MOSBY biochem nad nutri

Question 1

1. Which food provides the greatest amount of energy
   (kilocalories per gram [kcal/g]) per serving?
   A. Wine
   B. Olive oil
   C. Baked chicken breast
   D. Grapes
   E. Peppermint hard candy

Answer 1

ANS: B
Olive oil (B) is a lipid (fat) that consists of 9kcal/g.
Because of the structure of lipids, they provide more
energy per gram than alcohol, carbohydrates, or
protein. Wine (A) is an alcohol and contains 7kcal/g.
Baked chicken breast (C) is primarily a protein and
contains 4 kcal/g. Grapes (D) and peppermint hard
candy (E) are carbohydrates and contain 4kcal/g.

Question 2

2. Each nonnutritive sweetener may be recommended to
   patients with phenylketonuria (PKU) EXCEPT one.
   Which one is the EXCEPTION?
   A. Xylitol
   B. Acesulfame K
   C. Aspartame
   D. Neotame
   E. Saccharin

Answer 2

ANS: C
Aspartame (C) is hydrolyzed to aspartic acid, methanol,
and phenylalanine in the intestine. Patients with
phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid phenylalanine;
therefore, they should not use aspartame. Xylitol (A),
acesulfame K (B), neotame (D), and saccharin (E)
are nonnutritive sweeteners that are better choices for
individuals with PKU.

Question 3

3. Each statement about fatty acids is correct EXCEPT
   one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
   A. Three fatty acids join to glycerol to form a
   triglyceride.
   B. Omega-6 fatty acids have the first C=C double
   bond on the sixth carbon from the omega end.
   C. Trans fatty acids have rotated hydrogen atoms on
   opposite sides of the bond.
   D. Eicosapentaenoic acid has 20 carbon atoms and 5
   double bonds.
   E. Saturated fatty acids contain one or more double
   bonds.

Answer 3

ANS: E
The correct choice is E. Saturated fatty acids contain
the maximum number of hydrogen atoms because they
do not contain double bonds. Monounsaturated fatty
acids contain one double bond, and polyunsaturated
acids contain two or more double bonds. Choices A, B,
C, and D are all correct.

Question 4

4. Which are essential amino acids (EAAs)? (Select all
   that apply.)
   A. Tryptophan
   B. Proline
   C. Glutamic acid
   D. Phenylalanine
   E. Histidine

Answer 4

ANS: A, D, E
Tryptophan (A), phenylalanine (D), and histidine (E)
are all essential amino acids; that is, they are required
in the diet to support growth, maintenance, and repair.
A food with all nine essential amino acids is considered
a complete protein. Proline (B) and glutamic acid (C)
are nonessential amino acids (NEAAs).

Question 5

5. For each of the numbered vitamins, select the most
   closely associated deficiency or excess.
   ____ 1. Vitamin A
   ____ 2. Vitamin D
   ____3. Thiamin
   ____ 4. Niacin
   ____ 5. Folic acid
   ____ 6. Vitamin B12
   ____ 7. Vitamin C

_______
A. Deficiency results in
beriberi.
B. Deficiency during pregnancy results in neural
tube defects.
C. Deficiency results in
weakened collagen, excessive bleeding, and poor
wound healing.
D. Excess may cause
increased activity of
osteoclasts.
E. Deficiency results in rickets.
F. Deficiency results in
pellagra.
G. Deficiency results in pernicious anemia.

Answer 5

ANS: 1D; 2E; 3A; 4F; 5B; 6G; 7C
Vitamin A (1) toxicity has an impact on bone
health, stimulating osteoclast function (D) and
resulting in bone resorption. Vitamin D (2) deficiency affects bone formation in children and
adults. Rickets is characterized by weak bones and
skeletal deformities (E). Thiamin (3) deficiency,
or beriberi, causes damage to the nervous and
cardiovascular systems (A). Niacin (4) deficiency
results in the signs and symptoms of pellagra (F),
which include dermatitis, diarrhea, depression, and
dementia. Adequate folic acid (5) is imperative in
the periconception period, as neural tube formation
occurs in the first month of pregnancy (B). Vitamin
B12 (6) deficiency may result in pernicious anemia
(G). Vitamin C (7) deficiency may result in
weakened collagen, excessive bleeding, and poor
wound healing (C) because adequate vitamin C is
needed for collagen formation

Question 6

6. Protein energy malnutrition is known as
   A. marasmus.
   B. atherosclerosis.
   C. Crohn disease.
   D. scurvy.
   E. Cushing syndrome

Answer 6

ANS: A
Marasmus (A) occurs when protein and kilocalories
are deficient in the diet. Atherosclerosis (B) is a
cardiovascular disease caused by high intake of
saturated fat and cholesterol. Crohn disease (C) is an
inflammatory bowel disease affecting any part of the
gastrointestinal tract. Scurvy (D) is associated with
a vitamin C deficiency. Cushing syndrome (E) is
associated with prolonged exposure to, or the secretion
of, excessive cortisol.

Question 7

7. Intrinsic factor in the stomach is needed for the
   absorption of
   A. vitamin A.
   B. thiamin.
   C. vitamin B12.
   D. vitamin C.
   E. calcium

Answer 7

ANS: C
Of the nutrients listed, only vitamin B12 (C) needs
to be bound with intrinsic factor (glycoprotein) to
be absorbed in the ileum. Vitamins A (A) and C (D),
thiamin (B), and calcium (E) are not required for
intrinsic factor in the stomach.

Question 8

8. Chronic iron deficiency anemia is known as
   A. megaloblastic anemia.
   B. pica.
   C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state.
   D. Sjögren syndrome.
   E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome.

Answer 8

ANS: E
Iron supplementation is one of the treatment modalities
for patients with Plummer-Vinson syndrome (E).
Individuals with this syndrome experience fatigue
and difficulty swallowing. Megaloblastic anemia (A)
is a result of a deficiency in folic acid. Pica (B) is an
abnormal consumption of specific foods or nonfoods.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (C) is a potentially
life-threatening state of diabetes, in which the blood
glucose level is above 600 milligrams per deciliter
(mg/dL). Sjögren syndrome (D) is a chronic
autoimmune disease, with xerostomia as one of the
symptoms.

Question 9

9. Which fatty acid has the first double bond at the third
   carbon atom from the omega end?
   A. Trans
   B. Stearic acid
   C. Alpha-linolenic acid
   D. Triglyceride
   E. Cholesterol

Answer 9

ANS: C
Alpha-linolenic acid (C) is an omega-3 fatty acid
with 18 carbons and 2 double bonds, with the first
double bound at the third carbon atom from the
omega end. Trans fatty acids (A) have the hydrogen
atoms on the opposite sides of the bond. Stearic acid
(B) is a saturated fatty acid with only single bonds.
Triglycerides (D) are three fatty acids joined to a
glycerol. Cholesterol (E) is a complex ring structure.

Question 10

10. Which snack creates the most cariogenic environment
    in the oral cavity?
    A. Almonds
    B. Raisins
    C. Cheddar cheese
    D. Grapefruit
    E. Fried eggs

Answer 10

ANS: B
Raisins (B) are a retentive carbohydrate and have
the potential to drop the salivary pH to a cariogenic
level. Almonds (A) contain fat and are considered
cariostatic. Cheddar cheese (C) is cariostatic because
it contains protein, fat, phosphorus, calcium, and
casein. Grapefruit (D) is cariostatic because it contains
citric acid, which may stimulate saliva flow. Fried
eggs (E) are cariostatic because they contain protein
and fat.

Question 11

11. How many minutes of acid exposure in the oral cavity
    will one peppermint candy disk provide?
    A. 0
    B. 4
    C. 20
    D. 40
    E. 60

Answer 11

ANS: D
Because a peppermint candy disk dissolves slowly, it
may drop the salivary pH for 40 minutes (D). Sugarfree candy exposes the oral environment to 0 minutes
(A) of acid exposure. It takes from 2 to 4 minutes
(B) for the oral pH to drop into a critical zone for
demineralization. Cariogenic beverages will drop the
salivary pH for 20 minutes (C). The period of acid
exposure is less than 60 minutes (E).

Question 12

12. Chewing gum used to reduce the risk of dental caries
    should contain which of the following cariostatic sugar
    alcohols?
    A. Erythritol
    B. Lactitol
    C. Mannitol
    D. Sorbitol
    E. Xylitol

Answer 12

ANS: E
Plaque bacteria cannot metabolize xylitol (E), making
it cariostatic in sufficient amounts. Erythritol (A),
lactitol (B), mannitol (C), and sorbitol (D) are all
sugar alcohols, which do not have as much cariogenic
effect as sucrose but less cariostatic benefit than
xylitol.

Question 13

13. Protein, casein, phosphorus, and calcium have
    anticariogenic properties. Milk is always a
    good beverage to recommend for patients with
    a high caries risk because of its anticariogenic
    properties.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 13

ANS: C
The first statement is true, and the second statement
is false (C). Protein, casein, phosphorus, and calcium
have anticariogenic properties. Milk contains each of
these anticariogenic properties; however, it contains
lactose as well. Although lactose is the least cariogenic
carbohydrate, there is still a potential to be cariogenic
in excessive amounts and situations such as frequent
or prolonged exposure. Early childhood caries (ECC)
illustrates the fact that milk be cariogenic. Choices A,
B, and D do not correctly reflect the statements.

Question 14

14. Each is a source of cholesterol EXCEPT one. Which
    one is the EXCEPTION?
    A. Skim milk
    B. Low-fat fruit yogurt
    C. Lean hamburger
    D. Butter
    E. Margarine

Answer 14

ANS: E
Margarine (E) comes from vegetable oils, and
cholesterol only comes from animal sources. Skim
milk (A), low-fat fruit yogurt (B), lean hamburger (C),
and butter (D) all come from animal sources and thus
are sources of cholesterol.

Question 15

15. Which foods constitute a complete protein? (Select all
    that apply.)
    A. Beans and rice
    B. Whole-wheat bagel
    C. Eggs
    D. Peanut butter
    E. Macaroni and cheese

Answer 15

ANS: A, C, E
A complete protein contains all nine of the essential
amino acids (EEAs). Beans and rice (A) are a
complementary combination of vegetable proteins. Eggs
(C) are an animal protein. Macaroni and cheese (E) is
a combination of complete and incomplete proteins.
A whole-wheat bagel (B), and peanut butter (D) are
incomplete proteins, lacking in one or more EEAs.

Question 16

16. The basic unit of a protein is a glycerol. The
    distinguishing feature of a protein, compared with a
    carbohydrate or a fat, is the source of oxygen.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 16

ANS: B
Both statements are false (B). The basic unit of a
protein is an amino acid, not a glycerol. Carbohydrates,
fats, and proteins all contain carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen. The distinguishing feature of a protein,
compared with a carbohydrate or a fat, is the source
of nitrogen, not oxygen. Choices A, C, and D do not
correctly reflect the statements

Question 17

17. Which food exemplifies a vegan (strict vegetarian)
    diet? (Select all that apply.)
    A. Maple syrup
    B. Corn oil
    C. Cream cheese
    D. Soy milk
    E. Grilled cheese sandwich

Answer 17

ANS: A, B, D
The vegan only consumes foods from plant sources. He
or she does not consume foods of animal origin. Maple
syrup (A), corn oil (B), and soy milk (D) are all from plant
sources. Cream cheese (C) and a grilled cheese sandwich
(E) contain cheese, which is produced from animal sources.

Question 18

18. Each factor inhibits the absorption of calcium
    EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A. Excessive caffeine intake
    B. Pregnancy
    C. Smoking
    D. Excessive alcohol intake
    E. Use of antacids

Answer 18

ANS: B
Pregnancy (B) does not change calcium absorption.
Excessive caffeine intake (A), smoking (C), excessive
alcohol intake (D), and the use of antacids (E) all are
factors that have been shown to inhibit the absorption
of calcium.

Question 19

19. The animal form of vitamin A is
    A. tocopherol.
    B. carotene.
    C. retinol.
    D. calciferol.
    E. renin.

Answer 19

ANS: C
Retinol (C) is the animal form of vitamin A. Carotene
(B), or beta carotene, is a vegetable form of vitamin A.
Tocopherol (A) is the generic term for vitamin E and
the chemically related compounds that have similar
biologic activity. Calciferol (D) is a form of synthetic
vitamin D and is used for prophylaxis and treatment
of vitamin D deficiencies. Renin (E) is an enzyme
associated with blood pressure regulation, not with
vitamin A.

