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Instrument > Su 3 Navigation System > Flashcards

Su 3 Navigation System Flashcards

1
Q

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate

A

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility

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2
Q

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

A

slant range distance in NM

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3
Q

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

A

1

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4
Q

The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at

A

high altitudes close to the VORTAC

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5
Q

To find the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for an accuracy check, which publication should you consult?

A

Chart supplement

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6
Q

When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

A

Plus or minus 6 degrees of designated radial

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7
Q

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

A

360 radial

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8
Q

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

A

4 degrees between the two indicated radials of VOR

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9
Q

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOT check, the omni-bearing selector and TO/FROM indicator should read

A

within 6 degrees of the selected radial

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10
Q

(Refer to figure 81 below.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?

A

1

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11
Q

(Refer to Figure 82 below.) Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VOR’s using one system against the other?

A

4

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12
Q

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variable between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?

A

4 degrees between the two indicated bearings to a VOR

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13
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 degrees of that radial with a FROM indication

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14
Q

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

A

Only in the Chart Supplement

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15
Q

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

A

176 degrees TO and 003 degrees FROM, respectively

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16
Q

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?

A

No coded identification, but possible navigation indications

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17
Q

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidence by

A

removal of the identification feature

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18
Q

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat t an interval of

A

30 second intervals at 1350hz

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19
Q

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

A

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative

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20
Q

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

A

200 NM

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21
Q

You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be

A

80 NM

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22
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?

A

10 degrees

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23
Q

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

A

deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale

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24
Q

When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?

A

The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator

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25
Q

Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?

A

The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator

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26
Q

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between

A

10 degrees and 12 degrees

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27
Q

A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?

A

3 NM

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28
Q

An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?

A

2 1/2 miles

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29
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of CDI?

A

5 degrees

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30
Q

Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5 degrees wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots

A

18 minutes and 28.5 NM

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31
Q

(Refer to Figure 106 below.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing right of center?

A

1

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32
Q

(Refer to Figure 106 below.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center?

A

2

33
Q

After passing VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

A

The airplane is flying away from the radial

34
Q

(Refer to figure 109 below.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

A

Northeast

35
Q

(Refer to figure 110 below.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

A

Northeast

36
Q

(Refer to figure 111 below.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

A

Northwest

37
Q

(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the NO. 1 NAV?

A

5.0 NM

38
Q

(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. 1 NAV?

A

R-345

39
Q

(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) Which OBS selection on the NO.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

A

165 degrees

40
Q

(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO. 2 NAV?

A

4 degrees

41
Q

(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) Which OBS selection on the NO. 2 would center the CDI?

A

174 degrees

42
Q

(refer to Figure 95 below.) which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

A

354 degrees

43
Q

(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?

A

1

44
Q

(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “B: correspond?

A

19

45
Q

(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?

A

12

46
Q

(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?

A

17

47
Q

(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “E” correspond?

A

6

48
Q

(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?

A

16

49
Q

(refer to Figure 96 below, and figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond?

A

9 and 6

50
Q

(refer to Figure 96 below, and Figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B: correspond?

A

5 and 13

51
Q

(refer to figure 96 below, and Figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?

A

12

52
Q

(refer to Figure 96 below, and Figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?

A

2

53
Q

(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond?

A

7 and 11

54
Q

(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?

A

4

55
Q

(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond?

A

8 and 3

56
Q

(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “H” correspond?

A

1

57
Q

(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “I” correspond?

A

11

58
Q

How can a pilot determine if a global positioning system (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en route and IFR approaches?

A

Flight manual supplement

59
Q

Hand-held GPS system, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as

A

an aid to situational awareness

60
Q

When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?

A

VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans

61
Q

During IFR en route and Terminal operations using an approval TSCO-C129 or TSO-C 196 GPS system for navigation, ground-based navigational

A

must be operational along the entire route

62
Q

During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C 196 GPS system for navigation,

A

the aircraft must have an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C 196 and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route

63
Q

What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?

A

Provides optimal routing and altitudes

64
Q

A handheld GPS is

A

not authorized for IFR use

65
Q

Effective navigation by means of GPS includes

A

determining the current status of all databases

66
Q

Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?

A

Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors

67
Q

Reliance on GPS units

A

Can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading

68
Q

Before a pilot utilizes a GPS route or procedure, what would be an acceptable method of verifying the GPS database is current?

A

Check to see if all waypoint on the GPS route match points on procedure charts

69
Q

When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO0C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A

the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination an alternate

70
Q

When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know what VFR waypoints

A

are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing

71
Q

Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?

A

Compare the GPS database to the En route Low altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current

72
Q

While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?

A

The approach mode annunciation will disengage

73
Q

GPS system certified for IFR operations cannot be used as a substitute for DME receivers

A

in selecting an alternate that requires use DME

74
Q

When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

A

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other then GPS

75
Q

Your aircraft is equipped with a WAAS enabled GPS unit. While performing a GPS approach, you note an “LNAV+V available” indication on the moving map display. You know that

A

the indication reflects an artificially created advisory glidepath that you can use to descend to the LNAV MDA

76
Q

Aircraft operating under IFR with TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have installed

A

the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route

77
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of flying with an autopilot?

A

Pilot workload is reduced

78
Q

In an autopilot-controlled system, what device actually moves the control surfaces

A

Servo

79
Q

To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system

A

pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile

Instrument (10 decks)

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