Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Michaelmas 5th year > Small animal neuro > Flashcards

Small animal neuro Flashcards

1
Q

How is the spinal cord divided up in terms of neuroanatomical localisation

A

C1-5, C6-T2, T3-L3, L4-S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is level vs quality of mentation

A

Level of mentation means alertness
Quality of mentation refers to behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 types of ataxia and what do they look like

A

General proprioceptive

Cerebella; exaggerated hypermetric movements, head tremor

Vestibular: animals can’t balance, fall to one side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When do we see general proprioceptive ataxia

A

Generally with spinal cord and brainstem disease e.g disc extrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does paresis mean

A

= abnormality of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is hemi vs paraparesis

A

Hemiparesis = abnormality of movement of one side of the body
Paraparesis = abnormality of movement of both hind limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What disease is a head tilt associated with

A

Vestibular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What disease is a head turn associated with

A

Forebrain
(rare to see this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is kyphosis

A

= back arching due to significant back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does low neck carriage in a dog indicate

A

Significant neck pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cranial nerve 1

A

Olfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CN II

A

Optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CN VI

A

Abducens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN VII

A

Facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CN VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CN IX

A

Glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CN XI

A

Spinal accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cranial nerves pnemonic

A

Ooh ooh ooh to touch and feel very good velvet - so heavenly!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cranial nerves does the menace reflex test

A

Optic nerve II (sensory), facial nerve VII (motor)
+ forebrain visual cortex on contralateral side
+ Cerebellum on ipsilateral side
= behavioural reflex; must be learnt so need forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What cranial nerves does the palpebral reflex test

A

Trigeminal nerve V (sensory), facial nerve VII (motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the nasal planum nociception test and when might we do it

A

Trigeminal V sensory, contralateral forebrain

If concerned about forebrain disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When might we do a corneal reflex test

A

If concerned about a deficit in CN V trigeminal sensation i.e negative palpebral already

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why might we not get a normal PLR if an animal is stressed

A

The sympathetic outflow due to stress may overcome parasympathetic oculomotor action so overall the pupil can’t constrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What nerves does the PLR test

A

Optic nerve II for sensory
Parasympathetic supply via oculomotor III for motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What nerves does the dazzle reflex test

A

Sensory = optic nerve (II)
motor = facial nerve VII
Just a brainstem reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What nerves does the oculovestibular reflex test

A

Sensory = vestibular nerve VIII
Motor = those that move the eye i.e oculomotor III, trochlear IV, abducens VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which nerve deficit could cause a permanent strabismus

A

CN III oculomotor nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is strabismus

A

Abnormal eye positioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the key to remember when looking for cranial nerve deficits

A

Look for asymmetry between two sides; it is rare to have a lesion that transects enough to cause bilateral CN deficity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What nerves does the gag reflex test

A

Sensory = glossopharngeal IX
Motor = vagus X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What nerves does jaw tone and tongue movement test

A

Sensory = trigeminal V
Motor = hypoglossal XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What other conditions can cause apparent abnormalities in postural reactions but don’t affect proprioception

A

Severe pain (orthopaedic; e.g osteosarcoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the main difference in spinal reflexes in UMN vs LMN issue

A

UMN defects: get normal or exaggerated reflexes
LMN defects: get reduced reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What nerve/spinal cord segment does the patella reflex specifically test

A

Femoral nerve
Spinal cord segments L4-L6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When would lesions cause ipsilateral vs contralateral deficits

A

If in the forebrain (i.e prior to crossing over) then expect contralateral
If in brainstem and cerebellum expect ipsilateral deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the only time we would see no menace response in a non-blind animal

A

Ipsilateral to a cerebellar lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does visual compensation mean for nystagmus evaluation

A

After a short while, animals may stop showing nystagmus due to visual compensation
–> must move the head into an abnormal position to see the abnormal nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is paradoxical vestibular syndrome

A

where vestibular signs are seen associated with cerebellar lesion on CONTRALATERAL side due to reduced inhibition on ipsilateral side so relatively less input on contralat side and get vestibular signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If there is a genuine seizure, what part of the brain is this related to

A

forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some signs you would see with a lesion in the forebrain

A

Proprioceptive deficits on contralateral sides
Menace deficit on contralateral side
Nasal planum deficit on contralateral side
Circling towards lesion side
Gait usually normal
Seizures if seen mean must be forebrain

46
Q

Signs seen with brainstem lesions

A

Ataxia; which is general proprioceptive or vestibular
Paresis; if hemiparetic will be on same side as lesion
Circling if vestibular system involved
Lower mentation level
Ipsilateral cranial nerve deficits

47
Q

Why do we see lower mentation in some brainstem lesions

A

Due to lesion affecting ascending reticular activating system

48
Q

If a head tremor was seen, where would it suggest a lesion is

A

Cerebellum

49
Q

Signs seen with lesion located in cerebellum

A

Dysmetria/hypermetria and ataxia
Usually no paresis
Ipsilateral menace reflex deficit despite no blindness
Vestibular signs
Head tremor

50
Q

Which injury sites would give front limb UMN deficits and hind limb UMN deficits

A

C1-C5

51
Q

Which injury sites would give front limb LMN deficits and hind limb UMN deficits

A

C6-T2

52
Q

Which injury sites would give just hind limb UMN deficits

A

T3-L3

53
Q

Which injury sites would give just hind limb LMN deficits

A

L4-S3

54
Q

What do we see with upper motor neuron deficits

A

Paralysis/paresis
Normal (or increased) reflexes and muscle tone
Muscle atrophy appears later and more mildly

55
Q

What do we see with lower motor neuron deficits

A

Paralysis or paresis
Reflexes are reduced (or absent)
Muscle tone is reduced
Muscle tone is severe and early

56
Q

What are the types of muscle atrophy that happen with UMN vs LMN dysfunction

A

UMN: get slow, mild atrophy due to disuse of the limb
LMN: get early, severe neurogenic atrophy (due to peripheral nerve dysfunction)

57
Q

What signs are seen with C1-C5 lesions

A

Tetraparesis
Ataxia in all limbs
Postural reaction deficits in all limbs
NORMAL spinal reflexes in all limbs
Floating thoracic limb gait; overstriding

58
Q

What signs are seen in C6-T2 lesions

A

Two engine gait; shuffling front limbs and slow long backleg strides
Spinal reflexes reduced in forelimb, normal in hindlimbs
Muscle atrophy and reduced tone in forelimbs
Postural reaction deficits in all limbs
May be missing cutaneous trunci reflex

59
Q

T3-L3 spine injury signs

A

Paraparesis (just back legs)
Forelimbs normal
Ataxic pelvic limbs
Cutaneous trunci cut off at point of lesion

60
Q

L4-S3 spine injury signs

A

Paraparesis (not ataxia since not central movement generation affected)
Postural reaction deficits in pelvic libs
Spinal reflexes reduced in pelvic limbs + muscle atrophy and reduced tone
Perineal reflex reduced/absent; same for tail movements

61
Q

When might we see a two engine gait that isn’t related to a spinal lesion

A

With very painful forelimbs e.g elbow dysplasia

62
Q

What is spinal shock

A

When a severe thoracolumbar lesion occurs but the reflexes in the pelvic limb are absent
BUT cutaneous trunci cut off is at the thoraco-lumbar region
Just temporary

63
Q

What is myelomalacia

A

When an explosive injury in thoracolumbar region sets of necrosis in spinal cord that moves up and down
Spot it as normal thoracolumbar presentation progresses over time such that cutaneous trunci cut off moves cranial, get LMN signs in hind limbs, front limbs eventually involved

Should euthanise

64
Q

What is the schiff sherrington reflex

A

ANimal with T3-L3 lesion presents with rigidly extended forelimbs when lying down
Due to damage to border cells (interneurons connecting fore and hindlimb movement) causing disinhibition of extensor muscles

65
Q

What neuro conditions are not painful

A

Vascular conditions, degenerative myelopathy, some neoplasia e.g intramedullary, arachnoid diverticulum (anomalous)

66
Q

What neuro conditions might wax and wane

A

Inflammatory, metabolic

67
Q

What neuro conditions would improve over time

A

Vascular, acute non-compressive nucleus pulposis extrusion

68
Q

What neuro conditions would be static in terms of progression

A

Trauma

69
Q

What neuro conditions would deteriorate over time

A

Inflammatory, infectious, neoplasia, intervertebral disc disease

70
Q

What neuro conditions would not improve with standard medications

A

Vascular conditions

71
Q

Which dog breeds are prone to intervertebral disc disease

A

daschund, french bulldog

72
Q

Which dog breeds are prone to degenerative myelopathy

A

GSDs, Boxer, pembroke welsh corgi

73
Q

What breeds are prone to atlantoaxial instability

A

Chihuahua, yorkie

74
Q

What breed is prone to spinocerebellar hereditary ataxia

A

Jack Russell

75
Q

What breeds are prone to wobbler syndrome

A

Great dane, mastiff

76
Q

What breed is prone to disc assocaited wobbler syndrome

A

Wobermann

77
Q

What breed is prone to syringomyelia

A

CKCS

78
Q

What is neurogenic pulmonary oedema

A

Where after trauma, e.g RTA, sympathetic overstimulation causes flooding of the lungs with fluid causing severe short term dyspnoea

Take care not to confuse for severe contusion/other pathology

79
Q

What is obtundation

A

Depresses responses to normal stimuli

80
Q

What is stupor

A

asleep but rousable via noxious stimuli

81
Q

What is coma

A

Unresponsive even to noxious stimuli

82
Q

What is decerebrate posture and what does it suggest

A

Where an animal is lying with all 4 limbs in hyperextension
Suggests damage to cerebrum
- Generally more extensive damage; expect comatose animal often

83
Q

What is decerebellate posture

A

Where an animal is lying with ridigly extended front legs but back legs are flexed at least at hips

