TC 3-04.4 Flashcards

1
Q

Blade coning is the sum result of what two forces?

A

Centrifugal force
+
lifting force on the blade

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2
Q

Why is more power generally required to hover (IGE / OGE) as opposed to the power needed during cruise?

A

Rotor tip vortices that are present during a hover that make the outer portion of the blade less effective

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3
Q

Why is less power required for an IGE hover than an OGE hover?

A

Rotor tip vortices are larger during an OGE hover and effect a larger portion of each blade than during an IGE hover

Induced flow is greater during an OGE hover which decreases the AoA

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4
Q

What is translational lift?

A

Improved rotor efficiency resulting from directional flight and outrunning rotor vortices

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5
Q

What is the transverse flow effect?

A

The difference in lift of the fore and aft portions of the blade as a result of air passing over the rotor system and gaining a progressively more downward motion the further aft the air is passed through the rotor system.

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6
Q

When does ETL occur?

A

16 to 24 Knots when the rotor effectively outruns the recirculating of old rotor vortices

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7
Q

Autorotation converts _________ energy into _________ energy.

A

Potential

Kinetic

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8
Q

What is Bucket Speed?

A

Airspeed range that provides the best power margin for maneuvering flight.

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9
Q

When is mushing considered a critical situation?

A

During low altitude recoveries or engagements that require tight turning radii

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10
Q

What conditions can aggravate mushing?

A

High density altitudes and high gross weight

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11
Q

As air density increases, engine power output, rotor efficiency, and aerodynamic lift ______________.
(Increases / decreases)

A

Increases

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12
Q

What are the three major factors that affect aircraft performance?

A

Density altitude
Weight
Wind

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13
Q

Why is the critical angle (in reference to dynamic rollovers) considered a dynamic angle and not a static angle?

A

Because the critical angle changes based on external factors such as the roll rate of the aircraft.
As the roll rate increases, the critical angle decreases and vice versa.

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14
Q

What are the human factors of a dynamic rollover

A

-Inattention
-Inexperience
-Failure to take timely corrective action
-inappropriate control input
-Loss of visual reference

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15
Q

What five conditions can cause ground resonance?

A

-defective drag dampers
-improperly serviced landing gear
-hard landings on one wheel
-ground taxiing over rough terrain
-hesitant or bouncing landings

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16
Q

Define basic weight

A

The weight of an aircraft including all hydraulic and oil systems full, trapped and unusable fuel full, and all fixed equipment

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17
Q

Define operating weight

A

Basic weight plus aircrew, aircrews baggage, emergency gear, and other equipment required

does not include fuel

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18
Q

Define gross weight or takeoff gross weight

A

Operating weight plus fuel/payload

19
Q

When loading a CH47’s cargo internally it is assumed that cargo is being loaded centered around the:

A

Centroid of each compartment

20
Q

What are the three categories of external loads and which is the most stable?

A

High density, low density, and aerodynamic

High density is the most stable

21
Q

What ATP provides guidance for handling, storage, and transportation of ammunition and explosives?

A

ATP 4-35.1

22
Q

Whenever a helicopter loaded with ammunition and fuel as cargo takes off or lands at an airport, the ATC service of that airport shall be notified of what?

A

Quantity, type, and classification of the cargo

23
Q

In peacetime, flying helicopters loaded with ammunition and fuel as cargo over residential areas is ____________.

A

Prohibited

24
Q

Ice on the aircraft windscreen usually occurs first on what components

A

Wiper blades and arms, and the edges of the windshield

25
Q

Rotor blade icing begins where?

A

Near the blade root

26
Q

Asymmetrical ice shedding can cause what condition?

A

Severe vibration

27
Q

Wind associated with mountains can be broken down into three main categories:

A

Prevailing wind
Local wind
Surface wind

28
Q

Define demarcation line

A

The point separating upflow air from downflow air. It forms at the mountains highest point and extends diagonally upward.

Generally, the higher the windspeed and steeper the terrain, the steeper the demarcation line.

29
Q

When flying in mountainous regions, aviators should be aware of the potential for altimeter errors due to what effect?

A

The Venturi effect. Low pressure can develop on the Leeward side of mountains. 

30
Q

In Mountainous terrain, if a downdraft is encountered, what action should be performed?

A

Full power is applied and best rate of climb airspeed maintained. If unable to stop descent, a turn away from terrain is made. A maneuver downhill toward an area in the valley floor is attempted while maintaining Airspeed. Near the valley bottom, downdrafts begin to decrease in severity.

31
Q

What is the basic rule for crossing a ridge?

A

Diagonally

32
Q

How are escape routes assessed?

A

By determining where altitude can be exchanged for air speed

33
Q

What two factors make overwater flight particularly challenging?

A

Difficulty discerning a visible horizon and a near featureless terrain

34
Q

Terrain interpretation/association is more difficult when the moon is _________________.

A

Low on the horizon (longer shadows and less contrast)

35
Q

The ability to identify man-made or natural features at night ____________ as flight altitude increases.

A

DECREASES

36
Q

What are the three modes of terrain flight?

A

Low level, contour, and NOE

37
Q

Describe NOE flight

A

-conducted at varying air speeds as close to the earths surface as vegetation and obstacles permit
-up to 25 feet over the tallest obstacle

38
Q

Describe contour flight

A

Conducted at low altitude‘s conforming to the earths contours. Relatively constant Airspeeds and varying altitude as dictated by terrain and obstacles.

25 to 80 feet above the highest obstacle

39
Q

Describe low level flight

A

Constant altitude and airspeed dictated by threat avoidance.

Between 80 and 200 feet above highest obstacle

40
Q

What are the PZ/LZ selection considerations?
(SNOWCAL)

A

Size
Number and type of aircraft
Obstacles
Winds
Ground Condition
Approach/departure routes
Location

41
Q

What are the hazards to terrain flight?

A

Meteorological, physical, human
(MPH)

42
Q

What are the three techniques of movement and when are they used?

A

Traveling: when the enemy contact is unlikely

Traveling overwatch: when speed is essential and enemy contact is possible

Bounding overwatch: when enemy contact is expected

43
Q

What are the four categories of horizontal distance in formation flight?

A

Tight-2 disks
Close- 3 to 5
Loose- 6 to 10
Extended- >10

44
Q

What types of vertical separation are used in formation flight?

A

Flat, stepped up, or stepped down