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Instrument > Su 5 Airports, ATC, and Airspace > Flashcards

Su 5 Airports, ATC, and Airspace Flashcards

1
Q

(Refer to figure 138 below.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

A

Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights

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2
Q

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

A

Arrows leading to the threshold mark

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3
Q

(Refer to figure 137 below.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

A

1,000 feet

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4
Q

(Refer to figure 137 below.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

A

500 feet

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5
Q

(Refer to Figure 137 above.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

A

500 feet

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6
Q

The “ILS critical boundary” sign identifies the

A

Edge of the ILS critical area

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7
Q

The “runway hold position” sign denotes

A

an entrance to a runway from a taxiway

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8
Q

“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway

A

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

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9
Q

(Refer to figure 254 on page 159.) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

A

Top red

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10
Q

(Refer to Figure 254 below.) While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

A

Bottom yellow

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11
Q

(Refer to Figure 254 below.) Which sign indicates you’re holding short of the ILS critical area

A

Bottom yellow

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12
Q

Designation signs indicate

A

The direction to takeoff runways

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

A

Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway

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14
Q

(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

A

white lettering with a red background

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15
Q

(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?

A

Mandatory instruction sign

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16
Q

(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) What colors are runway holding position signs

A

white with a red background

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17
Q

(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

A

yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway

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18
Q

The “No Entry” sign identifies

A

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

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19
Q

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

A

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

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20
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates

A

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

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21
Q

Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to runway holding position markings?

A

150

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22
Q

The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to

A

highlight an approaching runway holding position marking

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23
Q

A runway exit sign

A

points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway

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24
Q

Within aircraft movements area, “destination signs” identify the

A

direction to the takeoff runway

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25
Q

(Refer to figure 135 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

A

7

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26
Q

(Refer to Figure 135 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

A

4

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27
Q

(Refer to Figure 135 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

A

5

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28
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

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29
Q

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

A

White and the far bar as red

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30
Q

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

A

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white

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31
Q

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should

A

level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

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32
Q

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

A

constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glide path

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33
Q

(Refer to Figure 136 on page 165.) Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8) indication?

A

11

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34
Q

(Refer to Figure 136 below.) As you emerge from the clouds during an instrument approach and make visual contact with the runway environment, you see PAPI lights corresponding to those depicted in illustration 12. You are

A

below the glidepath

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35
Q

(Refer to Figure 136 below.) An “on glidepath” indication is

A

10

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36
Q

(Refer to Figure 136 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?

A

12

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37
Q

(Refer to Figure 136 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?

A

12

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38
Q

(Refer to Figure 162 on page 166.) You have accepted a visual approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates

A

You have lined up with the wrong runway

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39
Q

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

A

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

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40
Q

Which type of runway lighting consist of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

A

REIL

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41
Q

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

A

of the high angle of attack and high gross weight

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42
Q

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 5 knots have on vortex behavior

A

The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway

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43
Q

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

A

Light quartering tailwind

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44
Q

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

A

Beyond the jet’s touchdown point

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45
Q

(Refer to figure 158 on page 169.) With winds reported as from 330 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices?

A

The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway

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46
Q

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

A

Climb on the centerline of the airway expect when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions

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47
Q

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

A

Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you

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48
Q

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

A

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR

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49
Q

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions

A

Seeing and avoiding other aircraft

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50
Q

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

A

the FSS

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51
Q

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMS?

A

To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication

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52
Q

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?

A

FAA FSS

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53
Q

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

A

Chart supplement and NOTAMs (D)

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54
Q

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

A

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

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55
Q

the operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

A

the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airpsace

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56
Q

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

A

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

57
Q

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimate time en route on an IFR flight plan?

A

The point of first intended landing

58
Q

What is a waypoint when is used for an IFR flight?

A

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach

59
Q

You may cancel an IFR flight plan

A

if in VMC outside Class A airspace

60
Q

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?

A

Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility

61
Q

How should an IFR flight plan be closed at the competition of the flight at a controlled airport?

A

the tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft lands

62
Q

(refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, what information should be entered in item 15, “Level”, of the flight plan?

A

Initial cruising altitude

63
Q

(refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) What information should be entered in item 15, “Level”, for an IFR flight?

A

Initial cruising altitude

64
Q

(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 16, “destination Aerodrome” for an IFR flight

A

The destination airport identifier code

65
Q

(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 19, “Endurance” for an IFR flight?

A

The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time

66
Q

(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 19, “Endurance” for an IFR flight?

A

The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes

67
Q

(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 16, “destination Aerodrome” for an IFR flight with an intended stopover of 30 minutes

A

The ICAO four-letter indicator of the destination airport

68
Q

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

A

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification

69
Q

When clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment)

A

Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriated

70
Q

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

A

Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude

71
Q

An abbreviated departure clearance “..Cleared AS FILED…” will always contain the name

A

of destination airport filed in the flight plan

72
Q

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

A

The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time

73
Q

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED-MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND-SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

A

destination airport and route

74
Q

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…. Cruise SIX THOUSAND…?

A

It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000

75
Q

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…?

A

Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion

76
Q

What is the rule for a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?

A

The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions

77
Q

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

A

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC

78
Q

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

A

when departing from a runway intersection

79
Q

During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceiling, you should contact departure

A

when the tower instructs the change

80
Q

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

A

At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC

81
Q

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude

A

Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,00 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute

82
Q

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

A

As rapidly practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

83
Q

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

A

When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach

84
Q

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

A

500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute

85
Q

What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?

A

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

86
Q

For IFR planning purposes what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

A

Fixes selected to define the route

87
Q

While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

A

Advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds

88
Q

You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

A

continue as assigned and query ATC

89
Q

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic” 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20 degree correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

A

40 degree to the right of aircraft’s nose

90
Q

What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft withing 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)

A

Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

91
Q

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that

A

You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

92
Q

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?

A

resume normal position reporting

93
Q

What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

A

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment

94
Q

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of class C airspace?

A

Separation from all IFR aicraft and participating VFR aircraft

95
Q

While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when

A

average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent

96
Q

When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

A

Before entering Class D airspace

97
Q

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?

A

Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

98
Q

Which of the following reports should always be reported to ATC?

A

When leaving an assigned holding fix

99
Q

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time

100
Q

You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

A

Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher

101
Q

You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach

102
Q

What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lose communications?

A

7600

103
Q

In the event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately?

A

7500

104
Q

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

A

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA

105
Q

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communication failure?

A

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

106
Q

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

A

VFR and land as soon as practicable

107
Q

The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of

A

an emergency

108
Q

What is the hijacking code

A

7500

109
Q

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

A

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

110
Q

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfuctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide slop capability and the NO.2 receiver has only VOR/Lacalizer capability

A

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC

111
Q

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

A

After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

112
Q

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En route Low altitude chart?

A

Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace

113
Q

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from

A

18,000 feet to and including FL 600

114
Q

Which airspace is defined as transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

A

The class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace

115
Q

Class G airspace is that airspace where

A

ATC does not control air traffic

116
Q

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

A

700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

117
Q

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

A

An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability and ADS-B Out equipment

118
Q

Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircrafting within Class B airspace?

A

A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment

119
Q

MOAs are established to

A

Separate certain military activities from IFR traffic

120
Q

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way communications, and Mode C transponder, and ADS-B Out equipment

121
Q

Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?

A

Continue the flight as planned

122
Q

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

A

When operating in a Class A airspace

123
Q

When is an IFR flight plan required?

A

In class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

124
Q

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

A

Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace

125
Q

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A

3sm, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal

126
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace)

A

5sm, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal

127
Q

A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

A

5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet

128
Q

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in Class G airspace?

A

1 mile; above clear of clouds; horizontally clear of clouds; below clear of clouds

129
Q

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

A

5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet

130
Q

What is the minimum in-flight visiblity and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours?

A

3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet

131
Q

What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in class G airspace in VFR condition during daylight hours?

A

1 mile; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet

132
Q

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?

A

1 mile; above clear of cloud; horizontal clear of clouds; below clear of clouds

133
Q

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A

Flight into Class A airspace

134
Q

(Refer to Figure 162 on page 191.) You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you

A

are off course

135
Q

(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) What is the slope of RWY 9?

A

0.4% down

136
Q

(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about

A

050 degrees

137
Q

(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about

A

185 degrees

138
Q

(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) what is the actual heading of runway 36 at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport?

A

003.6 degrees

139
Q

(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) When lined up for takeoff RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about

A

275 degrees

Instrument (10 decks)

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