Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

425 - sys path > Neuro 2 > Flashcards

Neuro 2 Flashcards

1
Q

where is the location of grey vs white matter in the spinal cord?

A

white on the outside, grey on the inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

from where do sensory nerves originate? motor? in the spinal cord

A

sensory: dorsal funiculi
motor: ventral funiculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how do you tell ventral from dorsal spinal cord?

A

ventral = ventral fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tell me the 3 layers of the meninges from outside to inside

A

dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the leptomeninges?

A

arachnoid + pia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when we remove the brain, the dura does what?

A

stays with the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where does CSF be?

A

subarachnoid space (b/t arachnoid and Pia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the epidural space?

A

separation b/t dura and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when we remove the spinal cord, what does dura do?

A

stays with spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what do the meninges “become” in the PNS?

A

epinerium, perineurium, endoneurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 5 cell types in the brain/spinal cord?

A

neuron, astrocyte, oligodendrocyte, microglia, ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____ are the most numerous type of CNS cell, important for regulation, repair, and support.

A

astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_______ myelinate axons within the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the glial cells?

A

astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ependyma includes _______ and _______.

A

ependymal cells & choroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tell me the 4 portals of entry into the CNS.

A
  1. hematogenous
  2. direct extension
  3. leukocyte trafficking
  4. retrograde axonal transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tell me 5 examples of diseases that come from retrograde axonal transport

A

rabies, herpes, Listeria, tetanus, prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is meningitis?

A

inflammation of the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is meningoencephalitis?

A

inflammation of meninges and the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tell me some possible causes of meningitis (you have to know the first one fo sho!)

A

bacteria
virus
parasites (Protozoa esp)
fungi
idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in neonates < 5 days old, what is the common bacterial cause of meningitis?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define these terms:
1. bacteremia
2. septicemia
3. sepsis

A
  1. presence of bacteria in blood
  2. presence and multiplication of bacteria in blood
  3. body wide inflammatory response to septicaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the number 1 risk factor for neonatal septicaemia?

A

failure of passive transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

neonatal septicemia is common in animals what age?

A

<3 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

in neonatal septicemia, bacteria from the blood tend to seed out in what locations?

A

filtration organs (liver, lung, spleen, kidney)
joints
growth plates
uvea
meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tell me the gross appearance of bacterial meningitis

A

cloudiness
esp on the ventral side, because this is where things settle with gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the lesion?

A

bacterial septicaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

vertebral body abscesses are common in young production animals secondary to….

A

tail docking [lambs], tail biting [pigs], septicaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the portals of entry for vertebral body abscesses? where are the abscesses located? why do bacteria go here?

A

direct or hematogenous
vertebral growth plates or intervertebral discs (most commonly above the heart and above kidney)
hair-pin loops –> blood slows down and bacteria can jump out here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is discospondylitis?

A

inflammatory disease involving intervertebral discs and adjacent vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how do vertebral body absences cause spinal deficits?

A

compression of spinal cord or extension of infection into cord (meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

lesion?

A

vertebral body abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

lesion?

A

discospondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

spina bifida is a _______ defect. what breeds are predisposed?

A

neural tube closure defect
English bulldog & Manx cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

spina bifida affects where in the spine?

A

caudal spine (last part of tube to close)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a bad outcome of spina bifida?

A

may get secondary spinal cord infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Spina bifida can have herniation or no herniation. Please tell me the types of herniation and what it’s called when there’s no herniation. how can you tell there’s no herniation?

A

meninges herniating alone = meningocele
meninges + spinal cord = meningomyelocele
spina bifida occulta = no herniation –> absence of skin over this area, but muscle still present with spinal cord below

38
Q

these are examples of what?

A

spina bifida occulta

39
Q

what is hydromyelia?

A

dilation of the central canal of spinal cord

40
Q

tell me the pathogenesis of hydromyelia?

A
  1. infectious or genetic damage to the ependymal cells
  2. disruption of the normal CSF flow and abnormal pressure gradients
  3. increased CSF pressure causes compression and loss of surrounding tissues
  4. CSF fills the resulting space forming a cystic dilation
41
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

tubular cavitation of the spinal cord that extends over several segments

42
Q

what lesion?

A

Syringomyelia

43
Q

What is the other name for Cervical Stenotic Myelopathy?

A

Wobbler’s

44
Q

who does Wobbler’s/Cervical stenotic myelopathy affect?

A

young, rapidly growing horses and dogs (large breed)
males > females

45
Q

tell me the two types of Wobbler’s and what they mean.

A

Static stenosis: 1-4 yrs, c5-c7, compression all the time
dynamic stenosis: 8-18 mos, c3-c5, compression not all the time (neck flexion only)

46
Q

Great Danes and Dobermans only get what kind of Wobbler’s?

A

static stenosis

47
Q

tell me the pathogenesis of Wobbler;s

A

narrowing of vertebral canal causes compression of the spinal cord/nerve roots
get Wallerian degeneration

48
Q

what is the lesion? what if I told you the lesion affected C6? What about C3?

A

Cervical stenotic myelopathy
C6 = static stenosis
C3 = dynamic stenosis

49
Q

lebl

A

A: Annulus fibrosus
B: nucleus pulposus

50
Q

Intervertebral disc disease is most common in ______ breeds. name 1 example.