Question 20

20. Each vitamin can be synthesized by the body EXCEPT
    one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A. B6
    B. B12
    C. C
    D. D
    E. K

Answer 20

ANS: C
Of the vitamins listed, vitamin C (C) is not synthesized
in the body. Microorganisms in the body can
synthesize both vitamin B6
(A) and vitamin B12 (B).
Vitamin D (D) is obtained from the conversion of
sunlight to vitamin D in the body. Vitamin K (E) can
be derived from bacteria in the colon.

Question 21

21. Ham and roast beef are excellent sources of
    A. calcium.
    B. folate.
    C. vitamin B12.
    D. vitamin C.
    E. vitamin K.

Answer 21

ANS: C
The best sources of vitamin B12 (C) are of animal
origin. Ham and roast beef provide limited, if any,
amounts of calcium (A), folate (B), vitamin C (D), and
vitamin K (E).

Question 21

22. Which vitamin aids the body in converting tryptophan
    to niacin?
    A. Folic acid
    B. Pantothenic acid
    C. Vitamin B6
    D. Vitamin B12
    E. Vitamin E

Answer 21

ANS: C
Vitamin B6
(C) helps the body convert tryptophan to
niacin in the body. Folic acid (A), pantothenic acid (B),
vitamin B12 (D), and vitamin E (E) do not aid in the
synthesis of niacin in the body.

Question 22

23. Which vitamin is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?
    A. D
    B. E
    C. K
    D. A
    E. C

Answer 22

ANS: E
Vitamin C (E) is a water-soluble vitamin. Vitamins D
(A), E (B), K (C), and A (D) are all fat-soluble vitamins.

Question 23

24. Which phrase BEST describes the process of anabolism?
    A. Splitting complex substances into simpler substances
    B. Depositing inorganic elements onto an organic
    matrix
    C. Dividing insoluble molecules (fats) into smaller
    particles
    D. Using absorbed nutrients to build or synthesize
    more complex compounds
    E. Hydrolyzing triglycerides for use in the Krebs
    cycle

Answer 23

ANS: D
Anabolism is best described as the synthesis of
absorbed nutrients into more complex compounds
(D). Splitting complex substances into simpler
substances is characteristic of catabolism (A). The
deposition of inorganic elements onto an organic
matrix is characteristic of mineralization (B). The
division of insoluble molecules into smaller particles,
is characteristic of emulsification (C). The process of
hydrolyzing triglycerides for use in the Krebs cycle is
characteristic of oxidation (E).

Question 24

25. For a manufacturer to label a food as containing “zero”
    trans fats, the maximum number of grams that the
    U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) allows the
    product to contain is
    A. 0.2.
    B. 0.5.
    C. 0.75.
    D. 1.2.
    E. 2.0.

Answer 24

ANS: B
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration allows foods to
be labeled as containing “zero” trans fats if the product
contains less than 0.5 grams (g) (B) per serving. Canadian
regulations are set at 0.2g (A) per serving. Amounts listed
in other choices—0.75g (C), 1.2g (D), and 2.0g (E)—are
too large to be considered for zero labeling

Question 25

26. Energy intake is balanced by appetite (the desire to
    eat) and hunger (the physiologic desire to eat). The
    pituitary gland regulates hunger.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 25

ANS: C
The first statement is true, and the second statement
is false (C). Energy intake is balanced by appetite and
hunger. The hypothalamus, not the pituitary gland,
regulates hunger. Choices A, B, and D do not correctly
reflect the statements.

Question 26

27. Linoleic acid is an essential fatty acid that cannot be
    synthesized by the body. Good sources of linoleic acid
    include meat, fish, poultry, and eggs.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 26

ANS: C
The first statement is true, and the second statement
is false (C). Linoleic acid is an omega-6 fatty acid
that cannot be synthesized by the body and must
be obtained from dietary sources. Good sources of
linoleic acid include liquid vegetable oils, nuts, and
seeds. Meat, fish, poultry, and eggs are good sources of
arachidonic acid. Choices A, B, and D do not correctly
reflect the statements.

Question 27

28. Order the steps of iron deficiency development, from
    first to last. Match each letter with its proper sequence
    number.
29. _____
30. _____
31. ## _____A. Hemoglobin production falls
    B. Iron stores diminish.
    C. Transport of iron decreases.

