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Spring 2022 classes > neuro exam 2 > Flashcards

neuro exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the passageway of information after an action potential in the peripheral axon

A

axon of afferent neuron > cell body in DRG > p. horn SC > ascending tract > thalamus > primary sensory cortex for interpretation

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2
Q

what does temporospatial summation mean

A

the stimulus was strong enough to generate an action potential in the peripheral axon

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3
Q

def superficial/cutaneous sensations

A

info from skin and subcutaneous tissue= touch, temperature, pain

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4
Q

discriminative touch

A

light, can sense superficial vibration and pressure, can determine the form, texture and shape of what is touching

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5
Q

crude/coarse touch

A

localized touch that includes tickle, itch, sexual sensation

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6
Q

temperature in somatosensory system includes

A

ability to sense relative temperature and changes to temperature

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7
Q

pain in somatosensory system perception

A

any noxious sensation ex) dull, local, burn, stab

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8
Q

fast pain vs slow pain

A

instant, sharp, localized vs dull, difused, not localized

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9
Q

3 examples of deep sensations of proprioception

A

joint position sense, kindesthesia, deep vibration (tuning fork)

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10
Q

cortical fine/light tough sensations includes

A

2 point discrimination, bilateral simultaneous stimulation, graphesthesia, localization of tough

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11
Q

why is cortical touch important

A

necessary to have fine touch to be able to interpret= cortical

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12
Q

2 point discrimination

A

the ability to discern whether 2 nearby objects touching the skin are truly 2 parts not one

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13
Q

how does 2 point discrimination differ from normal touch

A

finer sensation is required to be better at detecting the stimulus and interpreting the difference between 2 spots

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14
Q

bilateral simultaneous stimulation

A

ability to determine that two simultaneous stimulations are being applied to the opposite side of the body

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15
Q

if someone had poor/absent bilateral simultaneous stimulation where would the problem be in the brain

A

damage to cortex b/c that’s what interprets the sensations > won’t be able to feel the sensation bilaterally if this is the case

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16
Q

tactile extinction

A

inability to recognize two simultaneous stimuli on opposite sides of the body/proximally/distally even though the stimuli can be sensed alone

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17
Q

graphesthesia

A

ability to recognize writing on the skin by touch

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18
Q

localization of touch

A

knowing where the touch is felt and being able to identify it

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19
Q

if a patient has the sensation but can’t interpret it correctly where is the deficit

A

in the cortex on the opposite side of the brain

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20
Q

stereognosis

A

ability to recognize the form of objects by touch > needs light tough and conscious proprioception to achieve this

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21
Q

barognosis

A

ability to tell what an object’s relative weight is > uses touch and proprioception

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22
Q

receptive field

A

region of space where presence of stimulus will alter firing of the neuron

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23
Q

what’s an example of a small receptive field

A

fingers and toes > have greater density for finer tuned sensation

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24
Q

tonic receptors

A

respond as long as stimulus is sustained

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25
Q

phasic receptors

A

adapt to a constant stimulus and stop responding > brief adapation

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26
Q

phasic receptors include

A

mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, nocioceptors

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27
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

respond to mechanical deformation of receptor > touch, pressure, stretch, vibration

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28
Q

chemoreceptors

A

respond to chemical released by cells due to injury and pain, involved in pain and itch senses ex) allergic response or inflammation

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29
Q

thermoreceptors

A

sense relative body temperature and changes to temperature

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30
Q

nocioceptors

A

respond to stimuli that threaten or damage tissue (noxious)

