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usask year 3.1 > Speech final > Flashcards

Speech final Flashcards

1
Q

How is cleft lip and palate formed?

A

upper lip fuse together by 8 weeks gestation

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2
Q

what is the cause of cleft palate

A

no single cause

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3
Q

what areas do cleft palate effect?

A

can impact nose/nostril development

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4
Q

what sounds do cleft palates effect

A

stops fricatives and affricates

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5
Q

what does an incomplete palate mean for cleft lip

A

Incomplete means it doesn’t go all the way to the back of the palette

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6
Q

what is a submucous cleft?

A

Abnormality in hard palate development that is hidden by mucosal tissue of the palate
No actual opening in the nasal cavity

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7
Q

what are 3 signs a submucous cleft may be present

A

Bifid uvula
Hypernasal voice quality
Bluish tint in midline of soft palate

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8
Q

what are 4 slp related issues for slps

A

feeding, hearing, dental, resonance, articulation/phonological, language delays and disorders

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9
Q

what are the steps behind cleft lip palate assesment

A

birth - 4 ome and resknance, surgery, asses for velopharyngeal dysfunction

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10
Q

what is the treatment for cleft lip

A

same treatment for phonological, voice and language disorders

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11
Q

what is fluency described as

A

continuity, smothness, rate and effort in speech prod

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12
Q

what are normal symptoms of disfluency

A

hesitations pauses, repeating sounds, use fillers

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13
Q

what are overt/characteristics of stutering

A

Audible “Core Behaviors”
Repetitions
Prolongations
“Silent blocks” - respiratory, phonatory, or articulatory
Interjections of sounds, syllables, words (“fillers)
Revisions
○
Visual
Eyes: blinking
Head/Face: tension, furrowing of forehead, jerking
Raising/tensing shoulders
Arms/Hands: swinging arms, jerking, clenching fish, pressing fingers together
Tensing chest muscles

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14
Q

what is overt and covert?

A

overt means audible and visible while covert means feelings beliefs and attitudes

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15
Q

what is prolongation?

A

Prolongation is the extension of a consonant or vowels

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16
Q

whats revision?

A

word switches or change of topics/ kids may not know the answer to a question but change the answer incase they have to say something specific that will trigger them

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17
Q

what are covert stuttering symptoms

A

frustration anger anxiety

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18
Q

are there any co-occuring disorders with stuttering?

A

yes lots

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19
Q

what is cluttering?

A

speech delivery that is abnormaly fast irregular or both

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20
Q

what are the characteristics of cluttering?

A

rapid speech
disfluencies
syllable deletion
Ungrammatical syntax

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21
Q

who is most likely to have a cluttering issue?

A

post stroke patients

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22
Q

are cluttering patients aware?

A

no

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23
Q

ideal stutter assemsent

A

parent interview, speech sample, child interview, observations, assesment covert assesment

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24
Q

stuttering treatment

A

indirect and direct

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24
Q

whats an example of indirect treatment?

A

caregiver allows lots of time and counselling, turn taking, reduce pressure

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25
Q

whats an example of direct treatment?

A

Counselling
○ Confidence building with therapy tasks
○ Lidcombe Program
○ Fluency modification (once a bit older)

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26
Q

According to Gregory, what are the four stages of therapy?

A

The four stages of therapy are
1 developing insight and attitudes
2 increasing awareness of muscular tension,
3 analyzing and modifying speech
4 building new speech skills

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27
Q

What is a cognitive communication disorder

A

Language problem that occurs secondary to cognitive impairment

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28
Q

What are the common causes of a cognitive communication disorder?

A

TBI, right hemisphere damage, dementia

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29
Q

what are some characteristics of a traumatic brain injury with both paediatric and adult patients?

A

cognition, memory, attention, language reasoning, judgement information processing psychosocial behavior, and they may have motor deficits

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30
Q

What does a mild TBI mean?

A

Concussion

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31
Q

What are some common causes of a TBI?

A

Falls, motor accident, child, accident, child abuse, sport injury, altercations

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32
Q

What is the difference between closed and open when referring to a brain injury?

A

Closed is most common, and it means that the skull will be impacted, but it’s not fractured or penetrated, and open means that the skull and brain are penetrated by a severe impact and can cause skull fragments to disperse into brain

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33
Q

what are the differences between paediatric and adult brains when discussing traumatic brain injury

A

Paediatric brains are more susceptible to injury because of soft tissue and children often lack awareness and maybe impulsive children’s brains are also not fully developed

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34
Q

What are the stages of assessment for a traumatic brain injury?

A

Acute, rehabilitation hospital, outpatient services, continued outpatient, and private

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35
Q

what is the assessment for a traumatic brain injury?

A

Complete a cognitive test
Receptive and expressive language
Speech production
Swallowing
And hearing

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36
Q

what is the treatment for a traumatic brain injury

A

Cognitive rehabilitation focusses on cognitive skills within the area of communication and the goal is to improve cognitive and psychosocial functioning and foster independence

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37
Q

what can neurological impairment impactfor slp

A

Communication, cognition, speech, and or swallowing

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38
Q

where do SOP’s and adults go for treatment of a neurological language disorder?

A

Acute care, hospitals, long-term care and private practice are options

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39
Q

what are the variety of etiologies?

A

Stroke, TBI, tumours toxins and degenerative diseases and disorders.

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40
Q

What are the three types of strokes

A

hemorrhagic, ischemic and transient ischemic attack

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41
Q

what is a HEMORRHAGIC stroke

A

Rupturing of blood vessel, leading to damage in brain tissue can be caused by an aneurism

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42
Q

what is an SCHEMIC or occlusive stroke?

A

Partial or complete blockage of blood flow thrombosis versus embolism blockage

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43
Q

what is a transient SCHEMIC attack

A

Blood flow insufficiency and partial blockage

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44
Q

what is the recovery for strokes based on

A

Age, overall health prior to stroke, site and size of lesion

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45
Q

where can strokes happen

A

In any of the CNS

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46
Q

what are tumors?

A

Abnormal masses of tissue that caused compression and displacement of brain tissue

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47
Q

what are the types of tumours

A

Primary and secondary a primary tumour originates in the brain, and a secondary tumour originates somewhere else, and then travels to the brain due to cells metastasizing through the bloodstream

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48
Q

are all tumours cancerous

A

Some tumours are cancerous malignant and some are not cancerous benign

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49
Q

what are some common types of toxins?

A

Alcohol, recreational drugs, and environmental toxins

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50
Q

what is a degenerative disease or disorder

A

The brain changes due to progressive deterioration of structures and functions

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51
Q

what are some examples of degenerative diseases or disorders

A

Dementia, ALS, Parkinson’s, multiple sclerosis, MS

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52
Q

what is aphasia

A

An acquired language impairment due to a neurological damage

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53
Q

does aphasia affect us, expressive or receptive

A

Both

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54
Q

is there any other cognitive impairments that coexist with aphasia?

A

Yes, sensory, motor, intellectual, and or cognitive

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55
Q

can you determine the type of aphasia by knowing where the site of the lesion is?

A

Sometimes you can determine it, but you have to look at the symptoms

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56
Q

what is the assessment for language disorders?

A

History, receptive and expressive abilities, nonverbal, communication, reading, and writing abilities

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57
Q

What is the ratio of boys to girls diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1

A

C) 3:1

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58
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A) Increased interest in social interaction
B) Impaired communication skills
C) Repetitive, stereotyped movements
D) Restricted interests

A

A) Increased interest in social interaction

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59
Q

According to DSM-5, which of the following is an essential characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A) Hyperactivity and impulsivity
B) Persistent impairment in reciprocal social communication and social interaction
C) Perfect communication skills
D) High level of empathy

A

B) Persistent impairment in reciprocal social communication and social interaction, and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior

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60
Q

Which factor is NOT associated with the increasing rates of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A) Genetics and environment
B) In Utero complications
C) Vaccines
D) Consistent rates across race and ethnicity

A

C) vaccines

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61
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom that presents from early childhood and limits or impairs everyday functioning in Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A) Delayed language skills
B) Lack of interest in social interaction
C) Regression or loss of language skills at any age
D) Reduced or absent eye contact with caregivers

A

B) Lack of interest in social interaction

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61
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom that presents from early childhood and limits or impairs everyday functioning in Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A) Delayed language skills
B) Lack of interest in social interaction
C) Regression or loss of language skills at any age
D) Reduced or absent eye contact with caregivers

A

B) Hyperactivity

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61
Q

True or False: Autism Spectrum Disorder is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by decreased interest in social interaction and relationships.