A

Chondrodystrophic
Dachschund

51
Q

What is intervertebral disc disease?

A

nucleus pulposus is replaced by cartilage and the annulus fibrosus weakens

52
Q

_____ rupture occurs most commonly, and at the _________.

A

dorsal rupture
thoracolumbar junction (T12-L2)

53
Q

what?

A

intervertebral disc disease

54
Q

Tell me about the 2 classes of herniation involved in intervertebral disc disease.

A

Hansen type 1: sudden rupture of annulus fibrosus, nucleus pulposus into spinal canal, chondrodystrophic breeds, associated with mild trauma, more severe (young bois)

Hansen type 2: gradual degeneration of intervertebral disc, bulging of disc into spinal cord, non-chondrodystrophic breeds (old bois)

55
Q

Intervertebral disc disease results in _____.

A

Wallerian degeneration

56
Q

label

A

L: Hansen type 2 intervertebral disc disease
R: Hansen type 1

57
Q

lesion?

A

Hansen type 1 intervertebral disc disease

58
Q

lesion?

A

Hansen type 2 intervertebral disc disease

59
Q

what is another term for ischemic myelopathy?

A

Fibrocartilaginous emboli

60
Q

Ischemic myelopathy/fibrocartilaginous emboli are most common in ____ (species), and specifically _____ (breed). but they can occur in any species.

A

dogs, larger breeds

61
Q

Ischemic myelopathy/fibrocartilaginous emboli are associated with ____ or ______.

A

exercise or trauma

62
Q

true or false: ischemic myelopathy/fibrocartilagous emboli are more common in chondrodystrophic breeds.

A

false!

63
Q

what is ischemic myelopathy? (fibrocartilaginous emboli)

what does it lead to?

A

herniation of fibrocartilage from the intervertebral disc (nucleus pulposus) into the vasculature

leads to infarction of spinal cord

64
Q

what this an example of?

A

ischemic myelopathy aka fibrocartilaginous emboli

65
Q

tell me the 2 forms of copper deficiency in lambs and kids. and where location affect

A

congenital = swayback –> cerebrum, brainstem, spinal cord
enzootic ataxia –> brainstem, spinal cord

66
Q

nutritional/toxic lesions are often ______ (symmetrical/asymetrical)

A

bilaterally symmetrical

67
Q

copper deficiency in lambs and kids associated with what?

A

poor wool/hair quality and pigmentation, osteoporosis

68
Q

what are the clinical signs of equine motor neuron disease (EMND)?

A

progressive weakness and atrophy of skeletal muscles
older adult horses
pigmentary retinopathy

69
Q

what is equine motor neuron disease?

A

degeneration of lower motor neurons in the ventral horns of hte spinal cord and brain stem nuclei

70
Q

what is equine motor neuron disease associated with ?

A

vitamin E deficiency

71
Q

what are the gross lesions of equine motor neuron disease?

A

pale red-yellow discolouration of skeletal muscle
most apparent in the medial head of triceps brachia and vastus intermedius

72
Q

Equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy (EDM) is most common in _____ animals, ____ breed

A

young, Arabian

73
Q

Equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy always involves what? it may have a ____ component to it too.

A

vitamin E deficiency
genetic

74
Q

what is the histo lesion we have to know for equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy?

A

demyelination of the white matter of the spinal cord funiculi and brainstem

75
Q

What is the ethology of Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)? most common in what signalment?

A

Sarcocystis neurona
young adult horses

76
Q

what wild animal is associated with equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?

A

opossum

77
Q

equine protozoal myeloencephalitis can occur anywhere, but is most common where?

A

spinal cord&raquo_space; brainstem

78
Q

equine protozoal myeloencephalitis histo:
1. what histo lesion do we have to know?
2. what’s another obvious one?

A
  1. white and grey matter both affected
  2. can see protozoal cysts in tissues
79
Q

what is this an example of

A

equine protozoal myeloencephalitis

80
Q

how do herpes get into the CNS?

A

retrograde axonal transport, leukocyte trafficking

81
Q

Equine Herpesvirus 1 causes what 3 major syndromes in horses?

A
  1. abortion and neonatal death
  2. rhinopneumonitis
  3. myeloencephalitis
82
Q

Equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy affects what signalment? infected through what mechanism? where does virus like to hang out before CNS?

A

adult horses
inhalation
lymphocytes and macrophages

83
Q

Equine herpesvirus 1 can become ____ in the lymph nodes or trigeminla nerve

A

latent

84
Q

Equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy is ____ NOT neutropic

A

endotheliotropic
he loves blood vessels

85
Q

how does equine herpesvirus 1 move to hte CNS?

A

leukocyte trafficking

86
Q

what is this an example of?

A

equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalpathy

87
Q

histo finding in equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy?

A

vasculitis, leading to infarction

88
Q

gross findings of equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy?

A

well-demarcated areas of hemorrhage and necrosis

89
Q

equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy is more ____end oriented

A

hind

90
Q

Degenerative radiculomyelopathy of dogs is most common in what breed?

A

German shepherd

91
Q

what is dural ossification in old dogs?

A

a form of osseous metaplasia of the dural

92
Q

what is the lesion?

A

dural ossification in old dogs

425 - sys path (38 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions