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PSYCH 105 > Chapter 12 > Flashcards

Chapter 12 Flashcards

1
Q

cross-sectional design

A
  • compare people of different ages at the same point in time
  • cross-sectional design is widely used because data from many age groups can be collected relatively quickly, but a key drawback is that the different age groups, called cohorts, grew up in different historical periods
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2
Q

longitudinal design

A
  • repeatedly tests the same cohort as it grows older
  • longitudinal design is time-consuming and, as years pass, our sample may shrink sub- stantially as people move, drop out of the study, or die
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3
Q

sequential design

A
  • combines the cross-sectional and longitu- dinal approaches
  • repeatedly test several age cohorts as they grow older and determine whether they follow a similar developmental pattern
  • most comprehensive, but also the most time-consuming and costly
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4
Q

Three Staged of Prenatal Development

A
  1. germinal stage
  2. embryonic stage
  3. fetal stage
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5
Q

germinal stage

A
  • constitutes approximately the first two weeks of development, beginning when one sperm fertilizes a female egg (zygote)
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6
Q

embryonic stage

A
  • extends from the end of the second week through the eighth week after conception, and the cell mass now is called an embryo
  • the placenta and umbilical cord, develop at the start of this stage
  • embryonic cells divide rapidly and become specialized
  • Bodily organs and systems begin to form, and by week eight the heart of embryo is beating, the brain is forming, and facial features, such as eyes, can be recognized
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7
Q

placenta

A
  • contains membranes that allow nutrients to pass from the mother’s blood to the umbilical cord
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8
Q

umbilical cord

A
  • contains blood vessels that carry these nutrients and oxygen to the embryo, and waste products back from the embryo to the mother
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9
Q

fetus

A

At the ninth week after conception, the embryo is called a fetus

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10
Q

fetal stage

A
  • lasts until birth, muscles become stronger and other bodily systems continue to develop
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11
Q

age of viability

A
  • by 28 weeks
  • the fetus is likely to survive outside the womb in case of premature birth
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12
Q

The 23rd pair of chromosomes determines the baby’s _____.

A

sex

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13
Q

genetic female’s 23rd pair contains…

A

two X chromosomes (XX)

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14
Q

A genetic male’s 23rd pair contains…

A

an X and a Y chromosome (XY)

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15
Q

TDF gene

A
  • testis determining factor
  • contained by the Y chromosome, triggers male sexual development
  • At roughly six to eight weeks after conception, the TDF gene initiates the development of testes
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16
Q

androgens

A
  • sex hormones secreted by the testes that continue to direct a male pattern of organ development
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17
Q

Teratogens

A

environmental agents that cause abnormal prenatal development

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18
Q

What did Robert Coplan do?

A
  • investigated maternal anxiety during pregnancy and infant temperament
  • found that maternal anxiety is associated with greater infant distress reactions and difficulty in recovering from distress at three months of age
  • prenatal exposure to stress and the stress hormones is an important risk factor for later mental health problems, including anxiety and depression
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19
Q

FASD

A
  • Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders
  • involve a range of mild to severe cognitive, behavioural, and physical deficits caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol
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20
Q

FAS

A
  • fetal alcohol syndrome
  • FAS children have facial abnormalities and small, malformed brains
  • intellectual disability, attentional and perceptual deficits, impulsivity, and poor social skills
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21
Q

What did William James do?

A
  • suggested that the newborn’s world is a “buzzing, blooming confusion”—that is, that they are passive, disorganized, and have an empty mind
  • This view is no longer tenable
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22
Q

Infants are very ________; their visual acuity is about _______.

A

nearsighted, 20/800, or 40 times worse than normal adult acuity of 20/20

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23
Q

What did Robert Fantz do?

A
  • used the preferential looking procedure to study infants’ visual preferences
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24
Q

preferential looking procedure

A
  • is used to study infants’ visual preferences.
  • preference is inferred by measuring how long the infant looks at one visual stimulus compared to another
  • Infants tend to prefer complex patterns to sim- ple patterns and solid colours, and prefer yellow and blue over other colours
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25
Q

What did Philip Zelazo do?

A
  • used an auditory habituation procedure to study infant memory
  • They recorded two-day-olds’ head-turning toward an off-centred, recorded speech sound
  • After about 16 presentations, infants stopped turning to face the now familiar sound
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26
Q

How did Philip Zelazo know the infants were not simply fatigued from the sound?

A

(1) by the end of habituation, many infants were turning away from the sound, per- haps trying to avoid it
(2) they readily turned toward a novel sound
(3) partial habituation to the sound lasted for at least 24 hours

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27
Q

What did Barbara Morrongiello do?

A

showed that newborns rapidly learn to associate particular sounds with particular objects, including the mother’s face and voice.

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28
Q

sound localization

A
  • the remarkable ability of newborns to turn toward sounds at birth disappears in the second month of life and returns again at four to five months of age
  • U-shaped function
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29
Q

maturation

A
  • the genetically pro- grammed biological process that governs our growth
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30
Q

cephalocaudal principle

A
  • reflects the tendency for development to proceed in a head-to-foot direction
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31
Q

proximodistal principle

A
  • states that devel- opment begins along the innermost parts of the body and continues toward the outermost parts
  • Thus, a fetus’s arms develop before the hands and fingers and at birth infants can control their shoulders, but not their arm or hand muscles
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32
Q

The Young Brain

A
  • No organ develops more dramatically than the brain
  • At birth, the newborn’s brain is far from mature and has reached only about 25 percent of its eventual adult weight
  • By six months of age, however, the brain reaches 50 percent of its adult weight
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33
Q

Among the last areas to mature is the ________, which is vital to our highest-level cognitive functions

A

frontal cortex

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34
Q

Motor Development

A
  • Motor development tends to follow a regular, stage-like sequenc
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35
Q

Three points that apply across the realm of human development:

A
  • Biology sets limits on environmental influences
  • Environmental influences can be powerful
  • Biological and environmental factors interact
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36
Q

What did Jean Piaget do?

A
  • worked for French psychologist Alfred Binet, the pioneer of intelligence testing
  • He came to believe that the key issue in understanding how children think was not whether they got the right answers, but how they arrived at their answers
  • relied on observational research
  • viewed children as natural-born “scientists” who actively explore and seek to understand their world
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37
Q

schemas

A
  • organized patterns of thought and action
  • an “internal framework” that guides our interaction with the world
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38
Q

Piaget two key processes

A
  • Assimilation and Accommodation
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39
Q

Assimilation

A

the process by which new experiences are incorporated into existing schemas

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40
Q

Accommodation

A

the process by which new experiences cause existing schemas to change

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41
Q

Piaget’s Model of Cognitive Development

A
  1. Sensorimotor
  2. Preoperational
  3. Concrete operational
  4. Formal operational
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42
Q

sensorimotor stage

A
  • from birth to about age two, infants understand their world primarily through sensory experiences and physical (motor) interactions with objects
  • Achieves object permanence
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43
Q

object permanence

A

the understanding that an object continues to exist even when it no longer can be seen

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44
Q

preoperational stage

A
  • they represent the world symbolically through words and mental images, but do not yet understand basic mental operations or rules
  • The preoperational child does not understand conservation
  • displays irreversibility, centration and egocentrism
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45
Q

conservation

A

the principle that basic properties of objects, such as their volume, mass, or quantity, stay the same (are “conserved”) even though their outward appearance may change

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46
Q

irreversibility

A

It is difficult for them to reverse an action mentally

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47
Q

centration

A

they focus (centre) on only one aspect of the situation, such as the height of the liquid

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48
Q

egocentrism

A

difficulty in viewing the world from someone else’s perspective

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49
Q

concrete operational stage

A
  • can perform basic mental operations concern- ing problems that involve tangible objects and situations
  • grasped the concept of reversibility, displayed less centration, and easily solved conservation problems
  • grasped the concept of serial ordering
  • often have difficulty with hypothetical problems or problems requiring abstract reasoning; they often show rigid types of thinking
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50
Q

formal operational stage

A
  • individuals think logically about both concrete and abstract problems, form hypotheses, and systematically test them
  • begins around 11 to 12 years of age, and increases through adolescence
  • think more flexibly when tackling hypothetical problems
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51
Q

Tests of Piaget’s theory conducted around the world yield several general findings

A
  1. the general cognitive abilities associated with Piaget’s four stages occur in the same order across cultures
  2. children acquire many cognitive skills and concepts at an earlier age than Piaget believed
  3. cognitive development within each stage seems to proceed inconsistently. A child may perform at the preoperational level on some tasks, yet solve other tasks at a concrete operational level. This challenges the idea that development proceeds in distinct stages
  4. culture influences cognitive development
  5. cognitive development is more complex and variable than Piaget proposed
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52
Q

What did Lev Vygotsky do?

A
  • highlighted how the sociocultural context interacts with the brain’s biological maturation
  • introducing a concept called the zone of proximal development
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53
Q

zone of proximal development

A

the difference between what a child can do independently and what a child can do with assistance from adults or more advanced peers

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54
Q

Why is the zone of proximal development important?

A
  1. it helps us recognize what children may soon be able to do by themselves
  2. it emphasizes that people can help to “move” a child’s cognitive development forward within limits dictated by the child’s biological maturation
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55
Q

theory of mind

A

refers to a person’s beliefs about the mind and the ability to understand other people’s mental states; that is, we have theories about the contents of other peoples’ minds

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56
Q

emotion regulation

A

the processes by which we evaluate and modify our emotional reactions

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57
Q

temperament

A

a biologically based general style of reacting emotionally and behaviourally to the environment

58
Q

Inhibited infants

A
  • are quiet and timid; they cry and withdraw when they are exposed to unfamiliar people, places, objects, and sounds
59
Q

Uninhibited infants

A
  • are more sociable, verbal, and spontaneous
60
Q

What did Erik Erikson do?

A

believed that personality develops through confronting a series of eight major psychosocial stages, each of which involves a different “crisis” over how we view ourselves in relation to other people and the world

61
Q

Erikson’s Psychosocial Stages

A

First year: Basic trust vs. basic mistrust
1–2: Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
3–5: Initiative vs. guilt
6–12: Industry vs. inferiority
12–20: Identity vs. role confusion
20–40: Intimacy vs. isolation
40–65: Generativity vs. stagnation
65+: Integrity vs. despair

62
Q

imprinting

A

a sudden, powerful, biologically primed form of attachment. Imprinting involves a critical period.

63
Q

attachment

A
  • refers to the strong emotional bond that develops between children and their primary caregivers
  • There is no immediate post-birth critical period when contact is required for infant–caregiver bonding, as with imprinting
64
Q

What did Harry Harlow do?

A
  • Harlow showed that contact comfort—body contact with a comforting object—is more important in fostering attach- ment than is the provision of nourishment
65
Q

John Bowlby proposed that attachment during infancy develops in three phases:

A
  1. Indiscriminate attachment
  2. Discriminate attachment
  3. Specific attachment behaviour
66
Q

Indiscriminate attachment

A
  • Newborns cry, vocalize, and smile, and they emit these behaviours toward everyone. In turn, these behaviours evoke caregiving from adults.
67
Q

Discriminate attachment

A
  • Around three months of age, infants direct their attachment behaviours more toward familiar caregivers than toward strangers.
68
Q

Specific attachment behaviour

A
  • By seven or eight months of age, infants develop their first meaningful attachment to specific caregivers. The caregivers become a “secure base” from which the infant can crawl about and explore the environment.
69
Q

Stranger anxiety

A

distress over contact with unfamiliar people, emerges around age six or seven months, and ends by 18 months of age

70
Q

Separation anxiety

A
  • distress over being separated from a primary caregiver, typically begins a little later, peaks around age 12 to 16 months, and disappears between two and three years of age, showing an inverted U-shaped age function
71
Q

goal-corrected partnership

A

children and caregivers can describe their feelings to each other and maintain their relationships whether they are together or apart

72
Q

Strange Situation Test (SST)

A
  • standardized procedure for examining infant attachment
  • The infant, first plays with toys in the mother’s presence. Then a stranger enters the room and interacts with the child. Soon the mother leaves the child with the stranger. Later the stranger leaves and the child is left alone. Finally, the mother returns.
73
Q

securely attached infants

A

explore the playroom and react positively to strangers. They are distressed when she leaves and happily greet her when she returns.

74
Q

two types of “insecurely attached” infants

A

Anxious-resistant and Anxious-avoidant

75
Q

Anxious-resistant

A

are fearful when the mother is present, demand her attention, and are highly distressed when she leaves. They are not soothed when she returns and may angrily resist her attempts at contact.

76
Q

Anxious-avoidant infants

A

show few signs of attachment and seldom cry when the mother leaves and don’t seek contact when she returns.

77
Q

disorganized-disoriented attachment

A

Infants that shows disorganized attachment may appear disoriented and confused, or they may show contradictory behaviours, such as simultaneously trying to get close to the mother and freezing or striking out when the mother tries to comfort them.

78
Q

National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) Early Child Care Research Network

A

began studying approximately 1400 American children from birth. Findings:

  • Attachment: high-quality child care did not disrupt infants’ or very young chil- dren’s attachment to their parents,
  • Social behaviour: virtually no significant differences emerged through age four-and-a-half
  • Cognitive performance: children’s cognitive development by age four-and-a-half did not differ significantly depending on whether they experienced child care or were raised exclusively by their mothers
79
Q

What did Diana Baumrid do?

A

identified two key dimensions of parental behaviour; warmth versus hostility and restrictiveness versus permissiveness

80
Q

Warm parents

A

communicate love and caring for the child, and respond with greater sensitivity and empathy to the child’s feelings

81
Q

Hostile parents

A

express rejection and behave as if they did not care about the child

82
Q

Authoritative parents

A
  • are controlling but warm
  • This style is associated with the most positive childhood outcomes
83
Q

Authoritarian parents

A
  • exert control over their children, but do so within a cold, unresponsive, or rejecting relationship
  • hildren tend to have lower self-esteem, be less popular with peers, and perform more poorly in school than children with authoritative parents
84
Q

Indulgent parents

A
  • have warm and caring relationships with their children, but do not provide the guidance and discipline that helps children learn responsibility and concern for others
  • children tend to be more immature and self-centred
85
Q

Neglectful parents

A
  • provide neither warmth nor rules and guidance
  • children are most likely to be insecurely attached, have low achievement motivation and disturbed relationships with peers and adults at school, and be impulsive and aggressive
  • Neglectful parenting is associated with the most negative developmental outcomes
86
Q

gender identity

A

a sense of “femaleness” or “maleness” that becomes a central aspect of our personal identity

87
Q

Gender constancy

A
  • the understanding that being male or female is a permanent part of a person, develops around age six or seven
88
Q

sex-role stereotypes

A

beliefs about the types of characteristics and behaviours that are appropriate for boys and girls to possess

89
Q

Socialization

A

the process by which we acquire the beliefs, values, and behaviours of a group, plays a key role in shaping our gender identity and sex-role stereotypes

90
Q

Sex-typing

A

involves treating others differently based on whether they are female or male

91
Q

androgynous gender identity

A
  • traditionally masculine and feminine traits can be blended within a single person
  • when a person is both assertive and compassionate
92
Q

What did Lawrence Kohlberg do?

A
  • developed a highly influential theory of moral reasoning
  • created the Heinz Dilemma
  • was interested not in whether people agreed or disagreed with Heinz’s behav- iour, but in the reasons for their judgment
93
Q

Preconventional moral reasoning

A

based on anticipated punishments or rewards

  • stage 1, children focus on punishment: “Heinz should steal the drug because if he lets his wife die he’ll get into trouble.”
  • stage 2, morality is judged by anticipated rewards and doing what is in the person’s own interest: “Heinz should steal the drug because that way he’ll still have his wife with him.”
94
Q

Conventional moral reasoning

A

based on conformity to social expectations, laws, and duties

  • In stage 3, conformity stems from the desire to gain people’s approval: “People will think that Heinz is bad if he doesn’t steal the drug to save his wife.”
  • In stage 4, children believe that laws and duties must be obeyed simply because rules are meant to be followed. Thus, “Heinz should steal the drug because it’s his duty to take care of his wife.”
95
Q

Postconventional moral reasoning

A

based on well thought out, general moral principles

  • Stage 5 involves recognizing the importance of societal laws, but also taking individual rights into account: “Stealing breaks the law, but what Heinz did was rea- sonable because he saved a life.”
  • In stage 6, morality is based on abstract, ethical principles of justice that are viewed as universal: “Saving life comes before financial gain, even if the person is a stranger. The law in this case is unjust, and stealing the drug is the morally right thing to do.”
96
Q

Studies of moral reasoning from North, Central, and South America, to Africa, Asia, Europe, and India indicate the following overall:

A

• From childhood through adolescence, moral reasoning changes from preconventional to conventional levels
• In adolescence and even adulthood, postcon- ventional reasoning is relatively uncommon
• A person’s moral judgments do not always reflect the same level or stage within levels

97
Q

Critics Claims about Kohlberg’s theory

A
  • has a Western cultural bias. Fairness and justice are Kohlberg’s postconventional ideals, but in many cultures the highest moral values focus on principles that do not fit easily into Kohlberg’s model, such as respect for all animal life, collective harmony, and respect for the elderly
  • Carol Gilligan argues that Kohlberg’s emphasis on justice also reflects a male bias. She claims that highly moral women place greater value than men do on caring and responsibility for others’ welfare
98
Q

conscience

A

tends to restrain individuals from acting in destructive or antisocial ways when they are not being monitored by parents or other adults

99
Q

adolescence

A

the period of development and gradual transition between childhood and adulthood

100
Q

puberty

A
  • period of rapid physical maturation in which the person becomes capable of sexual reproduction
101
Q

Adoleces vs Puberty

A
  • Adolescence differs from puberty
  • Although the developmental periods overlap, puberty is a biologically defined period whereas adolescence is a broader social construction
102
Q

young adulthood

A

approximately 20 to 40 years of age

103
Q

middle adulthood

A

roughly, one’s 40s through early 60s

104
Q

late adulthood

A

approximately age 65 and older

105
Q

primary sex characteristics

A
  • the sex organs involved in reproduction
  • stimulated by Pituitary hormones
106
Q

secondary sex characteristics

A

non-reproductive physical features, such as breasts in girls and facial hair in boys

107
Q

pubertal landmark

A

in girls is menarche, in boys, it is the pro- duction of sperm and the first ejaculation

108
Q

menarche

A

the first menstrual flow

109
Q

compared with girls who mature later…

A

early-maturing girls typically feel more selfconscious about their bodies and are more likely to eventually develop eating disorders, problems in school, major depression, and anxiety

110
Q

Cortical white matter within the frontal cortex

A

increases linearly with age

111
Q

Grey matter in the frontal cortex

A

peaks at around 11 years of age for girls and a year later for boys

112
Q

corpus callosum

A

a structure that allows the two hemispheres of the brain to communicate with each other

  • This struc- ture changes significantly during adolescence, increasing in area by up to 10 percent within a two-year period
113
Q

basal metabolic rate

A
  • the rate at which the resting body converts food into energy, slows and this produces a tendency to gain weight
  • Slows after age 40
114
Q

menopause

A

Around age 50 women’s ovaries stop producing estrogen; they lose their fertility and experience menopause, the end of menstruation

115
Q

What did Susan Resnick do?

A
  • used magnetic resonance imaging to measure the loss of brain tissue among 92 men and women over a four-year period
  • the participants were 59 to 85 years old at the start of the study
  • On average, over the next four years, they lost tissue at a rate of 5.4 percent per year in the brain regions studied frontal and parietal lobes showing the greatest loss
116
Q

adolescent egocentrism

A

a self-absorbed and distorted view of one’s uniqueness and importance

117
Q

Elkind (1967) proposed that adolescent egocentrism has two main parts:

A
  1. personal fable
  2. imaginary audience
118
Q

personal fable

A

adolescents often overestimate the uniqueness of their feelings and experiences

119
Q

imaginary audience

A

many adolescents feel that they are always “on stage” and that “everybody’s going to notice” how they look and what they do

120
Q

postformal thought

A
  • Several theorists disagree, proposing a fifth stage of cognitive development called post-formal thought, in which people can reason logically about opposing points of view and accept contradictions and irreconcilable differences
121
Q

What did Fergus Craik do?

A
  • concluded that, information-processing abilities decline during adulthood, but the age at which they begin to decline and the amount of decline can vary substantially
122
Q

Perceptual speed

A
  • reaction time
  • begins to decline steadily in early adulthood
123
Q

Memory for new factual information

A
  • With increasing age, adults generally find it harder to remember new series of numbers, names, and faces of new people, and new map directions
124
Q

Spatial memory

A

remains constant in adulthood and begins to decline in the 60s.

125
Q

Recall

A

declines more strongly than recognition, because recall requires more processing resources

126
Q

prospective memory

A

the ability to remember to perform some action in the future

127
Q

fluid intelligence

A

which reflects the ability to perform mental operations

  • fluid intelligence began to decline steadily in early adulthood
128
Q

crystallized intelligence

A

which reflects the accumulation of verbal skills and factual knowledge

  • crystallized intelligence peaked during middle adulthood and then began to decline in late adulthood
129
Q

“use it or lose it”

A
  • the moral for intellectual fitness
  • adults who retained their level of cognitive functioning tended to engage in more cognitively stimulating jobs and personal activities
130
Q

What did G. Stanley Hall do?

A
  • the first psychologist to study adolescence, viewed it as a time of “storm and stress.”
131
Q

What did Erik Erikson do?

A
  • “Who am I?” “What do I believe in?”
  • proposed that such questions reflect the pivotal crisis of adolescent personality development, which he termed identity versus role confusion
132
Q

What did James Marcia do?

A

classified the “identity status” of each person as follows:

  1. Identity diffusion
  2. Foreclosure
  3. Moratorium
  4. Identity achievement
133
Q

Identity diffusion

A

These teens and adults had not yet gone through an identity crisis. They seemed unconcerned or even cynical about identity issues and were not committed to a coherent set of values.

134
Q

Foreclosure

A

These individuals had not yet gone through an identity crisis either, but for a different reason: they committed to an identity and set of values before experiencing a crisis.

135
Q

Moratorium

A

These people wanted to establish a clear identity and were currently experiencing a crisis but had not yet resolved it.

136
Q

Identity achievement

A

These individuals had gone through an identity crisis, successfully resolved it, and emerged with a coherent set of values.

137
Q

our sense of identity has multiple components:

A

(1) our gender, ethnicity, and other attributes by which we define ourselves as members of social groups
(2) how we view our personal characteristics
(3) our goals and values

138
Q

Intimacy

A

the ability to open oneself to another person and to form close relationships

139
Q

integrity

A

a sense of completeness and fulfillment

140
Q

cohabit

A

that is, live together without being married

141
Q

Donald Super stages of careers from childhood through our mid-20s:

A
  1. growth stage of career interests in which we form initial impressions about the types of jobs we like or dislike
  2. exploration stage in which we form tentative ideas about a preferred career and pursue the necessary education or training
  3. establishment phase, during which they begin to make their mark. Initially, they may experience some job instability.
  4. maintenance stage that continues into late adulthood
  5. decline stage, people’s investment in work tends to decrease, and they eventually retire
142
Q

Elisabeth Kübler-Ross five stages of coping with death:

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
  • Extensive research by George Bonanno indicates that when people deal with loss or trauma they do not pass through Kübler-Ross’s stages of grief, but tend to be surprisingly resilient

PSYCH 105 (10 decks)

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