A

true

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61
Q

True or False: Genetics and environment are potential factors contributing to the increasing rates of Autism Spectrum Disorder.

A

true

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62
Q

true or False: Lack of response to own name by 12 months is a symptom associated with delayed language skills in Autism Spectrum Disorder.

A

true

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63
Q

what are the social deficits of autism?

A

○ Difficulty explaining behaviours
○ Difficulty understanding emotions
○ Difficulty predicting the behaviours or emotional state of
others

64
Q

True or False: Increased rate of otitis media (middle ear infection) is a comorbidity of autism.

A) True
B) False

A

true

65
Q

True or False: Intellectual disabilities are comorbidities associated with Attention-deficit/hyperactivity Disorder.

A) True
B) False

A

true

66
Q

What is the definition of developmental delay?
A) Difficulty or delay in any area of development
B) Difficulty only in physical development
C) Difficulty only in cognitive development
D) Difficulty only in emotional development

A

A Difficulty or delay in any area of development

67
Q

Global Developmental Delay typically manifests before the age of:
A) 1 year
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) 7 years

A

C) 5 years

68
Q

Which of the following conditions can lead to Global Developmental Delay?
A) Autism Spectrum Disorder
B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
C) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

A

C) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)

69
Q

Intellectual Disability is characterized by:
A) Significant limitations in intellectual functioning only
B) Significant limitations in adaptive behavior only
C) Significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior
D) Mild limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior

A

C) Significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior

70
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with developmental delays?
A) Cerebral Palsy
B) Down Syndrome
C) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

A

D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

71
Q

What are some characteristics of fluency disorders?
A) Continuity, volume, smoothness
B) Smoothness, rate, effort
C) Clarity, volume, effort
D) Volume, rate, clarity

A

Answer: B) Smoothness, rate, effort

72
Q

Which of the following behaviors are commonly observed in individuals experiencing fluency disorders?
A) Rapid speech, clear articulation
B) Hesitations, repetitions, fillers
C) Fluent speech, minimal pauses
D) Consistent pace, no repetitions

A

Answer: B) Hesitations, repetitions, fillers

73
Q

Which condition involves swelling of the vocal cords, resulting in a hoarse voice?
A) Laryngitis
B) Vocal cord paresis
C) Spasmodic dysphonia
D) Dysarthria

A

Answer: A) Laryngitis

74
Q

What nerve problem causes spasms in the vocal cords?
A) Laryngitis
B) Vocal cord paresis
C) Spasmodic dysphonia
D) Dysarthria

A

Answer: C) Spasmodic dysphonia

75
Q

What feelings may individuals with fluency disorders commonly experience?
A) Happiness, satisfaction, pride
B) Frustration, anger, guilt
C) Excitement, confidence, comfort
D) Relaxation, ease, contentment

A

Answer: B) Frustration, anger, guilt

76
Q

List the characteristics of a voice disorder

A

Hoarse - used most by professionals
● Breathy
● harsh/strained/strangled
● grating/gravily
● strident/thin/weak
● Monotone, monopitch

77
Q

Vocal nodules are commonly found in which region of the vocal folds?
A) Posterior one-third
B) Middle one-third
C) Anterior one-third
D) Entire length

A

Answer: C) Anterior one-third and middle one-third

78
Q

What is a common cause of vocal polyps?
A) Excessive coughing
B) Vocal fold cysts
C) Voice misuse
D) Neurological disorders

A

Answer: C) Voice misuse

79
Q

Laryngitis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Bacterial infection
B) Vocal trauma
C) Allergies
D) Excessive whispering

A

D) Excessive whispering

80
Q

Where do contact ulcers typically develop on the vocal folds?
A) Posterior region
B) Anterior region
C) Medial region
D) Lateral region

A

Answer: C) Medial region

81
Q

Functional dysphonia is characterized by changes in voice that are:
A) Explained by physical causes
B) Unexplained by physical or neurological causes
C) Primarily due to muscle tension
D) Always accompanied by psychological symptoms

A

Answer: B) Unexplained by physical or neurological causes

82
Q

Muscle tension dysphonia often results in a voice that is:
A) Smooth and clear
B) Rough, hoarse, or thin
C) Monotone and weak
D) Deep and resonant

A

Answer: B) Rough, hoarse, or thin

83
Q

What is a characteristic feature of functional aphonia?
A) Whispering during speech
B) Inability to produce any sounds
C) Strong voice during non-speech vocalizations
D) Complete loss of vocal fold movement

A

Answer: A) Whispering during speech

84
Q

Hypoadduction of vocal folds is commonly associated with which neurological disorder?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Multiple system atrophy
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Alzheimer’s disease

A

Answer: A) Parkinson’s disease

85
Q

What is Aphasia?
A) A type of neurological disorder
B) A skin condition
C) A form of physical disability
D) A psychological disorder

A

Answer: A) A type of neurological disorder

86
Q

Which components of language can be affected by Aphasia?
A) Only expressive language
B) Only receptive language
C) All components of language
D) Only written language

A

Answer: C) All components of language

87
Q

What may co-exist with Aphasia?
A) Vision impairments
B) Hearing impairments
C) Sensory, motor, intellectual, and/or cognitive impairments
D) Bone fractures

A

Answer: C) Sensory, motor, intellectual, and/or cognitive impairments

88
Q

How can the type of Aphasia be determined?
A) By the person’s age
B) By the person’s gender
C) By the site of lesion
D) By the person’s nationality

A

Answer: C) By the site of lesion

89
Q

What skills can be affected by Aphasia?
A) Speech only
B) Hearing only
C) Reading and writing skills
D) Vision only

A

Answer: C) Reading and writing skills

90
Q

what are the types of aphasia?

A

Broca’s Aphasia
B) Transcortical sensory Aphasia
C) Conduction Aphasia
D) Wernicke’s Aphasia
Transcortical motor Aphasia

91
Q

Which type of Aphasia primarily affects speech production?
A) Broca’s Aphasia
B) Wernicke’s Aphasia
C) Global Aphasia
D) Conduction Aphasia

A

Answer: A) Broca’s Aphasia

92
Q

Which type of Aphasia primarily affects comprehension?
A) Broca’s Aphasia
B) Wernicke’s Aphasia
C) Global Aphasia
D) Conduction Aphasia

A

Answer: B) Wernicke’s Aphasia

93
Q

Which type of Aphasia involves both expressive and receptive impairments?
A) Broca’s Aphasia
B) Wernicke’s Aphasia
C) Global Aphasia
D) Transcortical Motor Aphasia

A

Answer: C) Global Aphasia

94
Q

What are some early signs and symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Answer: C) Impaired working memory

95
Q

Which stage of Alzheimer’s is characterized by increased loss of working memory and diminished vocabulary?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer’s
B) Early stage Alzheimer’s
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer’s
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer’s

A

Answer: C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer’s

96
Q

What is a common symptom during the moderate stage of Alzheimer’s?

A

Withdrawal and inappropriate behavior

97
Q

What typically happens during the severe stage of Alzheimer’s?

A

Difficulty recognizing others or oneself

98
Q

Which type of dementia is characterized by impaired working memory, difficulty completing tasks, and disorientation? A) Alzheimer’s
B) Huntington’s
C) Korsakoff’s
D) Down syndrome

A

Alzheimer’s

99
Q

Which stage of Alzheimer’s is often characterized by forgetting common names and misplacing items?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer’s
B) Early stage Alzheimer’s
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer’s
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer’s

A

Answer: B) Early stage Alzheimer’s

100
Q

In which stage of Alzheimer’s do the warning signs become more apparent and the person is frequently not thinking clearly?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer’s
B) Early stage Alzheimer’s
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer’s
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer’s

A

Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer’s

101
Q

Which stage of Alzheimer’s marks the terminal stage where the person no longer thinks, reasons, or communicates?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer’s
B) Early stage Alzheimer’s
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer’s
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer’s

