Su 3 Navigation System Flashcards

1
Q

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate

A

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility

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2
Q

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

A

slant range distance in NM

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3
Q

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

A

1

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4
Q

The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at

A

high altitudes close to the VORTAC

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5
Q

To find the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for an accuracy check, which publication should you consult?

A

Chart supplement

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6
Q

When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

A

Plus or minus 6 degrees of designated radial

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7
Q

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

A

360 radial

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8
Q

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

A

4 degrees between the two indicated radials of VOR

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9
Q

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOT check, the omni-bearing selector and TO/FROM indicator should read

A

within 6 degrees of the selected radial

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10
Q

(Refer to figure 81 below.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?

A

1

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11
Q

(Refer to Figure 82 below.) Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VOR’s using one system against the other?

A

4

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12
Q

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variable between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?

A

4 degrees between the two indicated bearings to a VOR

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13
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 degrees of that radial with a FROM indication

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14
Q

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

A

Only in the Chart Supplement

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15
Q

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

A

176 degrees TO and 003 degrees FROM, respectively

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16
Q

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?

A

No coded identification, but possible navigation indications

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17
Q

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidence by

A

removal of the identification feature

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18
Q

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat t an interval of

A

30 second intervals at 1350hz

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19
Q

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

A

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative

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20
Q

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

A

200 NM

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21
Q

You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be

A

80 NM

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22
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?

A

10 degrees

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23
Q

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

A

deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale

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24
Q

When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?

A

The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator

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25
Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?
The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator
26
When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between
10 degrees and 12 degrees
27
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
3 NM
28
An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?
2 1/2 miles
29
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of CDI?
5 degrees
30
Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5 degrees wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots
18 minutes and 28.5 NM
31
(Refer to Figure 106 below.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing right of center?
1
32
(Refer to Figure 106 below.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center?
2
33
After passing VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
The airplane is flying away from the radial
34
(Refer to figure 109 below.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
Northeast
35
(Refer to figure 110 below.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
Northeast
36
(Refer to figure 111 below.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
Northwest
37
(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the NO. 1 NAV?
5.0 NM
38
(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. 1 NAV?
R-345
39
(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) Which OBS selection on the NO.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
165 degrees
40
(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO. 2 NAV?
4 degrees
41
(Refer to Figure 95 on page 97.) Which OBS selection on the NO. 2 would center the CDI?
174 degrees
42
(refer to Figure 95 below.) which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
354 degrees
43
(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
1
44
(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B: correspond?
19
45
(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?
12
46
(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?
17
47
(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?
6
48
(refer to Figure 98 on page 99 and Figure 99 on page 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?
16
49
(refer to Figure 96 below, and figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
9 and 6
50
(refer to Figure 96 below, and Figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B: correspond?
5 and 13
51
(refer to figure 96 below, and Figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?
12
52
(refer to Figure 96 below, and Figure 97 on page 101.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?
2
53
(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond?
7 and 11
54
(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?
4
55
(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?
8 and 3
56
(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?
1
57
(Refer to figure 96 on page 103 and Figure 97 on page 103.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?
11
58
How can a pilot determine if a global positioning system (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en route and IFR approaches?
Flight manual supplement
59
Hand-held GPS system, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as
an aid to situational awareness
60
When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?
VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans
61
During IFR en route and Terminal operations using an approval TSCO-C129 or TSO-C 196 GPS system for navigation, ground-based navigational
must be operational along the entire route
62
During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C 196 GPS system for navigation,
the aircraft must have an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C 196 and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
63
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
Provides optimal routing and altitudes
64
A handheld GPS is
not authorized for IFR use
65
Effective navigation by means of GPS includes
determining the current status of all databases
66
Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?
Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors
67
Reliance on GPS units
Can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading
68
Before a pilot utilizes a GPS route or procedure, what would be an acceptable method of verifying the GPS database is current?
Check to see if all waypoint on the GPS route match points on procedure charts
69
When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO0C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination an alternate
70
When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know what VFR waypoints
are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing
71
Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?
Compare the GPS database to the En route Low altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current
72
While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?
The approach mode annunciation will disengage
73
GPS system certified for IFR operations cannot be used as a substitute for DME receivers
in selecting an alternate that requires use DME
74
When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other then GPS
75
Your aircraft is equipped with a WAAS enabled GPS unit. While performing a GPS approach, you note an "LNAV+V available" indication on the moving map display. You know that
the indication reflects an artificially created advisory glidepath that you can use to descend to the LNAV MDA
76
Aircraft operating under IFR with TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have installed
the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route
77
Which of the following is a benefit of flying with an autopilot?
Pilot workload is reduced
78
In an autopilot-controlled system, what device actually moves the control surfaces
Servo
79
To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system
pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile