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Positioning 1 > Ch. 11 Skull Workbook > Flashcards

Ch. 11 Skull Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

total number of cranium bones

A

8

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2
Q

total number of facial bones

A

14

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3
Q

what are the 4 cranial bones that form the calvaria (skullcap)

A
  • frontal
  • right parietal
  • left parietal
  • occipital
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4
Q

what are the 4 cranial bones that form the floor of the cranium

A
  • right temporal
  • left temporal
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
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5
Q

the small horizontal plate of the ethmoid

A

cribriform plate

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6
Q

the vertical plate of the ethmoid bone forming the upper portion of the bony nasal septum

A

perpendicular plate

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7
Q

a structure found in the middle of the sphenoid bone that surrounds the pituitary gland

A

sella turcica

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8
Q

what is the posterior aspect of the sella turcica called

A

dorsum sellae

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9
Q

which structure of the sphenoid bone allows for the passage of the optic nerve and is the actual opening into the orbit

A

optic foramen

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10
Q

which structures of the sphenoid bone help to form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavities

A

medial and lateral pterygoid processes

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11
Q

which radiographic projection best demonstrates the sella turcica and dorsum sellae

A

lateral projection

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12
Q

which aspect of the frontal bone forms the superior aspect of the orbit

A

orbital or horizontal portion

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13
Q

cranial sutures are classified as what type of joints

A

fibrous - synarthrodial

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14
Q

small, irregular bones that sometimes develop in adult skull sutures

A

sutural or wormian bones

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15
Q

where are sutural/wormian bones most often found

A

lambdoidal suture

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16
Q

what term describes the superior rim of the orbit

A

supraorbital margin (SOM)

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17
Q

what is the name of the notch that separates the orbital plates from each other

A

ethmoidal notch

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18
Q

which cranial bones form the upper lateral walls of the calvarium

A

right and left parietals

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19
Q

which cranial bone contains the foramen magnum

A

occipital bone

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20
Q

a small prominence located on the squamous portion of the occipital bone

A

external occipital protuberance, or inion

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21
Q

what is the name of the oval processes found on the occipital bone that help form the atlanto-occipital joint

A

occipital condyles or lateral condylar portions

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22
Q

what are the 3 aspects of the temporal bones

A
  • squamous
  • mastoid
  • petrous
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23
Q

which is the densest aspect of the temporal bone

A

petrous portion

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24
Q

which external landmark corresponds with the level of the petrous ridge

A

top of the ear attachment (TEA)

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25
Q

which opening in the temporal bone serves as a passageway for nerves of hearing and equilibrium

A

internal acoustic meatus

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26
Q

what are the 3 aspects of the temporal bone

A
  • squamous
  • mastoid
  • petrous
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27
Q

which aspect of the temporal bone is considered the densest

A

petrous portion

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28
Q

which structure makes up the cartilaginous external ear

A

auricle or pinna

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29
Q

how long is the average external acoustic meatus (EAM)

A

1” (2.5 cm)

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30
Q

which small membrane marks the beginning of the middle ear

A

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

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31
Q

what is the collective term for the small bones of the middle ear

A

auditory ossicles

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32
Q

which structure allows for communication between the nasopharynx and middle ear

A

eustachian or auditory tube

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33
Q

what is the major function of the eustachian/auditory tube

A

equalize the atmospheric pressure within the middle ear

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34
Q

which structure serves as an opening between the mastoid portion of the temporal bone and the middle ear

A

aditus

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35
Q

what is the name of the thin plate of bone that separates the mastoid air cells from the brain

A

tegmen tympani

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36
Q

which of the auditory ossicles picks up sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane

A

malleus (hammer)

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37
Q

which of the auditory ossicles is considered the smallest

A

stapes (stirrup)

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38
Q

which of the auditory ossicles resembles a premolar tooth

A

incus (anvil)

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39
Q

what is the name of the small membrane that connects the middle to the inner ear

A

oval or vestibular window

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40
Q

which two sensory functions occur within the inner ear

A
  • hearing
  • equilibrium
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41
Q

what is the name of the small membrane found at the base of the cochlea

A

round or cochlear window

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42
Q

T/F - the semicircular canals include a closed system specific to the sense of hearing

A

false

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43
Q

bacterial infection of the mastoid process

A

mastoiditis

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44
Q

growth arising from a mucous membrane

A

polyp

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45
Q

hereditary disease involving excessive bone formation of middle ear

A

otosclerosis

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46
Q

benign, cystic mass or tumor of the middle ear

A

cholesteatoma

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47
Q

new and abnormal growth

A

neoplasia

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48
Q

benign tumor of the auditory nerve sheath

A

acoustic neuroma

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49
Q

radiographic appearance of acoustic neuroma

A

expansion of the internal acoustic canal

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50
Q

what imaging modality best demonstrates otosclerosis

A

CT

51
Q

skull width <75% of length

A

dolichocephalic

52
Q

skull width between 75% and 80% of length

A

mesocephalic

52
Q

skull width > or equal to 80% of length

A

brachycephalic

53
Q

what is the angle between the midsagittal plane and the long axis of the petrous bone in a mesocephalic skull