A

Answer: D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer’s

102
Q

What are the characteristics of respiratory dysarthria?
A) High volume, long phrases, clear articulation
B) Low volume, short phrases, strained/strangled at end of phrases
C) Breathiness in voice, hypernasality
D) Weakness in lips, tongue, jaw

A

Low volume, short phrases, strained/strangled at end of phrases

103
Q

Which type of dysarthria may exhibit breathiness in voice and quiet speech?
A) Respiratory
B) Phonatory
C) Resonatory
D) Articulatory

A

Phonatory

104
Q

What is a characteristic symptom of resonatory dysarthria?
A) Hypernasality
B) Shortness of breath
C) Articulation difficulty
D) Unintelligibility

A

Answer: A) Hypernasality

105
Q

Which type of dysarthria involves weakness in the muscles of the soft palate?
A) Respiratory
B) Phonatory
C) Resonatory
D) Articulatory

A

resonatory

106
Q

What neurological conditions are associated with dysarthria?
A) Arthritis and diabetes
B) Tumors and ALS
C) Hypertension and asthma
D) Migraines and epilepsy

A

Tumors and ALS

107
Q

Dysarthria respitory symptoms?

A

difficulty coordinating breathing for speech

108
Q

Dysarthria Articulatory symptoms?

A

weakness in lips, tongue, jaw
○ unintelligibility

109
Q

What is dysarthria

A

Motor speech disorder due to neurological impairment impacting strength and
coordination of muscles for speech

110
Q

What are some cognitive impairments associated with cognitive-communication disorders?

A

Attention, memory, reasoning

111
Q

what are the characteristics of right hemisphere disorder?

A

A) Visual-spatial abilities
B) Emotions
D) Orientation

112
Q

What is a common cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A) Allergies
B) Infections
C) Falls
D) Diabetes

A

Answer: C) Falls

113
Q

What is the difference between closed and open TBI?

A

Open TBI involves skull penetration, while closed TBI does not.

114
Q

what is a characteristic of right hemisphere disorder?

A

emotional instability

115
Q

What is a potential consequence of open TBI?

A

Dispersal of skull fragments into the brain

116
Q

Which aspect of communication is often affected by cognitive deficits?

A

Receptive and expressive language

117
Q

What may individuals with cognitive-communication disorders have trouble understanding?

A

General concepts

118
Q

Why are pediatric brains more susceptible to injury compared to adults?

A

Answer: B) Due to increased water content

119
Q

What is a common characteristic of children during TBI assessment and management

A

Answer: C) Lack of awareness and impulsivity

120
Q

Which stage of assessment typically involves immediate medical care?

A

acute

121
Q

What is the primary goal of treatment for brain injury patients?

A

Enhancing functional independence

122
Q

What is the focus of cognitive rehabilitation in brain injury patients?

A

Improving cognitive skills within communication

123
Q

What are the goals of cognitive rehabilitation?

A

Improve cognitive and psychosocial functioning

124
Q

In which stage of assessment does the patient receive ongoing care outside the hospital?

A

outpatient

125
Q

How is Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) typically screened?

A

Eye gaze, orientating to name, use of gestures

126
Q

What type of assessment task involves using a mirror in cleft lip and palate assessment?

A

Non-instrumental assessment

127
Q

Who might initiate screening for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?

A

Healthcare professionals, teachers, or parents

128
Q

What is the main focus of Speech-Language Pathologists (SLPs) when involved with cleft lip infants at birth?

A

feeding and pre linguistic skills

129
Q

How often are children with cleft lip and palate screened for development from birth to four years?

A

yearly

130
Q

what is typically assessed in cleft lip and palate cases?

A

Velopharyngeal dysfunction
B) Hypernasality
D) Nasal emissions

131
Q

What type of evaluation is often used for assessing resonance and velopharyngeal function in cleft lip and palate cases?

A

Perceptual evaluation

132
Q

What is a common instrumental assessment used for evaluating resonance and velopharyngeal function?

A

nasometer

133
Q

What are some descriptors used to describe abnormal voice quality?

A

breathy and or harsh

134
Q

Which term is commonly used by professionals to describe a voice with roughness?

