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EK24 > DASH ONE - SECTION 1 > Flashcards

DASH ONE - SECTION 1 Flashcards

1
Q

DEFINITION OF WARNING

A

“Operation procedures, techniques, etc., which will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.”

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2
Q

DEFINITION OF CAUTION

A

“Operation procedures, techniques, etc., which will result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.”

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3
Q

AIRCRAFT GROSS WEIGHTS
(4 Categories)

A

Normal - 1200 kg
Utility 1 - 1125 kg
Utility 2 - 1000 kg
Aerobatic - 900 kg

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4
Q
  1. Total fuel (Gallons and liters)
  2. Fuel in each tank (Gallons and liters)
A
  1. 47 Gallons (178 liters)
  2. 23,5 Gallons (89 liters)
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5
Q

The shoulder safety harness is stressed for ___ g

A

20

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6
Q

AIRCONDITIONING SYSTEM AND VENTILATION SYSTEM
What is it, and where is located?

A

“A heating and ventilating system …”

“Three controls located on the center pedestal are used for temperature regulation and defrosting.”

Warm air - left hand control (T)
Ambient air - middle control (V)
Canopy defrosting - right hand control (D)

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7
Q

LIGHTING EQUIPMENT
Which lighting equipment can be found?

A
  1. LANDING LIGHT - Front of the lower engine cowling
  2. TAXI LIGHT - Nose wheel landing gear
  3. NAVIGATION LIGHTS - Red light LH wing tip, Green light RH wing tip and white light tail cone
  4. STROBE LIGHTS - Both wing tips
  5. ANTI-COLLISION LIGHT - Two anti-collision lights. One light in the tip fairing of the rudder and the other one in the ventral fin underneath the tail section
  6. DOME LIGHT AND MAP READING LIGHTS - White dome light and Two red/white map-reading lights
  7. INSTRUMENT LIGHTS - Three rheostats (FLIGHT, MISC and COM/NAV)
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8
Q

LIGHTING EQUIPMENT
What and how do you turn it on?

A
  1. LANDING LIGHT - Landing switch
  2. TAXI LIGHT - Taxi switch
  3. NAVIGATION LIGHTS - Position switch
  4. STROBE LIGHTS - Strobe switch
  5. ANTI-COLLISION LIGHT - Beacon switch
  6. DOME LIGHT AND MAP READING LIGHTS - Rheostat knob and Rheostat knobs located on lights
  7. INSTRUMENT LIGHTS - Three rheostats knobs (FLIGHT, MISC and COM/NAV)
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9
Q

ENGINE (at standard sea level)
1. Horsepower
2. Max RPM
3. Fuel type

A
  1. 200 hp
  2. 2700 RPM
  3. Avgas 100LL (NATO CODE F18)
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10
Q

What is another name for:
1. Low RPM
2. High RPM

A
  1. Coarse pitch
  2. Fine pitch
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11
Q

What happens to the propeller in case of total oil pressure loss?

A

“In case of total oil pressure loss the propeller blades move into coarse pitch (low RPM), thus preventing engine over speed.”

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12
Q

What kind of fuel pumps are the engine equipped with?

A
  1. “An engine driven diaphragm fuel pump.”
  2. “An electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump”
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13
Q

ENGINE CONTROLS
Which engine controls are available?

A
  1. Throttle lever
  2. Propeller lever
  3. Mixture lever
  4. Friction lock
  5. Alternate air control
  6. Throttle lever LH
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14
Q

What increases when opening the throttle due to the constant speed propeller?

A

“Due to the constant speed propeller, opening of the throttle will increase the manifold pressure, not necessarily the RPM.”

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15
Q

DEFINITION OF NOTE

A

“An operating procedure, technique, etc., which it is considered essential to emphasize.”

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16
Q

“The propeller control has a detent in the high RPM portion of the operating range which allows for adjustment from ___ RPM to ___ RPM.”

A

2500 RPM to 2700 RPM

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17
Q

What does the mixture control lever do?

A

“Adjusts the air/fuel-ratio.”

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18
Q

“To move the control lever to the IDLE CUT- OFF position” what must be passed?

A

The detent in the rich portion of the operating range

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19
Q

In case of blocking of the induction air intake (ice formation, etc.) the air supply to the engine is automatically drawn from what and does this have any effect on engine performance?

A

“Air supply to the engine is automatically drawn from the engine compartment.”

“This alternate air supply, which is unfiltered, has only minor negative effect on the engine performance.”

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20
Q

In case of blocking of the induction air intake (ice formation, etc.), what can you select manually?

A

The alternate air by pulling the ALT AIR control

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21
Q

What does the starting system consist of?

A

A 24V electric motor

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21
Q

What is oil pressure measured in?

A

PSI (Pounds per Square Inch)

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21
Q

What is manifold pressure measured in?

A

Inches of mercury

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22
Q

What does the EGT indicator measure?

A

Exhaust gas temperature

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23
Q

What will show a false value during VHF-AM transmissions?

A

“During VHF-AM transmissions the EGT-indicator will show a false value caused by radiation from the VHF-AM transmitter.”

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24
Q

What type of oil system is used?

A

“Full pressure wet sump lubrication system, operated by a pump”

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25
Q

What is a normal amount of unusable fuel?

A

“2.5 US gallons (10 liters) per tank.”

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26
Q

From the OFF position, how do you select a fuel tank? and how do you turn it OFF again?

A

“From the OFF position the fuel tanks can be selected only by turning the fuel selector clockwise.”

“The OFF position can be selected only by turning the fuel selector counterclockwise with the center lock depressed.”

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27
Q

What is used to measure fuel left in the fuel tanks?

A

“A float type fuel quantity transmitter”

28
Q

What is required for accurate indication of fuel quantity?

A

Straight and level flight

29
Q

“…with partly filled tanks each fuel indicator may i.a.w. the technical specifications show as much as
___ US Gall more than the actual quantity, - and with completely empty tanks indicators may show as much as ___ Gall in each tank.

A

3,5 US gallons - Partly filled tanks
2 US gallons - completely empty tanks

30
Q

The electrical system is powered by what?

A

“An engine driven 28 V generator”

31
Q

What is the maximum generator output and at what voltage?

A

70 Amp at 28,7 V

32
Q

What is the main battery?

A

A 24V, 11 AH valve regulated lead-acid battery

33
Q

What is the EPU voltage?

A

24 volt DC

34
Q

What does the EPU supply power to?

A

ST-BY indicator
The VHF-2 COM radio
The two map lights

35
Q

What is the power input?

A

28V DC

36
Q

Leaving the EPU in ON after aircraft shutdown could result in what?

A

Battery discharge or damage

37
Q

What happens if the canopy is opened with the EPU switch left in ON position?

A

A warning horn will sound

38
Q

What is the battery connected to only?

A

The primary bus

39
Q

If battery switch intentionally or unintentionally is turned OFF while generator is ON, what should you not do and why?

A

Do not turn battery back ON

“may cause damage to the voltage regulator and thence cause loss of generator power.”

40
Q

What buses is the generator connected to?

A

Primary and the secondary bus.

41
Q

When the external power is supplied to the aircraft, what is energized and what is not?

A

Primary and the secondary bus is energized.

The emergency bus will not be energized

42
Q

The EPU switch shall be in ___ position whenever external power is connected to the aircraft,

A

OFF

43
Q

What happens, if external power is connected and battery is ON?

A

The external power is shut off

44
Q

The warning and caution light system consists of what? (Red and Amber)

A

CANOPY warning light (red)
FIRE ENG warning light (red)
OIL PRESS warning light (red)

GEN caution light (amber)
FUEL PUMP ON light (Amber).

45
Q

What happens when the canopy is unlocked and the BAT switch is ON?