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31
Q

what are nocioceptors experienced as

A

just pain, not the sensation

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32
Q

superficial dermis receptors examples

A

merkel’s discs, meissner’s corpuscles, hair follicle receptors

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33
Q

superficial dermis receptors function

A

respond to very local information, these receptors are very dense in the fingers

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34
Q

merkel’s discs respond to

A

pressure, fine touch, superficial vibration in the skin

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35
Q

meissner’s corpuscles respond to

A

skin deformation, light touch, vibration

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36
Q

hair follicle receptors respond to

A

hair displacement

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37
Q

deep dermis/subcutaneous fine touch receptors function

A

provide information about larger body surface areas > proprioception

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38
Q

deep dermis/subcutaneous fine touch receptors examples

A

ruffini endings, pacinian corpuscles

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39
Q

ruffini endings respond to

A

detect skin stretch and contribute to proprioception

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40
Q

pacinian corpuscles respond to

A

touch and deep vibration that contribute to proprioception

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41
Q

what physiologically gives coarse touch throughout the skin

A

free nerve endings

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42
Q

how is thermoreception felt

A

free nerve endings adapt to maintained temperatures

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43
Q

2 types of nocioceptors

A

specific and polymodal

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44
Q

specific nocioceptors respond to

A

one type of stimulus ex) high intensity mechanical, thermal, chemical

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45
Q

specific nocioceptors produce what kind of pain

A

localized pain, transmitted rapidly through myelinated fibers (fast pain)

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46
Q

polymodal nocioceptors respond to

A

not specific, will respond to any high intensity mechanical, chemical, thermal stimulus

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47
Q

polymodal nocioceptors transmit what kind of pain

A

poorly localized, unmyelinated C fibers, long-lasting pain

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48
Q

muscle spindle made up of

A

mechanoreceptors: intrafusal fibers that respond to stretch of a muscle

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49
Q

what are the 3 parts of a muscle spindle

A

intrafusal muscle fibers, sensory afferents Ia and IIa, gamma motor efferent fibers

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50
Q

what ____fusal fibers actually cause muscle contraction

A

extrafusal

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51
Q

what is the function of intrafusal fibers

A

only contract at the ends, defines 2 types: nuclear bag (clump arranged) and nuclear chain (single file arranged)

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52
Q

type 1a afferent neurons= annulospiral

A

wrap around central region of intrafusal fibers

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53
Q

what do type 1a afferent neurons do

A

respond to rapid stretch and send info to p. horn of SC

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54
Q

what do type 2a afferent neurons do

A

respond to rapid and sustained stretch, aka flower spray

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55
Q

gamma motor neurons

A

maintain sensitivity of spindle to allow for stretch, causes ends of INTRAFUSAL to contract even when muscle is on slack

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56
Q

alpha motor neuron

A

sends message to EXTRAFUSAL fibers to prevent overstretching, allows antagonist to relax

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57
Q

golgi tendon organs

A

at musculotendinous junction, provide info about muscle tension to inhibit response to excessive tension

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58
Q

when the muscle contracts what happens to the GTO

A

collagen fibrils pulled right which activates 1b afferent neurons

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59
Q

what is autogenic inhibition

A

GTO causes muscle to inhibit itself and interrupt contraction thus causing muscle to relax

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60
Q

what do joint receptors respond to

A

mechanical deformation of ligaments and capsules

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61
Q

examples of joint receptors

A

ligament receptors, ruffini endings, pacinian corpuscles, free nerve endings

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62
Q

what is proprioception helpful with

A

detecting size, shape, weight of an object, barognosis, sterognosis

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63
Q

where do somatosensory fibers derive from cells

A

dorsal root ganglion

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64
Q

what does alpha beta nerve fiber carry

A

info related to touch and conscious proprioception

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65
Q

what nerve fibers carry info for unconscious proprioception

A

1a (muscle spindle), 1b (GTO), II (flower spray)

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66
Q

what info do alpha delta nerve fibers carry

A

fast pain, cool temp, noxious heat

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67
Q

are alpha delta nerve fibers myelinated or nonmyelinated

A

myelinated

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68
Q

are c nerve fibers myelinated or nonmyelinated

A

nonmyelinated

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69
Q

what do c nerve fibers carry

A

slow pain, warm temp, itch

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70
Q

what damage to nerves cause glove and stocking distribution

A

peripheral neuropathy

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71
Q

examples of glove and stocking distribution

A

diabetic, chemotoxic, alcoholic: all lead to sensory deficit

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72
Q

where are cell bodies of spinal cord primary neurons located

A

outside SC in dorsal root ganglion

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73
Q

what matter is rexed lamina

A

grey matter

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74
Q

how is rex lamina divided

A

function and sensory info arrives at specific areas

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75
Q

rexed lamina 2 also known as

A

substantia gelatinosa: important for pain sensation

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76
Q

noxious stimuli sensed where

A

posterior dorsal horn

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77
Q

what nucleus is involved with unconscious proprioception

A

clarke’s nucleus: posterior sprinocerebellar tract

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78
Q

what are the ascending tracts of spinal cord

A

conscious pathways, fine/coarse touch and proprioception

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79
Q

what is the pathway of unconscious proprioception

A

spinocerebellar pathways to cerebellum

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80
Q

what sensations are part of medial leminscal pathway

A

conscious proprioception, vibration, discriminative touch

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81
Q

first order neuron of medial leminscus pathway

A

ipsilateral posterior columns to posterior column nuclei in the medulla

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82
Q

medial portion of medial lemniscus pathway

A

gracile fasiculus: info from LE and trunk to nucleus gracilis

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83
Q

lateral portion of medial lemniscal pathway

A

cuneatus fasiculus: info from upper trunk

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84
Q

what tract does immediate: fast and localized pain go through

A

lateral spinothalamic tract

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85
Q

what order neurons are in the lissauer tract of the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

first order

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86
Q

where do second order neurons cross the spinal cord

A

anterior white commissure and ascend in the lateral spinothalamic tract

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87
Q

what part of the brain is the first to process and send off info to the brain

A

thalamus

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88
Q

what system does slow pain pass through

A

medial pain system

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89
Q

where does the spinomesencephalic tract pass

A

midbrain to periaqueductal gray

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90
Q

where does spinoreticular tract pass

A

reticular formation

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91
Q

where does spinolimbic tract pass through

A

thalamic nuclei

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92
Q

what info does spinocerebellar system provide

A

unconscious proprioception and mvmt related to the cerebellum

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93
Q

does the posterior spinocerebellar and cuneocerebellar pathway have ipsilateral or contralateral transmission

A

ipsilateral

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94
Q

what nuclei innervate the posterior spinocerebellar pathway

A

clarks nucleus aka nucleus dorsalis

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95
Q

posterior spinocerebellar pathway info from where

A

legs and lower body

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96
Q

cuneocerebellar pathways gets infro from

A

arms and upper body

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97
Q

what do these injuries of the spinal cord cause: 1. transection, 2. hemicord lesion, 3. anterior cord lesion, 4. posterior cord lesion, 5. central cord lesion

A

1.sensory loss modalities bilaterally below level of injury
2.ipsilateral loss touch and proprioception
3. bilateral loss of pain and temperature
4. bilateral loss touch and proprioception
5. upper extremity issues

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98
Q

where does the first stage of sensory integration and perceptual awareness occur

A

thalamus

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99
Q

where do thalamocortical projections travel

A

to primary somesthetic area in parietal lobe to the primary somatosensory cortex then to the secondary somatosensory cortex

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100
Q

how is the primary somatosensory cortex (SI) organized

A

sensory homunculus

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101
Q

what is secondary somatosensory area SII involved with

A

shape and texture discrimination, bilateral activities, graphesthesia

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102
Q

what brocas areas are involved with somatosensory association area

A

areas 5 and 7

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103
Q

where do the SI and SII converge

A

posterior parietal cortex

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104
Q

what causes unilateral neglect

A

large lesions of non-dominant hemispheres that can feel but not recognize self or objects on left side

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105
Q

where is the highest number of sensory cells located in the humunculus

A

hands and mouth

106
Q

what may damage to the anterolateral systems cause

A

sharp burning or searing pain

107
Q

what can lesions to the thalamus lead to

A

severe contralateral pain

108
Q

what can lesions of the cortex lead to

A

contralateral anesthesia, paresthesia or impaired sensory function

109
Q

what would damage to the cortex cause

A

loss of 2 point discrimination, sterogenosis, graphesthesia

110
Q

accurate for touch but unable to localize feeling

A

contralateral cortical damage

111
Q

if someone is able to sense specific touch but unable to identify bilateral simulatenous touch what damage has occured