A

47 degrees

54
Q

the dolichocephalic skull has an angle between the midsagittal plane and long axis of the petrous bone of how much

A

40 degrees (<47 degrees)

55
Q

T/F - two older terms for the orbitomeatal line (OML) are Reid’s base line and the anthropologic base line

A

false - infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)

56
Q

what is the degree difference between the orbitomeatal line (OML) and the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)

A

7-8 degrees

57
Q

what is the degree difference between the orbitomeatal line (OML) and the glabellomeatal line (GML)

A

7-8 degrees

58
Q

lateral junction of the eyelid

A

outer canthus

59
Q

posterior angle of the jaw

A

gonion

60
Q

a line between infraorbital margins and the EAM

A

infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)

61
Q

corresponds to the highest “nuchal” line of the occipital bone

A

inion

62
Q

a line between the glabella and alveolar process of the maxilla

A

glabelloalveolar line (GAL)

63
Q

a line between the mental point and the EAM

A

mentomeatal line (MML)

64
Q

located at the junction of the two nasal bones and the frontal bone

A

nasion

65
Q

the small cartilaginous flap covering the ear opening

A

tragus

66
Q

corresponds to the highest level of the facial bone mass

A

supraorbital groove (SOG)

67
Q

a line between the midlateral orbital margin and the EAM

A

OML

68
Q

the center point of the EAM

A

auricular point

69
Q

a positioning line that is primarily used for the modified waters projection

A

lips-meatal line

70
Q

a line used in positioning to ensure that the skull is in a true lateral position

A

interpupillary line

71
Q

corresponds to the level of the petrous ridge

A

top of the ear attachment (TEA)

72
Q

a smooth, slightly depressed area between the eyebrows

A

glabella

73
Q

what is the average kVp range for skull radiography

A

75-90 kVp

74
Q

what are the 5 most common errors made during skull radiography

A
  • rotation
  • tilt
  • excessive neck flexion
  • excessive neck extension
  • incorrect CR angulation
75
Q

of the 5 most common errors during skull radiography, which 2 are most common

A

rotation and tilt

76
Q

bilateral horizontal fractures of the maxillae describes what type of fracture

A

Le Fort

77
Q

which imaging modality is the most common neuroimaging procedure performed for the cranium

A

CT

78
Q

which imaging modality is commonly performed on neonates with a possible intracranial hemorrhage

A

ultrasound

79
Q

which imaging modality is most commonly performed to evaluate patients for Alzheimer disease

A

nuclear medicine

80
Q

fracture that may produce an air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus

A

basal skull fracture

81
Q

destructive lesion with irregular margins

A

osteolytic neoplasm

82
Q

also called a “ping-pong” fracture

A

depressed skull fracture

83
Q

proliferative bony lesion of increased density

A

osteoblastic neoplasm

84
Q

a tumor that may produce erosion of the sella turcica

A

pituitary adenoma

85
Q

also known as osteitis deformans

A

paget disease

86
Q

a bone tumor that originates in the bone marrow

A

multiple myeloma

87
Q

what clinical indication may require an increase in manual exposure factors

A

advanced paget disease

88
Q

which cranial bone is best demonstrated with an AP axial (Towne method) projection of the skull

A

occipital

89
Q

when using a 30 degree caudad angle for the AP axial (Towne method) projection of the skull, which positioning line should be perp to the IR

A

OML

90
Q

a properly positioned AP axial (Towne method) projection should place the dorsum sellae into the middle aspect of what

A

foramen magnum

91
Q

a lack of symmetry of the petrous ridges indicates what problem with a radiograph of an AP axial projection

A

rotation

92
Q

if a patient can’t flex the head adequately for the AP axial (Towne method), what could the tech do instead

A

place IOML perp to IR and angle 37 degrees caudad

93
Q

what evidence on an AP axial (Towne method) radiograph indicated whether the correct CR angle and correct head flexion were used

A

dorsum sellae and posterior clinoids should be projected into the foramen magnum

94
Q

what CR angle should be used for the PA axial (Haas method) projection for the cranium

A

25 degree cephalad

95
Q

where is CR centered for a lateral projection of the skull

A

2” (5 cm) above the EAM

96
Q

which specific positioning error is present if the mandibular rami are not superimposed on a lateral skull radiograph

A

rotation

97
Q

where will the petrous ridges be projected with a 15 degree PA axial (caldwell) projection of the cranium

A

in the lower 1/3 of the orbits

98
Q

which specific positioning error is present if the petrous ridges are projected higher in the orbits than expected for a 15 degree PA axial projection

A

excessive flexion or insufficient CR angle

99
Q

which projection of the cranium produces an image of the frontal bone with little or no distortion

A

0 degree PA

100
Q

for a patient with possible trauma, what must be determined before performing the submentovertical (SMV) projection of the skull

A

rule out any possible cervical fractures or subluxation

101
Q

what positioning error has been committed if the EAMs are not superimposed with one of them more superior than the other on a lateral projection of the cranium

A

tilt of the skull

102
Q

which skull positioning line is placed parallel to the plane of the IR for the SMV projection

A

IOML

103
Q

which of the following projections best demonstrates the sella turcica in profile

A

lateral

104
Q

which of the following projections best demonstrates the foramen rotundum

A

25-30 degree PA axial

105
Q

which of the following projections best demonstrates the clivus in profile

A

lateral

106
Q

where does the CR exit for a PA axial (Haas method) projection of the skull

A

1.5” (4 cm) superior to the nasion

107
Q

which imaging modality is best to differentiate between an epidural and a subdural hemorrhage

A

CT

108
Q

a radiograph of an AP axial (Towne method) projection of the cranium shows the right petrous ridge is wider than the left. what positioning error is present

A

rotation of skull; rotation of patient’s face toward the left

109
Q

a radiograph of a 15 degree PA axial (caldwell) projection of the cranium demonstrates the petrous ridges are projected at the inferior orbital margin. what positioning error led to this

A

excessive extension or excessive caudad CR angle

110
Q

a radiograph of a 15 degree PA axial (caldwell) projection demonstrates the distance between the right midlateral orbital borders and lateral margin of the skull cortex is greater than the left side. what positioning error led to this

A

rotation of the patient’s face (skull) to the left

111
Q

a radiograph of an SMV projection of the skull shows the mandibular condyles are within the petrous bone , what positioning error led to this

A

insufficient extension of the skull, or CR was not perp to IOML

112
Q

a radiograph of a lateral projection of the skull shows the orbital plates are not superimposed (one orbital plate is slightly superior to the other) what positioning error led to this

A

skull tilt

113
Q

a lateral skull radiograph demonstrates one mandibular ramus about 0.5 cm more anterior than the other, what positioning error occurred

A

skull rotation

114
Q

an AP axial (Towne method) radiograph for the cranium demonstrates the dorsum sellae projected above or superior to the foramen magnum, the foramen magnum is distorted, what positioning error occurred

A

CR angled <37 degrees to the IOML, or <30 degree to the OML (would be caused by 30 degree angle to IOML) error can be addressed with more flexion of neck

115
Q

a patient comes to the radiology department with a possible tumor of the pituitary gland, which radiographic projection of the cranium best demonstrates any bony involvement of the sella turcica

A

collimated, lateral projection of sella turcica

116
Q

a patient with a possible linear fracture of the right parietal bone enters the ER, what single radiographic projection of the skull best demonstrates this fracture

A

right lateral projection of skull

117
Q

a patient comes to the radiology department for a skull series, but the patient cannot assume the correct position for either version of the AP axial (Towne method) projection because of a very short neck and severe spinal kyphosis, what can the tech do to demonstrate the occipital bone

A

perform the PA axial projection (Haas method)

118
Q

a patient with a possible basal skull fracture enters the ER, no CT scanner is available, what position may provide radiographic evidence of this fracture

A

horizontal beam (dorsal decub) lateral position - will demonstrate possible air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus

119
Q

a neonate has a clinical history of craniosynostosis, due to the age of the patient, the physician does not order a radiographic procedure of the cranium, what other imaging modality can be performed to evaluate the patient for this condition

A

ultrasound

120
Q

a patient with a clinical history of acoustic neuroma comes to the radiology department. what imaging modality or modalities can be performed for this type of pathology

A

MRI or CT

121
Q

a radiograph of an AP axial (Towne method) projection for the cranium shows that the posterior arch of C1 is projected within the foramen magnum, the dorsum sellae is superimposed on the posterior arch as well, what is/are the errors

A

over angulation of CR or excessive flexion of neck

122
Q

a radiograph of an AP axial (Towne method) projection for the cranium shows the mid-to lower mandible is cut off and not demonstrated, what should the tech do

A

no repeat required - due to elongation of the facial mass with this projection, cutting off aspects of the mandible is acceptable

Positioning 1 (48 decks)

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