A

The red light CANOPY will illuminate

46
Q

What happens when any of the IGN switches is ON and the canopy is unlocked?

A

An audio signal sounds

47
Q

When is the generator caution light illuminated?

A

In case the voltage of the bus drops below 25 ± 0.5 V

48
Q

When is the engine fire warning light illuminated?

A

In case the temperature in the engine compartment rises to 275° C

49
Q

When is the oil pressure warning light illuminated?

A

When the oil pressure is below 6.5 ± 2.0 PSI

50
Q

When is the FUEL PUMP ON caution light illuminated?

A

Fuel pump is ON and delivering a minimum fuel pressure of 20±1 PSI

51
Q

What should you ensure, when the rudder pedals have been moved?

A

That the rudder locking pins are fully engaged

52
Q

Both elevators are equipped with combined anti-servo and trim tabs. Can these be used at the same time?

A

No, since using both trim systems at the same time may cause damage to the system.

53
Q

What is the four four pre-selected positions for flaps?

A

0°, 10°, 20° and 38°

54
Q

When does the stall warning horn sound?

A

5-10 knots above stalling speed regardless of aircraft configuration

55
Q

On the ground, what does the rudder pedals control?

A

The rudder and the nose wheel

56
Q

When is the nose wheel automatically disengaged and locked in the center position?

A

After rotating the aircraft

57
Q

Pressure instruments?

A

Altimeter
Airspeed indicator
Vertical Speed indicator

58
Q

Electrical instruments?

A

Main Attitude indicator
Stand-by Attitude indicator
Radio magnetic indicator
Turn/slip indicator (turn part only)

59
Q

When the aircraft has been exposed to moisture and/or icing conditions (especially on the ground), the possibility of obstructed static ports should be considered. Partial obstructions will result in the rate of climb indication being sluggish during a climb or descent. How is this verified?

A

“Switching to the ALT STATIC AIR system and and noting a sudden sustained change in rate of climb. This may be accompanied by an increase in indicated airspeed of 5-10 kts and altitude changes beyond normal calibration differences”

60
Q

What will appear in the upper left portion of the ALTITUDE-ENCODER to indicate that the altitude encoder is inoperative?

A

A warning flag (texted) CODE OFF

61
Q

If the altimeter’s internal vibrator is inoperative what may be exaggerated? and when should you be especially be watchful for this?

A

“The pause-and-accelerate effect may be exaggerated. “

“when the minimum approach altitude lies within the “8” to “2”, sector of the scale, e.g., 800-1200 feet, 1800-2200 feet, etc.”

62
Q

Display of the CODE OFF flag only indicates what?

A

An encoder power failure or a CODE OFF flag failure

63
Q

In case of an encoder power failure or a CODE OFF flag failure what should you do?

A

Check that DC power is available, and that the circuit breakers are in. If the flag is still visible, radio contact should be made with a ground radar site

64
Q

The main attitude indicator is a direct reading instrument indicating what and in what operational range?

A

Pitch and bank attitude

Its operational range is ± 360° both in pitch and bank

65
Q

“The system will erect the vertical gyro in pitch and roll to the vertical at a saturated erection rate of
_____________.

A

2.5° per minute minimum

66
Q

All dynamic errors will be __________ by the main attitude indicator, or may be manually corrected by the pilot by pulling the ____________.

A
  1. self corrected
  2. “PULL TO GAGE” knob
67
Q

In the event of abutment against the stops in pitch during a loop, a deflection can occur in the main attitude indicator.

How is this cancelled? What happens if failing to do so?

A

“This can be cancelled instantly by a resetting operation, as soon as the aircraft is in level flight once more.”

“Failing this, the error will be absorbed in a few minutes by the action of the erection system.”

68
Q

The accelerometer is graduated from ___ to ___ g

A
  1. -5
  2. +10
69
Q

What type of fire extinguisher is equipped?

A

HALON fire extinguisher

EK24 (29 decks)

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