A

hoarse

135
Q

What is a potential cause of voice disorders in children?

A

vocal nodules

136
Q

What is a potential cause of voice disorders in adults?

A

Vocal Polyps
B) Functional Dysphonia
D) Polypoid degeneration

137
Q

What might be a potential cause of voice disorders in older adults?

A

Polypoid degeneration

138
Q

What type of voice disorder might be due to career or environmental factors?

A

Functional dysphonia

139
Q

what is dysphagia

A

medical term for difficulty swallowing.

140
Q

causes for dysphagia?

A

Due to a stroke, frailty in older adults, cancer, etc.

141
Q

What does developmental delay refer to?

A

Difficulty or delay in two or more areas of development

142
Q

At what age does global developmental delay typically manifest?

A

Before the age of 5 years

143
Q

what are the symptoms of global development delay

A

delays in physical and behavioral development

144
Q

What is involved in the Oral Preparatory phase of swallowing?

A

Chewing and manipulation of food in the mouth

145
Q

Which action occurs during the Oral phase of swallowing?

A

Tongue quickly sweeps back, pulling food to the pharynx

146
Q

What is
the primary function of the soft palate during the Pharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A

soft palate closes the nasal cavity

147
Q

what is oral prep

A

Engaged all senses and cognitive awareness of food
● Includes bringing food to your mouth - bite size, sip size
● Chewing - depending on consistency, texture, size, and temperature
● Tongue is responsible to move food around the mouth
○ Allows for chewing

148
Q

what is oral stage

A

begins once chewing has stopped

149
Q

what is the pharyngeal stage

A

● Passage of food through the pharynx to the esophagus opening
Soft pallate raises, larynx moves up, vocal folds close then larynx lowers

150
Q

what is the esophageal stage

A

Food has passed through the upper esophageal valve/sphincter
● Valve closes and peristaltic squeezing actions of the esophageal muscles carries the
bolus to the lower esophageal valve at the bottom
● Usually takes 8 - 20 seconds
● Lower valve briefly opens for bolus to enter the stomach
○ Closes again to prevent gastric/stomach acid from coming up the esophagus

151
Q

what is bolus

A

food mass in the mouth that can be chewed and prepared to
start the process of swallowing

152
Q

what is aspiration:

A

solids (food) or liquids entering the lungs (Below vocal
folds)

153
Q

what is silent aspiration

A

penetration of food/liquid/ saliva past the larynx and
passing below the vocal folds without overt signs (protective cough or
choking)

154
Q

what are the 3 options for dysphagia patients?

A

NPO (Nothing by Mouth)
■ NG tube: nasogastric tube
and ■ G tube: gastrostomy tube

155
Q

● Physiological processing (chemical and electrical activity) begins in the …

A

inner ear

156
Q

outer ear purpose?

A

Collects and resonates sound
● Assists in localizing direction of sound
● Helps to protect from middle ear damage
○ Cerumen (wax)

157
Q

outer ear parts?

A

● Pinna: the part of ear you can see
○ Helix (upper rim) and lobule (lower potion)
● Ear canal (1 inch long)
○ Directs sound to tympanic membrane
● Tympanic membrane: outer surface of the eardrum
○ Separates ear canal from middle ear
○ Vibrates into middle ear (sound waves)

158
Q

Middle ear purpose?

A

Provides the energy transformation
● Allows the vibrations of the tympanic membrane to be amplified before reaching the
cochlea

159
Q

Middle ear parts

A

Ossicular chain: Three joined bones that connect the tympanic membrane to the
cochlea. Move based on the vibrations (rhythm) of the eardrum movement
○ Malleus: “mallet” or “hammer”
○ Incus
○ Stapes
● Eustachian Tube
○ Keeps an constant middle ear air pressure
○ Connects middle ear to the nasopharynx
○ Valve often closed at nasopharynx except when chewing, swallowing, yawning, sneezing, and
in babies (before 6 months)
○ Barotrauma: feeling of pressure in middle ear that changes with altitude

160
Q

inner ear purpose?

A

Converts movement of ossicles into signal for auditory nerve to
receive

161
Q

inner ear parts?

A

cochlea and vestibular system

usask year 3.1 (11 decks)

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