A

to the contralateral parietal lobe

112
Q

if someone is unable to sense pain there is probably damage to

A

lateral spinothalamic tract or primary sensory cortex

113
Q

why do we examine sensation

A

determine pattern, modality, level, severeity of impairment

114
Q

what is stocking and glove pattern caused by

A

peripheral neuropathy

115
Q

how should sensory testing proceed on the patient

A

from proximal to distal and general to specific

116
Q

what type of touch is used to test the DCML

A

light touch

117
Q

how should localization of touch be tested

A

either w/ pain or touch, we don’t have to test both for localization specifically

118
Q

what temperature should warm + cold be tested at

A

40 deg C and 10 deg C

119
Q

where should the tuning fork be placed for vibration on UE and LE

A

test head of 1st MC or ulnar styloid
test great toe or mallelous

120
Q

where should two point separation be placed

A

2-4 mm on finger pads, 8-15 mm on palms, 3-4 cm shins

121
Q

how is stereognosis tested

A

place one random common object in hand of patient and tell them not to look at it, do 3 times in one hand and 3 in the other hand to see if they can identify the object

122
Q

if patient is unable to recognize objects with their hand without looking where is the damage

A

likely parietal lobe

123
Q

where do reflexes happen

A

in the SC not periphery

124
Q

necessary components for effective motor control

A

volition, coordination of muscle groups, proprioception, posture, sensory feedback, unconscious processing, adaptability

125
Q

where is automatic movement and posture controlled at

A

brainstem

126
Q

prefrontal cortex function

A

select appropriate actions for behavior

127
Q

pre motor cortex function

A

select approprioate motor plans and processes complex sequences of tasks

128
Q

posterior parietal cortex

A

movements that are targeted accurately in external space

129
Q

primary motor cortex function

A

execute voluntary movement

130
Q

brainstem function

A

conduit for descending motor tracts

131
Q

motor control is facilitated by what

A

basal ganglia and cerebellum

132
Q

where are motor control cell bodies found

A

layers 3&5 cortex and brainstem, usually 1st order neurons

133
Q

where are lower motor neuron cell bodies

A

ventral spinal cord, include spinal and peripheral nerves

133
Q

are cranial nerves upper or lower motor neurons

A

lower

134
Q

which motor neurons directly control skeletal muscle

A

lower motor neurons

135
Q

alpha motor neurons synapse where

A

extrafusal fibers

136
Q

what do alpha motor neurons control

A

force production of skeletal muscle contraction

137
Q

what do gamma motor neurons control

A

ongoing proprioceptive input of muscle spindles

138
Q

gamma motor neurons synapse where

A

intrafusal fibers

139
Q

what is alpha gamma co-activation

A

motor neurons provided with sensory input from muscle spindles and GTOs regarding length and tension of muscle

140
Q

what ratio of motor neuron to muscle fiber do you need for more fine movements

A

lower ratio

141
Q

what is an example of central pattern generators

A

walking= rhythmic behaviors the spinal cord is responsible for

142
Q

motor neurons supplying limbs and axial muscles are found where in the somatotopic arrangement

A

medial

143
Q

motor neurons that supply peripheral limbs tend to be found where somatotopically

A

lateral

144
Q

what is pre synaptic inhibition useful for

A

preventing excessive reflex responses to normal changes in muscle length

145
Q

what type of responses are monosynaptic

A

DTR and other reflexes

146
Q

where do monosynaptic reflexes come from

A

muscle spindle

147
Q

what does a myotatic reflex mean

A

involuntary

148
Q

what is the scale for reflexes that is used when testing

A

0= no response
1=slight response, may or may not be normal for the pt
2= brisk response: normal
3= very brisk response= may or may not be normal for the pt
4=repeated reflex= always abnormal

149
Q

what does reciprocal inhibition mean

A

inhibition of antagonist, contraction of agonist

150
Q

what groups and muscle fibers are involved with reciprocal inhibition

A

group 1a, muscle spindle

151
Q

what is an example of reciprocal inhibition

A

contract the quad to relax the hamstring, this method is especially helpful after surgery

152
Q

autogenic inhibition means

A

inhibition of agnost followed by contraction of GTO to cause relaxation

153
Q

withdrawal reflex circuit

A

withdrawal of harmful stimulus: motor neuron regulates its own activity by inhibiting itself when it fires

154
Q

what does paralysis mean

A

complete injury of muscles due to spinal nerve or peripheral nerve damage

155
Q

paresis means

A

weakness of muscles in spinal or peripheral nerve, incomplete damage

156
Q

muscle atrophy means

A

rapid denervation of muscle, long term result of paralysis

157
Q

fasciculations means

A

visible surface, quickly muscle twitches supplied by single motor unit

158
Q

fibrilations means

A

twitches felt by patient but are not necessarily visible

159
Q

hyporeflexia means

A

can’t complete stretch reflex arc

160
Q

hypotonia means

A

abnormally low resistance to passive stretch of a muscle, felt in PROM

161
Q

flaccidity means

A

no resistance to passive movement, floppy feeling

162
Q

what lower motor neurons execute voluntary movement of the extremities

A

giant betz cells/pyramidal cells

163
Q

primary cortex produces contralateral or ipsilateral movements

A

contralateral

164
Q

functions of primary motor cortex

A

encodes force, direction, extent, speed of movement

165
Q

purpose of association cortex

A

NOT motor areas > only ensure movements are appropriate for the person

166
Q

what part of the brain is important for spatial relations

A

posterior parietal

167
Q

direct cortical innervation includes what tracts

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar

168
Q

indirect cortical innervation includes

A

corticorubral, corticoreticular

169
Q

where does the corticoreticular tract originate

A

premotor cortex

170
Q

what do lateral descending tracts control

A

proximal and distal muscles, voluntary movement of extremities

171
Q

medial descending tracts control

A

axial muscles, posture, balance

172
Q

what descending pathways control extensor anti-gravity tone

A

medial

173
Q

what are the 3 lateral descending tract pathways

A

lateral corticospinal, corticobulbar, rubriospinal

174
Q

what are the 3 medial descending pathway tracts

A

vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, medial corticospinal

175
Q

what are the exceptions to the corticobulbar tract innervation

A

bilaterally except for lower facial nuclei and cranial nerve 12

176
Q

what is the most important pathway for controlling voluntary mvmt

A

lateral corticospinal tract

177
Q

what tract has axons that terminate directly on a motor neurons

A

lateral corticospinal

178
Q

where do 15% of fibers of corticospinal tract descend IL and cross where

A

cross at segmental level of medial corticospinal tract

179
Q

what does the brainstem act as for corticospianl tract via cerebral peduncles

A

conduit

180
Q

where do axons from the cortex synapse

A

brainstem nuclei of second order neurons

181
Q

what are tracts that originate in the medulla and project to the spinal cord

A

rubrospinal, reticulospinal, vestibulospinal

182
Q

what do descending tracts originating in the BRAINSTEM contribute to

A

voluntary movement

183
Q

when do rubrospinal tract cross

A

immediately to spinal neurons at ALL levels of SC to provide alternative path for voluntary motor commands

184
Q

does the medial reticulospinal tract cross

A

it originates in motor neuron nuclei of reticular formation and DOES NOT cross, but will exit at ALL levels of SC

185
Q

what is medial reticulospinal tract responsible for

A

locomotion and postural control

186
Q

what is medial vestibulospinal tract responsible for

A

transmitting info from inner ear (CN8) to maintain balance and posture

187
Q

is medial vestibulospinal tract bilateral or not

A

yes, splits immediately to become bilateral and exits at all levels ABOVE T6

188
Q

why is it uncommon for there to be complete paralysis in the body

A

there’s lots of places motor control overlaps so even if one nerve is injured, there’s likely another nerve going to that same place within the CNS

189
Q

4 Ds of brainstem dysfunction

A

dysphagia, diplopia, dysarthia, dysmetria

190
Q

what is locked in syndrome

A

stroke at basilar artery denying blood to the pons so pt is awake but can’t move or communicate at all

191
Q

what does bulbar mean

A

medulla

192
Q

what dysfunctions may occur w/ bulbar damage

A

difficulty swallowing, speaking, chewing

193
Q

how can a bulbar dysfunction occur

A

damage at corticobulbar tract or to LMN of cranial nerves

194
Q

upper facial nucleus differentiates ______ and lower facial nucleus differentiates _______

A

bilaterally, contralaterally

195
Q

damage to upper or lower facial nucleus has a greater risk for more cortical damage

A

lower

196
Q

upper facial nucleus innervates _____ and lower facial nucleus innerves ______

A

above eys, below eyes

197
Q

if the entire facial nerve is damaged at the nucleus what would be the most likely result

A

Bell’s palsy b/c IL paralysis of all facial muscles

198
Q

if there’s damage in the cortex what will be the result

A

paralysis of CL side lower nucleus only (not upper nucleus b/c gets bilateral innervation so the other nerve will innervate that side)

199
Q

what cortex are responsible for behavioral contex, emotions ,behavior

A

pre-frontal = frontal assiciation

200
Q

rubrospinal tract begins _____ and has _____ transmission of info to the SC. it crosses ______ at _______

A

red nucleus, CL, immediately, all levels of SC

201
Q

what does medial reticulospinal tract innervate

A

extensor muscles, axial muscles, postural support = locomation and postural control

202
Q

what does dysarthria mean

A

slurred speech = brainstem dysfunction = medical emergency

203
Q

what does dysmetria mean

A

impaired coordination w/ volume and direction of mvmt = brainstem damage

204
Q

what movement can a patient with locked in syndrome still do

A

vertical eye mvmt and blinking

205
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for us learning movements

A

cerebellum

206
Q

what do AROM, PROM, RROM look for in a neurological exam

A

A: preliminary strength, motor control, pain
P: joint range, pain, tone
R: strength

207
Q

what are you looking for with RROM in a neuro patient

A

myotome patterns, local to the muscle= peripheral nerve, entire side of the body= cortex

208
Q

how should a neuro exam be completed

A

test one full arm, then the other, looking for strength deficit/weaknesses against gravity, then assess tone as needed

209
Q

what would you expect a patient to have if there’s LMN damage

A

low tone or flaccid, could also be hyporeflexive or have muscle cramping

210
Q

what is muscle tone resistance to

A

passive movement

211
Q

what are 2 examples of LMN damage and a DECREASE in tone

A

hypotonia and flaccidity

212
Q

what is an example of UMN damage and an INCREASE in tone

A

spasticity

213
Q

what are examples of spasticity

A

caused by cerebral lesions, chronic, caused by SC lesion

214
Q

spasticity caused by cerebral lesion description

A

caused by rapid build up of excitation w/ bias of involvement of antigravity muscles

215
Q

spasticity caused by SC lesion description

A

slow increase in excitation, overactivity of flexors and extensors

216
Q

chronic spasticity description

A

changes in rhelogic properties involved and neighboring muscles that leads to stiffness, contracture, atrophy, fibrosis

217
Q

what is the normal appearance of spasticity

A

LE: extension, UE: flexion

218
Q

does rigidity respond to changes in velocity of movement

A

no, it does not

219
Q

what are some problems rigidity is associated w/

A

parkinsons

220
Q

parkinsons is a dysfunction of what part of the brain

A

basal ganglia

221
Q

what is decebrate posture

A

extension of arms AND legs, backward arch of head, usually caused by severe injury at brainstem

222
Q

what is decorticate posture

A

flexed UE, extended LE, brainstem still functioning but lost cortical influence

223
Q

is decorticate or decebrate more severe

A

decebrate

224
Q

where is damage for decorticate and decerebrate injuries

A

-above level of midbrain
-below level of red nucleus, involves brainstem and cerebellum

225
Q

def apraxia

A

inability to perform purposeful mvmt even though they do have the available mvmt due to damage of pre-motor and supplementary areas

226
Q

what is most common cause of locked in syndrome

A

acute pontine lesion

227
Q

compare ideamotor and ideational apraxia

A

can’t do mvmt with command but can do mvmt automatically; can’t do mvmt with command and can’t do mvmt automatically

228
Q

bulbar palsy s/s

A

dysphonia (difficulty w/ volume of speech and speaking loud enough), tongue atrophy, articulation problems (due to facial nerve damage), dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)

229
Q

what is sialhorea

A

drooling

230
Q

s/s of pseudobulbar damage

A

sialhorea, paralyzed tongue, dysphonia, dysphagia

231
Q

what does emotional liability mean

A

inappropriate emotional responses or exaggerated response, may include limb involvements

232
Q

what is an abnormal response to babinki sign

A

extension of big toe, fanning of other toes

233
Q

what is a normal response to babinski sign

A

flexion of big toe and usually flexion of other toes

234
Q

what damage causes babinksi sign

A

descending UMN pathways

235
Q

what is clonus

A

repetitive, rhythmic contraction of muscle when attempting to hold it in a stretched state, strong DTR when CNS doesn’t inhibit it

236
Q

what causes the abnormal response to clonus test

A

quick and firm dorsiflexion leads to downward beating of foot

237
Q

examples of disorders that may lead to UMN syndrome

A

cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis, traumatic brain injury, stroke, spinal cord, neurodegenerative diseases

238
Q

what does cerebral palsy look like

A

excessive effort with spasticity

239
Q

what is the difference between a positive and negative sign

A

positive is something shows up when it’s not supposed to, negative is something is lost when it’s supposed to be there

240
Q

examples of positive spasticity s/s UMN lesion

A

increased muscle tone, exaggerated DTR, iincreased stretch reflex, babisnki response, dyssenergic mvmt patterns

241
Q

examples of positive s/s LMN lesion

A

paralysis, paresis, muscle atrophy, areflexia, muscle fibrilations

242
Q

negative s/s UMN lesion

A

loss finger dexterity, weakness, fatigue, loss of fractionation (ability to selectively control muscles and limb segments), loss dexterity

243
Q

are positive or negative signs more associated with loss of function

A

negative

244
Q

3 stages of neuro embryology

A

pre= conception- day 14
embryotic= day 15-8 wks
fetal= 8th wk= birth

245
Q

what stage does repeated cell division result in morula

A

pre-embryotic

246
Q

when does a blastocyst of rapidly dividing cells usually form

A

day 5-6

247
Q

when does a blastocyst implant to the uterine wall

A

pre-embryotic, after that the mesoderm begins to form

248
Q

what stage of neuroembryology do major organs and systems differentiate

A

embryotic

249
Q

what is the ectoderm made up of

A

sensory organs, epidermis, nervous system

250
Q

what does the endoderm turn into

A

liver, gut, pancreas

251
Q

when does gastrulation happen

A

week 3 of embrytoic phase, generates into 3 layers

252
Q

when does myelination begin

A

fetal stage

253
Q

neural plate, neural tube, neural groove, neural tube formation during fetal stage

A

-thick ectoderm in contact w/ amniotic fluid
-neuralplate turns to tubular structure where brain and spinal cord originate
-neural plate folds to form
-increase in folds, where the brain and SC develop

254
Q

def anencephaly

A

incomplete/ no brain development

255
Q

def spina bifida

A

protrusion of spinal cord

256
Q

what happens on day 26

A

2 concentric rings are formed: mantel layer= inner, marginal layer= outer

257
Q

3 parts of somites

A

anteromedial: forms vertebrae and skull
posteriomedial: forms skeletal muscle
lateral: forms skin from dermatomes

258
Q

when does brain formation begin

A

day 28

259
Q

3 parts of brain

A

hindbrain: rhombencephalon, later forms into pons, medulla, cerebellum
midbrain: mesencephalon: later forms into midbrain
forebrain: prosencephalon, later forms into P region that becomes diencephalon and A region that becomes telencephalon

260
Q

when does myelination begin

A

4th month of fetus and completed in 3rd yearh

261
Q

when do neurons differentiate

A

after reaching final location

Spring 2022 classes (21 decks)

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