Implies damage to cerebellum; less likelt to affect mentation

84
Q

What three categories are measured on the glascow coma scale

A

Motor activity
Brainstem reflexes
Mentation

85
Q

Signs of increasing intracranial pressure

A

Reduction in mentation level towards coma
Anisocoria –> miosis –> fixed mydriasis due to midbrain compression affecting brainstem reflexes
Loss of motor function
Cushing response can be a late stage change

86
Q

Treatment to maintain cerebral blood flow in cases of head trauma

A

Keep head elevated
Do not occlude jugulars
Fluid therapy

87
Q

Fluid therapy approach in mild trauma cases vs severe with suspected raised ICP

A

If mild: crystalloids
Severe cases: hypertonic salie or mannitol

88
Q

Why do we need to make sure animals are on fluids when giving hypertonic saline or mannitol to reduce the ICP

A

Because they are diuretics so otherwise risk of crashing blood pressure and reducing blood flow to cerebrum

89
Q

How does hypertonic saline act to reduce ICP

A

Draws fluid into circulation from tissues which increased arterial pressure
–> So get more cerebral blood flow which causes autoregulatory cerebral vasoconstriction
–> Therefore reduces cerebral oedema and ICP

90
Q

How does mannitol act to reduce iCP

A

Same principle as hypertonic saline of increasing fluid volume in circulation and causing autoregulatory cerebral vasoconstriction in response to improved CBF

Also draws fluid directly out of damaged brain tissue

Rheological effect of reducing plasma viscosity to allow better blood flow to the brain

91
Q

When might we use hyperventilation in managing a trauma case and why

A

Last ditch attempt to reduce intracranial pressure via hypocapnic vasoconstriction

Do short term while waiting for effects of mannitol/hypertonic saline

92
Q

Why might we not be too worried about getting cold animals back to temperature after trauma

A

Because hypothermia may be neuroprotective via reducing inflammation; unclear though

93
Q

Are corticosteroids useful in CNS trauma cases

A

No
+ these animals are more vulnerable to steroid side effects

94
Q

What is little white shaker disease

A

Idiopathic tremor
= inflammatory condition of the brain

95
Q

How could we distinguish acute generalised tremor due to intoxication vs idiopathic

A

In intoxication gets rapidly more severe and doesn’t wax/wane

In idiopathic tremor, progresses more slowly from mild to severe + waxes/wanes i.e usually more mild when sleeping, worse when excitable

96
Q

What toxin can cause severe hypothermia

A

Alphachloralose

97
Q

What drugs can we use to induce emesis in dogs and when might we avoid this

A

Apomorphine, medetomidine, xylazine

Avoid if any suspicion of ingesting corrosive material
Avoid in severe tremor, seizure and coma due to aspiration pneumonia risk

Best if within 2 hours or so of ingestion

98
Q

What things can we do to reduce absorption of toxins

A

Induction of emesis if soon after eating
Activated charcoal to reduce absorption
IV lipid solution to mop up toxins

99
Q

Signs of metaldehyde poisoning (slug bait)

A

Seizures, tremors, tachycardia, hyperthermia
Need fluid therapy to control acidosis
= guarded prognosis

100
Q

Signs of alphachloralose poisoning (rodenticide)

A

Seizures, coma, severe hypothermia
Need diazepam to control seizures, active warming

101
Q

Signs of organophosphate or carbamate insecticide poisoning

A

Hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhoea, neuro signs
Treat with atropine to treat muscarinic effects and cholinesterase reactivators e.g pralidoxime
= guarded prognosis

102
Q

How might we end up with a permethrin poisoning

A

Overdose of spot on flea treatments esp in cats

103
Q

Signs of permetrin poisoning

A

Tremors, seizures, hypersalivation
Treat via methocarbamol

104
Q

Signs of marijuana poisoning

A

Ataxia, depression, urinary incontinence, vocalisation
Just symptomatic treatment; may need diazepam if agitated

105
Q

Signs of caffeine or chocolate poisoning

A

Restlessness, tremor, seizures, GI effects

106
Q

Signs of mycotoxin poisoning

A

Acute onset severe whole body tremors; can progress to seizures

107
Q

What is the exception to rough rule that animals presenting with acute spinal cord injuries are ‘as bad as they will get’

A

Progressive myelomalacia

108
Q

Approach to deciding whether vertebral fractures need stabilisation

A

If just one compartment affected then can manage with conservative treatment
If 2 or 3 compartments affected then need to stabilise as this will be unstable

109
Q

What determines prognosis in a lumbosacral region injury

A

Much better if perineal, lateral digit AND tail sensation preserved

If lost then guarded prognosis and significant risk of permanent incontinence

110
Q

What determines prognosis of thoracolumbar spinal cord injury

A

Deep pain presence
- If still present then excellent prognosis

If lost and cause = disc extrusion then ~55%

If deep pain lost and cause is traumatic fracture/luxation then very poor prognosis

111
Q
A

Michaelmas 5th year (41 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions