15.2/17.3 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

What are Koch’s Postulates?

A

Set of standards that must be met to demonstrate that X pathogen causes X disease

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2
Q

What is step 1 of Koch’s Postulates

A

The suspected pathogen must be found in every case of disease and not be found in healthy individuals

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3
Q

What is step 2 of Koch’s postulates?

A

The suspected pathogen can be isolated and grown in pure culture

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4
Q

What is step 3 of Koch’s postulates?

A

A healthy test subject infected with the suspected pathogen must develop the same signs and symptoms of disease as seen in postulate 1

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5
Q

What is step 4 of Koch’s postulates?

A

The pathogen must be re-isolated from the new host and must be identical to the pathogen from postulate 2

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6
Q

What are Koch’s wrong assumptions?

A
  1. Pathogens are found only in diseased individuals
  2. All subjects are equally susceptible to infection
  3. All pathogens can be grown in culture
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7
Q

What does molecular Koch’s Postulates identify instead of pathogen?

A

gene

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8
Q

What is the first step of Molecular Koch’s Postulates?

A

The phenotype should be associated only with pathogenic strains of a species

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9
Q

What is the second step of Molecular Koch’s Postulates?

A

Inactivation of the suspected gene(s) associated with pathogenicity should result in a measurable loss of pathogenicity

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10
Q

What is the third step of Molecular Koch’s Postulates?

A

Reversion of the inactive gene should restore the disease phenotype

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11
Q

What are the few limitations of Molecular Koch’s Postulates?

A
  1. Genetic manipulation of some organisms isn’t possible with current techniques
  2. Some diseases do not have suitable animal models
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12
Q

Ability of a pathogen to cause disease?

A

Pathogenicity

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13
Q

Degree of pathogenicity?

A

Virulence

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14
Q

What is ID50? Related to Morbidity or Mortality?

A

Median Infectious dose - no. of pathogens required to infect 50% of those inoculated; Morbidity

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15
Q

What is LD50? Related to Morbidity or Mortality?

A

Median lethal dose - no. of pathogens required to kill 50% of those infected; Mortality

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16
Q

What pathogen can cause disease in a host regardless of the host’s resident microbiota or immune system?

A

Primary Pathogen

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17
Q

What pathogen can only cause disease in situations that compromise the host’s defenses?

A

Opportunistic pathogen

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18
Q

What are the 5 stages of Pathogenicity?

A
  1. Exposure to host
  2. Adhesion
  3. Invasion
  4. Infection
  5. Transmission
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19
Q

What are TORCH infections?

A

Pathogens that can cross placental barrier

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20
Q

What is adhesion in the stages of pathogenicity?

A

The capability of colonization

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21
Q

What are molecules/structures that bind to certain host receptors called?

A

Adhesins

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22
Q

What is a production of community glycocalyx called?

A

Biofilm

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23
Q

What is it called when colonization is established in the stages of pathogenicity?

24
Q

T/F Virulence plays role in degree of invasion

25
How does intracellular pathogens invade?
Via endocytosis and evasion of host immune defenses
26
Which invasion mechanism have effector proteins secreted to trigger entry?
Membrane ruffling
27
Which invasion mechanism has surface proteins that allow for binding to the host cell?
Trojan horse approach
28
Multiplication leads to what stage of pathogenicity?
Infection
29
What type of infection is at a small area of body?
Local infection
30
What type of infection has a pathogen/toxin spread to a secondary location?
Focal infection
31
What type of infection occurs throughout the body?
Systemic
32
T/F Can Primary infections lead to secondary infection of different pathogen
T
33
Transmission to a new host through a portal of exit ensures what?
Persistence
34
What is the differentiation of blood cells from bone marrow stem cells called?
hematopoiesis
35
What are the 3 types of Granulocytes?
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils
36
What is the agranulocyte exception?
Natural Killer cells
37
Which granulocyte has 3-5 connected lobes and small, purple granules?
Neutrophils
38
Which granulocyte has 2-3 lobes and large, red/orange granules?
Eosinophils
39
Which granulocyte has 2 lobes and large, purple granules?
Basophils
40
What granulocyte is involved with the destruction of extracellular bacteria and produces defensins and hydrolytic enzymes?
Neutrophils
41
What are meshes of chromatin with AMPs to trap pathogens called?
NETs - Neutrophil extracellular traps
42
What granulocyte is good at protecting against protozoa and helminths and has granules that contain histamine, degradative enzymes, and major basic protein?
Eosinophils
43
What induces degranulation of basophils?
Activated complement cascade
44
What granulocyte is important in allergic reactions and inflammatory responses and has granules containing histamine and cytokines?
Basophils
45
What function does Mast cells have?
Similar to Basophil function
46
Where are Mast cells found?
Associated with blood vessels and nerves, or found close to surface structures
47
What are 2 main types of agranulocytes?
Lymphocytes and Monocytes
48
Natural killer cells and B cells/T cells fall under what type of agranulocyte?
Lymphocytes
49
Macrophages, dendrites, and mononuclear phagocyte systems fall under what type of agranulocyte?
Monocyte
50
Natural killer cells are considered to have adaptive or innate immunity?
Innate Immunity
51
B cells and T cells are considered to have adaptive or innate immunity?
Adaptive Immunity
52
What do Natural Killer Cells do?
Seek out non-self markers and express cytokines and cytotoxic molecules stored in granules to kill non-self cell
53
What do Natural Killer Cells specifically secrete to induce apoptosis in target cells?
Perforin and granzymes
54
Macrophages are specialized in ________
tissues
55
Dendritic cells are specialized in _________
skin and mucous membranes
56
Monocytes (dendritic and macrophages) are important promoters of __________ immunity
adaptive