Answer 27

ANS: 1B; 2C; 3A
In the development of iron deficiency, iron stores in the
body first diminish (B), followed by a decrease in the
transport of iron (C). Subsequently, a decrease occurs
in hemoglobin production (A).

Question 28

29. Serum ferritin test measures the first stage of iron
    deficiency. For this first stage, accurate measures
    may be made in infants, children, and adults with this
    diagnostic test.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 28

ANS: C
The first statement is true, and the second statement is
false (C). Serum ferritin testing is used to measure the
initial stage of iron deficiency. Accurate measures can
be made for children and adults, as serum ferritin cutoff values can be determined. However, serum ferritin
is not a reliable diagnostic tool for infants, as normal
serum ferritin values are often present in conjunction
with iron-responsive anemia. Choices A, B, and D do
not correctly reflect the statements.

Question 29

30. Which laboratory finding reflects the most
    cardioprotective lipoprotein profile?
    A. High very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs), high
    low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
    B. Low very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs), high
    high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
    C. Low high-density lipoproteins (HDLs), high lowdensity lipoproteins (LDLs)
    D. High low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), high highdensity lipoproteins (HDLs)

Answer 29

ANS: B
The presence of low very-low-density lipoproteins
(VLDLs) and high high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
(B) is the most cardioprotective lipoprotein profile.
Lipoproteins are water-soluble compounds that carry
lipids throughout the body. The best lipid profile is
a high HDL to low low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
and VLDL level. VLDLs transport cholesterol and
triglycerides in the body, and high levels (A, D)
may lead to the development of atherosclerosis.
LDLs primarily carry cholesterol from the liver
to other peripheral sites, and high levels of LDLs
(C, D) are also associated with the development
of atherosclerosis. HDLs are often termed “good
cholesterol” because they carry cholesterol away from
the arteries and back to the liver.

Question 30

31. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM) is commonly
    measured by using serum albumin and total lymphocyte
    counts. Albumin synthesis depends on functioning liver
    cells and an appropriate supply of amino acids.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 30

ANS: A
Both statements are true (A). PEM is commonly
measured by using serum albumin and total
lymphocyte counts. Serum albumin accounts for more
than 50% of total serum proteins. Albumin synthesis
depends on functioning liver cells and an appropriate
supply of amino acids. Choices B, C, and D do not
correctly reflect the statements.

Question 31

32. Conditions other than malnutrition may depress
    albumin concentration. Advanced kidney disease, liver
    disease, infection, cancer, and burns may all depress
    albumin concentration.
    A. Both statements are true.
    B. Both statements are false.
    C. The first statement is true, and the second statement
    is false.
    D. The first statement is false, and the second
    statement is true.

Answer 31

ANS: A
Both statements are true (A). In addition to
malnutrition, advanced kidney disease, liver disease,
infection, cancer, and burns may all depress albumin
concentration. Choices B, C, and D do not correctly
reflect the statements

Question 32

33. Measuring prothrombin time (PT) provides an
    important indication of which nutrient level?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin C
    C. Niacin
    D. Vitamin K
    E. Potassium

Answer 32

ANS: D
Measuring prothrombin time (PT) is an important
indicator for vitamin K (D) levels in those individuals
taking warfarin (Coumadin). Blood clotting is affected
in patients taking anticoagulants such as warfarin.
Vitamin K levels affect PT and may result in increased
or excessive bleeding during clinical treatment if not
closely monitored. Measuring PT would not reliably
indicate levels of vitamin A (A), vitamin C (B), niacin
(C), or potassium (E).

Question 33

34. Each factor contributes to vitamin D deficiency EXCEPT
    one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A. Dietary insufficiency
    B. Malabsorption
    C. Kidney disease
    D. Skin disease
    E. Sunscreen

Answer 33

ANS: D
Skin diseases (D) do not contribute to vitamin D
deficiency. Vitamin D deficiency may be caused by
dietary insufficiency (A), malabsorption (B), kidney
disease (C), and sunscreen (E), all of which may
prevent the conversion of vitamin D precursors to
active vitamin D.

Question 34

35. Brittle, ridged, or spoon-shaped nails; scaly, flaky,
    off-colored or cracked facial skin; and pale epithelial
    lining of the eyes and gingiva are signs of which
    nutritional deficiency?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin B
    C. Zinc
    D. Iron
    E. Vitamin K

Answer 34

ANS: D
Iron deficiencies (D) may be characterized by brittle,
ridged, or spoon-shaped nails; scaly, flaky, offcolored or cracked facial skin; and pale epithelial
lining of the eyes and gingiva. Deficiency of
vitamin A (A) is associated with loss of night vision,
keratomalacia, corneal ulceration, or Bitot spots.
Angular cheilitis or cheilosis (cracks around the
corners of the mouth) and glossitis (inflammation
of the tongue) are associated with deficiencies of
several B-complex vitamins (B). Zinc deficiency
(C) is associated with changes in the epithelium of
the tongue, flattened filiform papillae, increased
susceptibility to periodontal disease, and loss of taste and smell acuity. Vitamin K deficiencies (E) are
associated with bleeding problems, including gingival
hemorrhaging.

Question 35

36. For each numbered nutritional element, select its most
    closely linked deficiency symptom.

Nutritional Element:
____ 1. Zinc
____ 2. Vitamin A
____ 3. Riboflavin
____ 4. Vitamin K
____ 5. Vitamin C
=======
Deficiency Symptom:
A. Thickened oral epithelium
and tongue, impaired taste
B. Gingival hemorrhaging
C. Angular cheilosis, burning
tongue, blue to purple mucosa
D. Odontoblast atrophy, slow
wound healing
E. Ameloblast atrophy, accelerated periodontal destruction

Answer 35

ANS: 1A; 2E; 3C; 4B; 5D
Zinc deficiency (1) is associated with thickened
oral epithelium and tongue and impaired taste (A).
Vitamin A deficiency (2) is associated with ameloblast
atrophy and accelerated periodontal destruction (E).
Riboflavin deficiency (3) is associated with angular
cheilosis, burning tongue, and blue-to-purple–colored
mucosa (C). Vitamin K deficiency (4) is linked to
gingival hemorrhaging (B). Vitamin C deficiency (5)
is associated with odontoblast atrophy and slow wound
healing (D).

Question 36

37. Which are the physiologic roles of potassium? (Select
    all that apply.)
    A. Affects muscle contraction
    B. Facilitates nerve impulses
    C. Maintains electrical conductivity of the heart
    D. Sustains osmotic equilibrium
    E. Maintains electrolyte balance

Answer 36

ANS: A, B, C
Muscle contraction (A), facilitation of nerve impulses
(B), and maintenance of the electrical conductivity
of the heart (C) are all the physiologic roles of
potassium. Osmotic equilibrium (D) and electrolyte
balance (E) are the physiologic roles of chloride, not
potassium.

Question 37

38. Which electrolytes are cations? (Select all that apply.)
    A. Sodium
    B. Potassium
    C. Magnesium
    D. Phosphate
    E. Calcium

Answer 37

ANS: A, B, C, E
Cations (electrolytes that have a positive charge)
include sodium (A), potassium (B), magnesium (C),
and calcium (E). Phosphate (D) is an anion, or an
electrolyte that has a negative charge.

Question 38

39. Which factors impact the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
    (Select all that apply.)
    A. Age
    B. Starvation
    C. Kilocalories
    D. Body composition
    E. State of health

Answer 38

ANS: A, B, D, E
Factors affecting the basal metabolic rate (BMR)
include age (A), starvation or fasting (B), body
composition and gender (D), and state of health (E).
Other factors affecting BMR include sleep, exercise,
and endocrine function. Kilocalories measure
metabolic energy (C), not BMR.

Question 39

40. All are plasma components of hyperlipidemia
    EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
    A. Triglycerides
    B. Trans fats
    C. Phospholipids
    D. High-density lipoproteins
    E. Low-density lipoproteins

Answer 39

ANS: A, C, D, E
Hyperlipidemia describes an elevation of lipids or
fats in the blood. Lipids include triglycerides (A),
cholesterol esters, phospholipids (C), high-density
lipoproteins (D), and low-density lipoproteins (E).
Trans fats (B) are artificially manufactured lipids
created by saturating carbon bonds.