic

A

Varicella

296
Q

How to detect multinucleated giant cells in HSV 1, HSV 2 and VZV

A

Tzank test

297
Q

Most prominent sign of EBV

A

Pharyngitis

298
Q

Lab finding:
Atypical lymphocytes
CD8 T cell predominant
Abnormal liver function
Dx

A

EBV

299
Q

Immunodeficiency disorder that results from a T-cell and natural killer cell defect and is characterized by an abnormal response to Epstein-Barr virus infection, leading to liver failure, immunodeficiency, lymphoma, fatal lymphoproliferative disease, or bone marrow aplasia.

A

X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome

300
Q

Early manifestation of infection w/ HIV in adults
Raised, white, corrugated lesions on the tongue

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

301
Q

Rash centriFUGAL/ cephalocaudad
Pruritic
Vesicular/ dew drop on a rose petal
Intranuclear inclusions in epithelial cells

A

Varicella

302
Q

Dermatomal distribution
MC in thoracic
Dorsal root ganglion cell necrosis

A

Varicella zoster

303
Q

Varicella affects facial nerve of geniculate ganglion
Mononuclear infiltration w herpetic intranuclear inclusion

A

Ramsay hunt syndrome

304
Q

Congenital varicella infection at 6-12 weeks of gestation

A

Interruption in limb development
Cicatrix

305
Q

Congenital varicella infection at 16-20 weeks of gestation

A

Eye and brain involvement

306
Q

MC gene of Mucormycosis

A

Rhizopus and mucor

307
Q

Broad
Non septate hyphae
Wider than aspergillus
Branch irregularly

A

Mucormycosis

308
Q

Fungual infection which affects people who are Diabetic, with Defect in ohagocytic fx and those with increased levels of FREE IRON (dialysis, multiple drug transfusion, hemochromatosis)

A

Mucormycosis

309
Q

Iron chelator for humans but also serves as fungal siderophore, directly deliverinv iron to mucorales

A

Deferoxamine

310
Q

Eye or facial pain
Facial numbness
Conjunctival suffusion
Blurry vision
Bilateral proptosis
Chemosis
Ophthalmoplegia
CAVERNUS SINUS THROMBOSIS

A

Rhino-orbital-cerebral Mucormycosis

311
Q

MC site of dissemination of Mucormycosis

A

Brain

312
Q

Tx of mucormycosis

A

Ampothericin B

Isovuconazole
Posaconazole

313
Q

The only common pathogenic protozoa found in DUODENUM & JEJUNUM of humans

A

Giargia lambia

314
Q

Backpacker’s diarrhea /fever

Pear shaped
(+) ventral sucking disks
Falling leaf motility
Owl’s eyes

A

Giardia lambia

315
Q

Entero-test (String test)

A

Giargia lambia

316
Q

Day care center
Refugee camp

Greasy, foul smelling stool
Flatulence

Tx Metronidazole

A

Giargia lambia

317
Q

Undulating membrane
Exists only as trophozoite
Does NOT enter to uterus
Frothy yellow or cream colored discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

318
Q

Profuse vaginal discharge
Local tenderness
Vulvat pruritus

Jerky TUMBLING motility on fresh mount

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

319
Q

Tx of trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

320
Q

Family Retroviridae
Subfamily Lentiviruses
Icosahedral structure
Numerous external spikes

2 envelopes
Gp120 -external, high affinity to CD4
Gp41 - transmembrane

A

HIV- AIDS

321
Q

4 retroviruses known to cause human disease

A

HTLV 1
HTLV 2
HIV 1 - MC world wide (chimpanzee)
HIV 2 - west africa

322
Q

Higest probability or risk per act of acquiring HIV

A

Receptive anal intercourse

323
Q

Profound immunodeficiency due to progressive quantitative and qualitative deficiency of helper T cells

A

HIV-AIDS

324
Q

CD4 count of <200 cells/uL or <15%

A

AIDS
Stage 4 in WHO
Stage 3 in CDC

325
Q

Tx for Cryptococcus
CD4 <50

A

Fluconazole

326
Q

Tx for Histoplasmosis

A

Itraconazole

327
Q

Tx for varicella zoster

A

Varicella zoster immune globulin / Acyclovir

328
Q

MC associated with dental carries

A

Steptococcus mutans

329
Q

Cam be part of normal vaginal flora and can cause meningitis in newborns

A

Group B streptococcus

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